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193 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What are the three cardinal symptoms of heart failure?
1) fatigue
2) dyspnea
3) edema
The most common cause of heart failure?
Left Ventricular Systolic Dysfxn (60%)
Caused by CAD or idiopathic dilated cardiomyopathy, valvular HD, toxins, congenital
What is the clinical syndrome of HF caused by?
1) pump failure
2) inadequate tissue/organ perfusion
What are the goals of HF therapy?
1) improve ejection fraction (increase contractility, decrease afterload)
2) alleviate pulmonary edema (decrease preload)
3) reduce cardiac remodeling (ACE-I, BBs, aldost antag)
4) reduce mortality
What is the body's response to HF?
- SNS increases HR and contractility to increase CO.
- Circulates catecholamines to increase vasoconst. to shunt blood to brain
Why does fluid retention occur in HF?
- the RAAS is activated
- ADH is released by hyopthalamus causing reabsorption of water in renal CD
Explain abnormal lab findings in HF
CBC- anemia
TSH- thyrotoxicosis
CMP- electrolytes
LFTs
Na- hyponatremia
Creat- increased due to hypoperfusion
BNP- elevated
pH- acidotic
p02- hypoxic
Discuss findings of CHF on CXR
cardiomegaly
kerley B lines
cephalization of vessels
pleural effusions
alveolar edema
What are the stages of the NYHA HF classification system?
I- no symptom limitation with ordinary physical activity
II- ordinary phys activity somewhat limited by dyspnea
III- exercise limited by dyspnea at mild work loads
IV- dyspnea at rest of with very little exertion
What are the three distinct arrhythmia mechanisms?
1) triggered
2) reentry
3) automaticity
What can dig toxicity lead to and why?
DADs, because of a intracellular overload of Ca
What kinds of drugs can provoke or unmask sinus node dysfunction?
1) Beta blockers
2) Ca channel blockers (Verapamil/Diltiazem)
3) Digoxin (less common)
What are the 2 requirements for reentry to occur?
1) slow conduction
2) unidirectional block
What are the two hallmarks on EKG of AV nodal reentrant tach?
1) pseudo S wave
2) pseudo R prime- p wave activated in retrograde direction
What are the types of Atrial Fib?
1) Paroxysmal, episodic that converts to NSR spont
2) Persistent- episodic that terminates only after intervention
3) Permanent- resists attempts to restore NSR
4) Lone AF- reserved for pts <60yrs with no underlying cardiac abnormality
What is the CHADS score?
assesses risk of thromboembolism in patients with non rheumatic AFIB. The higher the score, the higher risk of stroke.

