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51 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What causes cat eye syndrome
4 copies of chromosome 22p+
How does an isodicentric chromosome form?
inverted duplication forms when resolution of 2 homologous acrocentric chromosomes results in a nugget with a centromere at each end
How would you test for Pallister-Killian prenatally?
Tetrasomy 12p won't show up on karyotype because the cells with this won't divide. Must order FISH or microarray.
Describe the 2 types of complex chromosomal rearrangements
Type 1--3 or 4 breaks, usually familial, usually maternal
Type 2--more than 4 breaks, usually de novo
What are some indications for chromosome analysis of an individual?
1.Features of a recognizable syndrome
2. MR
3. unexplained major/minor anomalies
4. MCA
5. sexual anomalies
6. growth anomalies
7. some malignancies
8. failed neonatal adaptation
9. mosaic features (streaks, asymmetry)
What is the sequence of the telemere cap?
TTAGGG
What is the name of the region after the telomere cap that is shared by all chromosomes?
telomere associated repeats
How long does each phase of the cell cycle last?
GI=12 h
S=6-8h
G2=3-4h
M= 1h
In females, when does Meiosis I complete? When does Meiosis II complete?
MI-puberty
MII-fertilization (usually doesn't happen)
Name 3 types of modifications that occur to alter histones
1. methylation of lysines/arginines
2.acetylations/ubiquitination of lysines
3. serine phosphorylation
How are histones involved in turning genes off?
Methylated cPg islands recruit proteins like histone deacetylases, which remove acetyl grouos from histones to make chromatin compact=turns off expression
5 lines of evidence for imprinting
1. pronuclear transplantation in mice
2. human triploids have different phenotypes
3. chromosome microdeletion syndromes
4. genetic disease with unusual inheritance
5. UPD
How does UPD 15 occur following maternal NDJ in Meiosis I?
Gametes can be either trisomic or monosomic. Trisomy rescue or monosomy rescue occurs.
Name 4 phenotypic risks of UPD
1. loss of gene exp due to imprinting
2. overexp. of an active gene
3. recessive disease
4. residual trisomy effects, since it once was
Paternal UPD causes what % of Angelman?
3-5%
Chromosomal rearrangement in mom causes what % of Angelman?

Recurrence risk?
less than 1%

10-20%
Imprinting center mutations cause what % of Angelman?

Recurrence risk?
3-5%

1% or 50%
Name 2 genes included in the Beckwith-Weidemann region
IGF2
CDKN1C
Paternal UPD11 can cause what?
Beckwith Weidemann
Name some mechanisms for imprinting
methylation os cytosine, chromatin compaction, DNA replication timing, others
Characteristic behavior in Smith-Magenis
sleep problems, hyperactivity, self-hugging, self-injury (put things in orifices, pulling out nails)
In 22q, what happens if calcium too low?
seizures
Features of 22q
Heart defect
palate defects
immuno defects
ENT defects
hypocalcemia
eye abnormalities
renal defects
neurologic abnormalities
DD
What % of 22q patients are female?
52%
% of 22q with autoimmune disease
about 4%
Most 22q patietns with hearing loss have what type?
conductive
% of 22q kids with DD
90%
% of 22q kids with language delay
100%
Name the 4 recombination products of a pericentric inversion
1. Duplication/deficiency
2. Inverted chromosome
3. Duplication/deficiency
4. Normal chromosome
Q banding recognizes what regions on what chromosomes?
AT regions, 1, 9, 16, acrocentrics, distal part of Y
G banding recognizes what sequences?
AT regions, chromosomes 1, 9, 16, acrocentrics, distal Y
C banding recognizes what regions and what chromosomes?
constitutive heterochromatin--1, 9, 16, distal Y
R banding is good ofr what regions?
telomeres
In proper nomenclature, for a given chromosome, which abnormality is listed first--numerical of structural?
numerical is always listed first

46, XX, der (13;21), +21
46, XX, +13, der (13;21)
Optimal gestation range for CVS
10-12 weeks
What is used to stimulate mitotic activity in a cell prep?
PHA
What characteristic do bone marrow cells and the trophoblast layer of chorionic villi cells have in common?
they divide spontaneously
Name 3 classes of commercially available DNA probes
repetitive sequence probes
locus-specific probe
whole chromosome paints
In a reciprocal translocation, which is a higher risk of an abnormal liveborn--small distal segments or large distal segments?
Small is more of a risk, because they are more likely to survive
Most unbalanced karyotypes seen in liveborns from reciprocal translocations are from which 2 types of segregation?
adjacent-1 or 3:1
Difference btwn primary and secondary nondisjunction
Primary occurs during meiosis. Secondary happens during mitosis and results in a mosaic embryo.
As maternal age increases, more recombination occurs where?
near telomeres
Most Down syndrome occurs from what event?
Nondisjunction in maternal Meiosis I
If paternal gametes undergo nondisjunction, it usually happens when?
Meiosis II
Major clinical features of Down syndrome
hypotonia
skeletal anomalies (neck instability)
GI anomalies
myopia, strabismus, nystagmus
hearing loss
hypothyroidism
hypogonadism
Percent of kids with Down syndrome who have heart defect
40-50%
Alzheimer risk in Down syndrome compared with general population
25% compared with 6%
Percent of patients with Down syndrome who have hearing loss
65%
Major physical features of trisomy 18
microcephaly with prominent occiput
thin, weak, cry
doll-like face
clenched fist with overlapping fingers
arches on dermatoglyphics
rocker bottom feet
2-3 toe syndactlyly
club feet
central apnea
Most common heart defect in tri 18
VSD
Internal malformations in tri 18
GI malformations (Meckel's diverticulum or malrotation)
omphalocoele
CNS abnormalities
Genital abnormalities
Heart defect