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118 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What are the clostridial neurotoxins?
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botulinum and tetanus
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Botulism, cholera, diptheria, whooping cough, scalded skin syndrome, scarlet fever, tetanus, or toxic shock syndrome are all examples of diseases caused by
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toxins
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What are the 3 properties of bacterial protein toxins?
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heat-labile, immunogenic, and neutrolized by specific antibodies.
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Bacterial protein toxins were once called exotoxins...why?
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because they were found outside of cells
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What is an example of a bacterial protein toxin that is secreted? released upon lysis?
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diphtheria.
botulinum |
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Endotoxin originally referred to what?
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Lipopolysaccharides of gram negative bacteria
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LPS is an example of what? that involves what CD and what TLR?
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PAMP CD14 and TLR4
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hemolysins are what?
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toxins that damage the cell membranes of erythrocytes
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Cytolysins are what?
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toxins that damage the cell membranes of other cells
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Pyrogenic exotoxins are toxins that stimulate cytokine production and they are involved in what three issues?
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scarlet fever, food poisoning, and toxic shock syndrome.
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Pyrogenic exotoxins belong to a class of molecules called?
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superantigens
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Superantigens are important because they activate what kind of cell after binding to what?
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T cell activation after binding to MHC class II molecules on antigen presenting cells and to specific Vb chains on T cells (at a nonantigen binding site).
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What toxins inactivate elongation factor 2 which inhibits protein synthesis?
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Diptheria toxin and pseudomonas aeruginosa exotoxin A
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What toxins are RNA N-glycosidases that remove an adenine residue from the 60S ribosome?
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Shiga toxins of shigella dysenteriea and E.coli
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What are the 6 major classes of toxins?
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1. toxins that facilitate the spread of microbes through tissues
2. Toxins that damage cellular membranes 3. Toxins that stimulate cytokine production 4. Toxins that inhibit protein synthesis 5. Toxins that modify intracellular signaling pathways 6. Toxins that inhibit release of neurotransmitters |
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What are the 2 toxins that inhibit the release of neurotransmitters?
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1. Botulinum toxin, 2.tetanus toxin,
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What are the two zinc-dependent endopeptidases?
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tetanus toxin and the botulinum toxins
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What is botulinum toxin used for therapeutically?
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several focal dystonias, involuntary movement disorders, including strabismus and blepharospasm, and cosmetics.
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Antitoxic antibodies do what
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bind to toxins and neutralize
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Toxoids are what?
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derivatives of toxins that retain immunogenicity but lack toxicity and are given as vaccines
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Passive immunization can be attained in regards to toxins how?
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antibodies
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Active immunization is different from passive immunization in that?
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toxoids are given to stimulate an Ab response
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What is the function of lysozume?
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hydrolysis of peptidoglycan
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What is the function of lactoferrin, transferrin?
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iron chelation
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What is the function of chemotactic factors?
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initiate inflammatory response
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What is the function of properdin?
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activates alternative complement pathway
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What is the function of defensins?
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neutrophils and epithelial surfaces
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Lysozymes come from?
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body fluids and lysosomes
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Lactoferrin and transferrins come from
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phagocytes, and mucosal secretions
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Chemotactic factors come from
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bacterial products, chemokines, complement, and plasma
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Properdin comes from
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plasma
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Defensins come from
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neutrophils and epithelial surfaces
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What can activate the alternative pathway?
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the presence of mannose or the abscence of the galactose and sialic acid on mammalian glycoproteins
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What activates the lectin pathway?
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mannan binding lectin binds sugars in the surface of microorganisms.
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What are the two anaphylatoxins from the cocmplement pathway?
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C3a and C5a
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Which part of the complement system initiates the MAC assembly and instigates opsinization?
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C3b fragments attached to the cell surface.
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If an individual has recurrent meningococcal infections they are likely to have ?
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Late complement deficiency
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C6 and C7 deficiencies are more common in what ethnic group?
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african americans
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C7 and C8 deficiencies are more common in what ethnic group?
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caucasians
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What is the PAMP associated with gram - bacteria?
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LPS and flagellin
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What is the PAMP associated with eubacteria?
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Peptidoglycan
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What is the PAMP associated with mycobacteria?
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Lipoarabinomannan
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What is the PAMP associated with most bacteria
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CpG
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What is the PAMP associated with yeast?
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Mannoproteins
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What is the protein that recognize the PAMPS of shigella, listeria, and rickettsia when they escape to the cytosol
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Nods
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What mutation can predispose someone to Crohn's disease?
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Nod2
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Signals that mediate an inflammatory response include what?
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IL1, IL6, TNFa, type 1 interferons and several chemokines
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What are signals that costimulate T cells
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B7.1 and B7.2
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What is a signal that promote lymphocyte differentiation?
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IL12
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Chemotactic factors from the host are?
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anaphylatoxins and chemokines
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The chemotactic factor from the microbe is?
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n-formyl- peptides
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What is the issue if you have leukocyte adhesion deficiency?
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A defective CD18 B2 integrin.
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Patients with leukocyte adhesion deficiency typically present how?
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With bacterial and fungal infections, impaired wound healing, and delayed umbilical cord severance.
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Lysozymes degrade what?
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peptidoglycan
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Lactoferrin does what?
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chelates iron
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What do cationic proteins do?
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damage membranes
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Chronic granulomatous disease is noted for what?
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recurrent fungal and bacterial infections due to the lack of phagocytic respiratory bursts because of genetic mutations in the NADPH oxidase complex
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What allows bacteria to regulate transcription?