-CHF
-HTN
-Age >75
-DM
-Stroke
Each are one point. 2 points for hx of stroke.
What is the target in ablation of atrial flutter?
we target the cavotricuspid isthmus to cure the circuit
What needs to be true if you want to cardiovert AFIB?
pt needs to be on anticaogulant therapy for 3 weeks to prevent any clots in heart to cause a stroke
What is the difference bt nonsustained and sustained VT?
nonsustained VT- more than 3 consecutive beats faster than 100/min
sustained VT- must be longer than 30 seconds or is hemodynamically intolerable
What is the only anti-arrhythmic drug that can suppress ventricular ectopy and/or nonsustained VT but have a neutral effect on survival in patients with structural heart dz, myocardial ischemia, and impaired ventricular fxn?
Amiodarone!
What are the 7 risk factors of the TIMI Risk score?
1) age over 65
2) more than 3 risk factors for CAD
3) documented CAD at cath
4) ST deviation more than .5mm
5) more than 2 episodes of angina in last 24 hrs
6) aspirin use within the prior week
7) elevated cardiac markers
What are some high risk clinical features for acute coronary syndrome?
pulmonary edema
new or worsening MR murmur
S3 or new/worsening rales
hypotension, bradycardia, tachycardia
age over 75
When is it appropriate to put a stent in a coronary artery?
only at >70% stenosis
What patients do the 2007 ACC?AHA UA/NSTEMI guidelines recommend CABG as the preferred revasculation strategy?
Pts with:
-sig left main disease (>50% stenosis)
- 3 or 2 vessel dz who have sig proximal LAD stenosis, and either treated DM or LV dysfxn
What are the 2 patient-centered goals for reperfusion therapy?
1) first medical contact to balloon time < 90 minutes
2) first medical contact to needle time < 30 minutes
What is the timing of a free wall rupture post MI?
peaks 5th day
What is the murmur with VSD post MI?
loud holosystolic murmur
What is the timing of right ventricular infarction post MI?
first 24 hours
What is the murmur of papillary muscle rupture?
often soft or inaudible holosystolic murmur
What artery is usually occluded in patients with inferior STEMI?
RV fed by right marginal artery
ST elevation seen in leads V3 and V4
What are the three phases of cardiac arrest?
1) Electrical- lasts 4 minutes after initial collapse, high degree of responsiveness to early defib
2) Circulatory- lasts 4-10 min. Good quality CPR is of paramount importance with emphasis on O2 delivery to brain and heart before defib.
3) Metabolic- after 10 minutes
What are the big indicators for ICD implantation?
- For patients who survived cardiac arrest due to VFib or hemodyn unstable sustained VTach
- In patients with LVEF less than 35% due to prior MI who are at least 40 days post MI and are in NYHA class II or III
What is the most common cause of myocarditis?
Viral infections, specifically enteroviruses (Coxsackie virus A and B) and adenovirus which are both main causes of neonatal myocarditis, while Coxsackie B is most freq cause of adult myocard.
What are some non-viral causes of myocarditis?
Any bacterial agent can cause myocardial damage due to release of inflamm mediators via activation of TLR2 and TLR4 on mphages in heart.
occurs in 5% of lymes dz pts
AIDS patients
hypersensitivity reactions
Systemic immune dzs: RA, SLE
What are the causes of neonatal myocarditis? Mortality rate?
60-70% from mother
30-40% from hospital staff (nosocomial)
most commonly aquired from common cold (adenovirus).
Mortality is 50-75% in first week!
What is the clinical presentation of myocarditis?
broad symptoms- fatigue, dyspnea, palpitations, precordial discomfort, fever
What do you see on micro in myocarditis?
diffuse lymphocytic infiltrate most common
What is the pathophysiology of myocarditis?
Three phases:
Viral Phase- virus enters the host GI or resp system via the Coxsackie-adenoviral receptor (CAR), which is highly expressed in the heart, brain and gut. This is why it is so dangerous in neonates.

Immune Response- virus causes acute injury leading to cardiac damage and exposure of intracellular antigens

Cardiac remodeling- cardiac injury followed by immunologic response (inflamm) that may destroy heart tissue acutely or linger and produce remodeling leading to cardiomyopathies, HF, or death
What is the autoimmune component of myocarditis?
Virus activates innate immune syst. via TLRs stimulating release of interferons (IFN alpha and beta).
Macrophages and NK cells activated
Helper T cells, Effector T cells, B cells join the fight
T cells and ABs can react with viral proteins that mimic those of the host- this is termed molecular mimicry and it triggers autoimmunity

Autoimmune mechanisms caused by viral release of sequestered heart antigens. Antibodies cause lots of damage.
What the diagnostics and tx for myocarditis?
Adult M: heart biopsy. Tx = supportive care, bed rest, cardiac mon, anti-arrhythmic agents

Neon M: Dx =tachypnea, tachycardia, diaphoresis, anorexia. Tx = supportive care, fluids, digoxin, diuretics.
What is the gold standard of Dx of myocarditis?
Biopsy- look for presence of inlfamm cells with evid of myocyte degeneration or necrosis on same section of specimen!
What are signs, symptoms, and epidem. clues that support Dx of Chagas disease?
Headache, fever, weight loss, malaise, Romanas sign (eye swollen shut), conjunctivitis, travel in rural South America
Explain most common routes by which humans acquire Chagas dz
Triatomid insect = kissing bug which lives in mud, thatch, adobe homes in rural areas of south america

