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51 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
What causes cat eye syndrome
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4 copies of chromosome 22p+
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How does an isodicentric chromosome form?
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inverted duplication forms when resolution of 2 homologous acrocentric chromosomes results in a nugget with a centromere at each end
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How would you test for Pallister-Killian prenatally?
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Tetrasomy 12p won't show up on karyotype because the cells with this won't divide. Must order FISH or microarray.
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Describe the 2 types of complex chromosomal rearrangements
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Type 1--3 or 4 breaks, usually familial, usually maternal
Type 2--more than 4 breaks, usually de novo |
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What are some indications for chromosome analysis of an individual?
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1.Features of a recognizable syndrome
2. MR 3. unexplained major/minor anomalies 4. MCA 5. sexual anomalies 6. growth anomalies 7. some malignancies 8. failed neonatal adaptation 9. mosaic features (streaks, asymmetry) |
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What is the sequence of the telemere cap?
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TTAGGG
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What is the name of the region after the telomere cap that is shared by all chromosomes?
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telomere associated repeats
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How long does each phase of the cell cycle last?
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GI=12 h
S=6-8h G2=3-4h M= 1h |
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In females, when does Meiosis I complete? When does Meiosis II complete?
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MI-puberty
MII-fertilization (usually doesn't happen) |
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Name 3 types of modifications that occur to alter histones
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1. methylation of lysines/arginines
2.acetylations/ubiquitination of lysines 3. serine phosphorylation |
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How are histones involved in turning genes off?
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Methylated cPg islands recruit proteins like histone deacetylases, which remove acetyl grouos from histones to make chromatin compact=turns off expression
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5 lines of evidence for imprinting
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1. pronuclear transplantation in mice
2. human triploids have different phenotypes 3. chromosome microdeletion syndromes 4. genetic disease with unusual inheritance 5. UPD |
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How does UPD 15 occur following maternal NDJ in Meiosis I?
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Gametes can be either trisomic or monosomic. Trisomy rescue or monosomy rescue occurs.
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Name 4 phenotypic risks of UPD
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1. loss of gene exp due to imprinting
2. overexp. of an active gene 3. recessive disease 4. residual trisomy effects, since it once was |
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Paternal UPD causes what % of Angelman?
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3-5%
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Chromosomal rearrangement in mom causes what % of Angelman?
Recurrence risk? |
less than 1%
10-20% |
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Imprinting center mutations cause what % of Angelman?
Recurrence risk? |
3-5%
1% or 50% |
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Name 2 genes included in the Beckwith-Weidemann region
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IGF2
CDKN1C |
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Paternal UPD11 can cause what?
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Beckwith Weidemann
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Name some mechanisms for imprinting
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methylation os cytosine, chromatin compaction, DNA replication timing, others
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Characteristic behavior in Smith-Magenis
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sleep problems, hyperactivity, self-hugging, self-injury (put things in orifices, pulling out nails)
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In 22q, what happens if calcium too low?
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seizures
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Features of 22q
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Heart defect
palate defects immuno defects ENT defects hypocalcemia eye abnormalities renal defects neurologic abnormalities DD |
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What % of 22q patients are female?
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52%
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% of 22q with autoimmune disease
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about 4%
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Most 22q patietns with hearing loss have what type?
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conductive
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% of 22q kids with DD
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90%
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% of 22q kids with language delay
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100%
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Name the 4 recombination products of a pericentric inversion
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1. Duplication/deficiency
2. Inverted chromosome 3. Duplication/deficiency 4. Normal chromosome |
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Q banding recognizes what regions on what chromosomes?
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AT regions, 1, 9, 16, acrocentrics, distal part of Y
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G banding recognizes what sequences?
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AT regions, chromosomes 1, 9, 16, acrocentrics, distal Y
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C banding recognizes what regions and what chromosomes?
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constitutive heterochromatin--1, 9, 16, distal Y
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R banding is good ofr what regions?
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telomeres
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In proper nomenclature, for a given chromosome, which abnormality is listed first--numerical of structural?
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numerical is always listed first
46, XX, der (13;21), +21 46, XX, +13, der (13;21) |
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Optimal gestation range for CVS
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10-12 weeks
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What is used to stimulate mitotic activity in a cell prep?
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PHA
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What characteristic do bone marrow cells and the trophoblast layer of chorionic villi cells have in common?
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they divide spontaneously
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Name 3 classes of commercially available DNA probes
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repetitive sequence probes
locus-specific probe whole chromosome paints |
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In a reciprocal translocation, which is a higher risk of an abnormal liveborn--small distal segments or large distal segments?
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Small is more of a risk, because they are more likely to survive
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Most unbalanced karyotypes seen in liveborns from reciprocal translocations are from which 2 types of segregation?
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adjacent-1 or 3:1
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Difference btwn primary and secondary nondisjunction
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Primary occurs during meiosis. Secondary happens during mitosis and results in a mosaic embryo.
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As maternal age increases, more recombination occurs where?
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near telomeres
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Most Down syndrome occurs from what event?
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Nondisjunction in maternal Meiosis I
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If paternal gametes undergo nondisjunction, it usually happens when?
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Meiosis II
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Major clinical features of Down syndrome
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hypotonia
skeletal anomalies (neck instability) GI anomalies myopia, strabismus, nystagmus hearing loss hypothyroidism hypogonadism |
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Percent of kids with Down syndrome who have heart defect
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40-50%
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Alzheimer risk in Down syndrome compared with general population
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25% compared with 6%
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Percent of patients with Down syndrome who have hearing loss
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65%
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Major physical features of trisomy 18
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microcephaly with prominent occiput
thin, weak, cry doll-like face clenched fist with overlapping fingers arches on dermatoglyphics rocker bottom feet 2-3 toe syndactlyly club feet central apnea |
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Most common heart defect in tri 18
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VSD
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Internal malformations in tri 18
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GI malformations (Meckel's diverticulum or malrotation)
omphalocoele CNS abnormalities Genital abnormalities Heart defect |