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DNA binding proteins and phase variation
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How can a species be induced to becoming competent for transformation?
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treatment with calcium chloride and low temperature
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What is transduction?
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gene transfer mediated by a bacteriophage
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How is a lytic response different from a lysogenic response?
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lytic responses - phage replication and host lysis
lysogenic response - host stays viable anad DNA is preserved in the non infectious prophage |
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Conjugative plasmids are dangerous in bacteria because they...
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are self - transmissable
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F plasmid - 4 traits
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1. autonomous replication
2. synthesis of sex pili 3. conjugative transfer 4. integration ability |
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What does oriT stand for?
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the origen of transfer
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F plasmids can be called Hfr mating type... Hfr means what?
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High frequency of recombination
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LPS endotoxin due to treatment with some antibiotics, contaminated injections, and bacteremia can lead to
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endotoxic shock
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endotoxic shock can cause what?
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fever, shock, hypotension, hemorrhage, intravascular coagulation
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Staphylococcus aureus is what type of bug?
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gram positive cocci
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What percent of the population carries staphylococcus aureus without symptoms?
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30%
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Staph aureus can cause what diseases?
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a cutaneous infection and a toxin mediated disease and PNEUMONIA
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What is an example of SSNA?
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staphylococcus epidermidis
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What does SSNA stand for?
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staph species not aureous
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What is the bug who has an extracellular glycocalyx that creates a biofilm slime and typically infects catheters, shunts, valves and hip prosthesis?
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staphylococcus epidermidis
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Streptococcus is what?
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a gram + cocci
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Is streptococcus catalase positive or negative?
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catalase negative
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Is staphylococcus catalase positive or negative?
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catalase positive
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What are the three streptococcus we should know?
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strep pyogenes (group A), strep pneumoniae, and enterococcus faecalis
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Streptococcus pyogenes is in what diseases?
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pharyngeal infection, skin and wound infections,
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Which strep causes strep throat?
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streptococcus pyogenes
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What is the primary virulence factor of streptococcus pyogenes?
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M protein
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What are two diseases that can arise post strep infection?
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glomerulonephritis and rheumatic fever
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Streptococcus pneumonia can be visually distinguished how?
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G+ cocci in pairs
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How many people have streptococcus pneumoniae in the upper respiratory tract?
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40% of healthy people
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What diseases can be caused by strep pneumoniae
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pneumonia, meningitis, bacteremia, sinusitis, otitis media, and bronchitis
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What could predispose you to strep pneumonia?
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age extremes, alcoholism due to a mucocilliary defect, and respiratory viral infections
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Where does enterococcus faecalis typically infect?
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urinary tract, surgical wounds, biliary tract
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what sucks about enterococcus faecalis?
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its becoming resistant to vanco!
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What are classified as gram+ rods?
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clostridium
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What two things characterize clostridium?
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they are strict anaerobes and they form endospores!!!
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What are 4 types of clostridium?
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C. tetani, c. botulinum, c. perfringens, and c. difficil
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Where do most people get c. diff?
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the hospital :( Antibiotics wipe out normal flora and c.diff over grows
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C. diff causes what diseases?
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diarrhea and pseudomembranous colitis
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What percent off healthy people have c.diff in their normal flora?
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10%
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What are my two gram - rods?
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E.coli and pseudomonas aeruginosa
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Pseudomonas aeruginosa is what kind of pathogen and where does it infect?
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opportunistic and it infects burns or wounds
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What are the three diseases caused by e.coli?
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gi, uti, and abdominal
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ETEC stands for what?
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enterotoxigenic e. coli - traveler's diarrhea
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Psuedomonas aeruginosa is associated with people with what disease?
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CF
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What is my gram - cocci?
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neisseria gonorrhoea
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neisseria causes what diseases?
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gonorrhea and conjuntivitis
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Neisseria's infectivity is dependent on its what?
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pili
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Where do anaerobic bacteria (besides clostridia) infect?
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colon, mouth, genital tract and skin
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The typical lesion of anaerobic bacteria is?
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an abcess
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What are 2 examples of obligate intracellular bacteria?
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rickettsia and chlamydia
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Obligate intracellular bacteria need what?
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an infected cell
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What are the drugs that are not renally eliminated?
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CRIMES
clindomycin and chloromycin rifampin isomazid metromazole a.c.e. sulfa |
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Which gram - rod is also an anaerobe?
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bacteroides fragilis
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What are the three atypicals ?
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chlamydia, mycoplasma, and rickettsia
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which drugs attack cell wall synthesis?
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vancomycin, bacitracin, penicillin, cephalosporin, monobactams, carbapenems
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Which drugs attack dna gyrase?
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quinolones
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which drugs attack dna directed rna apolymerase?
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rifampin
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Which drugs attack 50s and are protein synthesis inhibitors
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erythromycin (macrolides) chloramphenicol, clindamycin, and streptogramins
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Which drugs attack 30s and are protein synthesis inhibitors
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tetracycline, streptomycin, gentomicin, tobramycin (aminoglycosides) amikacin
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Which drugs attack protein synthesis via trna
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mupirocin and linezolid
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Which drugs attack the cell membrane?
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polymyxins and daptomycin
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Which drugs attack folic acid metabolism?
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trimethoprim and sulfonamides
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Low ph does what to the activity of aminoglycosides?
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lowers it
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high ph does what the the effect of erythromycin
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increases it
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