Transmission occur from feces of bug on face of person, parasites enter. Or transmission through blood as well
Why can you have symptoms of megacolon, constipation, dysphagia, megaesophagus in chronic Chagas dz? (10-30 years)
Parasite can affect GI tract by damaging enteric neurons that controls GI muscles, loss of normal peristalsis
What are the clinical, gross, micro features of Dilated Cardiomyopathy?
gradual four chamber hypertrophy and dilation.
May occur at any age as slow, progressive CHF.
Can be due to genetic defects, alcohol tox, peripartum cardiomyopathy, post-viral myocarditis

Gross- cardiomegaly, mural thrombi, endocardial thickening

Micro- nonspecific. 75% have diffuse myoctye hypertrophy and interstitial fibrosis, 25% have none
Clinical, gross, micro of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
clinical- usually young adults: dyspnea, angina, near syncope, CHF, but may be asymptomatic. Increased risk of sudden death in athletes.
>50% are autosomal dom


gross- disproportionate thickening of septum vs LV free wall. LV cavity is compressed by thickened intervent. septum
Clinical, micro of restrictive cardiomyopathy?
Clinical- restriction of ventricular filling and decreased cardiac output

Micro- Hemochromatosis with Prussian blue stain showing excessive iron deposition in heart
Can also see amyloid which can cause RCM. Can see amyloid on Congo Red stain
Clinical and micro of Myocarditis?
Clinical- broad spectrum, from asymptomatic to abrupt onset of arrhythmia, CHF or sudden death. Most thought to be viral origin

Micro- myocardial inflamm infiltrate with myocyte necrosis or degeneration. Lesions are focal. Viral infections show isolated myofiber necrosis with interstitial edema and mononuclear cell infiltrate, little necrosis.
What are some benign tumors?
Hemangiomas
Glomus tumors
Vascular ectasia (Nevus flammeus, sturge-weber syndrome, spider telangiectasias)
Bacillary Angiomatosis
Simple lymphangioma
Cystic hygroma (neck)
Kaposis sarcoma (4 types, clinical)
4 types based on epidemiology

1) Chronic/Classic/Euro- elderly men of eastern european decent. multiple red to purple plaques and nodules on lower exts

2) Lymphadenopathic/African- as above but in younger men, mainly in lymph nodes, aggressive

3) Transplant associated- pts on immunosuppressive therapy- goes away after therapy ends

4) AIDS related
What is the deal with the Glomus tumor?
Benign, extremely painful tumor of smooth muscle cells arising from the glomus body. Found in distal phalanges, especially beneath nail beds
What is the most common primary cardiac tumor in kids?
Rhabdomyoma
What is the most common primary adult tumor?
Myxomas. Usually single. 90% are in area of fossa ovale in atria.
L>R (4:1). cause symptoms by physical obstruction, peripheral emboli, or "wrecking ball" trauma to the valves
What are some pediatric differences when it comes to EKGs?
Right axis predominance in infants
RAD
inverted T waves in V1-V3
usually shorter intervals
usually faster rates
What is a good systematic approach for pediatric EKGs?
1) Rhythm
2) Rate
3) P waves- are they there? How are they related to the QRS?
4) Intervals (PR and QRS) all increase as kids age
How common are PVCs in kids? In adults?
5-10% of normal children
60% of adolescents and adult men
10% will have MVP
What must be ruled out with PVCs?
HCM
Long QT syndrome
Right Ventricular dysplasia
Any patient with PVCs and syncope or idiopathic seizures MUST have _____
EKG with QTc measurement
What is the PVC workup?
EKG
Echo
Exercise stress test
- benign PVC- suppressed by exercise
- exercised induced PVCs have poor prognosis
What are some false positive EKG findings in athletes?
LVH (skinny minny more likely to have false LVH)
nonspecific ST-T wave changes
Q wave changes
low resting heart rates
If you see a kid with Sinus Tach during sleep or at rest, think:
CHF
Fever
thyrotoxicosis
myocardial dz
shock
If a baby <4 mos of age has SVT, is it likely to remain long term?
NO. 93% cease having SVT by 8 months
If SVT in a kid >5 years old, is it likely to remain long term?
YES. 83% will have recurrence
What are some vagal maneuvers>
1) diving reflex (ice)- glove filled with ice over entire face for up to 20 sec. ALWAYS RECORD RHYTHM STRIP BEFORE, DURING, AFTER

2) Valsalva- gentle rectal stimulation, gag reflex

NO EYEBALL PRESSURE
What is a contraindication to rectal exam/stimulation?
Increased intracranial pressure- can vagal out and cause brain herniation!
What is adenosine? What does it do?
slows sinus heart rate
causes transient AV block
onset in 15-20 seconds
works great for stable SVT
When is synchronized electrical cardioversion used?
for unstable child/infant unresponsive to adenosine or ice
need pre and post 12 lead EKG
rhythm strip
What is the treatment for SVT in infants? Older children/adol?
Infants- IV adenosine, diving reflex if no IV access. IV digoxin

Older children- IV adenosine. IV verapamil (NEVER GIVE TO INFANTS)
How do you treat WPW?
Digoxin
Propanolol
Would you ever give CCB in WPW?
NO! Unless you want a lethal arrhythmia
What is the top cause of an infant's HR drop?
Apnea!
What is Beneficence?
obliges persons to benefit or help others
requires positive action (to prevent harmful or promote good)
What is Justice?
fair distribution of benefits and burdens
requires that persons recieve that which they deserve
appears in decisions to allocated scarce healthcare resources
What is Nonmaleficence?
refrain from harming others
What is Causitry?
a case-based approach to ethical decision making. Focuses on practical decision making in particular cases and compares to paradigm cases for comparison
weakness- does not provide clear rules or principles
What is Narrative based ethics?
emphasis on learning patients story
learn patients perspective of their illness and the meaning to the patient
What is the difference between sepsis, sepsis syndrome and septic shock?
Sepsis- systemic inflamm response syndrome due to infection

Sepsis syndrome- sepsis plus evidence of hypotension, or altered organ perfusion: hypoxemia, elevated lactate, oliguria, altered ment stat

Septic shock- sepsis syndrome with refractory hypotension
Identify some likely settings for development of sepsis
Nursing home, ICU, Neonatal ward
List major cardiovascular alterations in pts with septic shock
Initial vasodilation and capillary leakage result in decreased SVR, compensatory cardiac output. Not getting blood to vital organs

Marked hypotension

Coag abnormalities, generalized CV insuff from endothelial damage, hypoperfusion
List the most likely bacterial agents of sepsis in the following settings
a) nursing home
b) ICU
c) deep tissue wound
d) postpartum
e) UTI
nursing home- S. pneumoniae
ICU- Pseudomonas
deep tissue wound- bacteroides, clostridium
Postpartum- group B strep
UTI- E. Coli, Klebsiella, other gram negs
Briefly explain some unique aspects of septic shock cause by Pseudomonas aeruginosa, along with some important characteristics of the organism
Gram Neg bacilli
ubiquitous, opportunistic
oxidase positive
pigments and toxins- sputum can be tinged with color

Immunocompromised
neutropenic pts (Neutrophil is most important defense against Pseud)
higher mortality rate
notoriously resistant to antimicrobials
List at least 5 of the host factors thought to play a sig role in the development of sepsis syndrome and describe their activities
Complement activation
cytokines
NO
tissue factor
Briefly describe the coag abnormalities in sepsis
reduced protein C

increased coag and inflamm:
increase proinflamm mediators
endothelial injury
tissue factor expression
thrombin production
How do you treat suspected sepsis or sepsis syndrome?
Immediate empiric antimicrobial IV therapy
Obtain 2-3 blood cultures every 30 minutes
Good phlebotomy technique essential
surgical drainage of any infection
Explain the MOST IMPORTANT considerations and general patient management steps to increase likelihood of positive outcome for patient with severe sepsis.
Early detection, fluids, early antimicrobials, prevention
List the data that will help risk stratify patients with syncope
San Francisco syncope rule: If have one of more of the following, then high risk.

Risk factors-
Systolic pressure < 90
SOB
EKG non NSR
Hx of CHF
Hematocrit < 30%


Also, patients older than 60 with CV hx are high risk
Pts younger than 45 without CV hx or other risk factors are low risk
Syncope during exercise in younger pts w.o benign cause are at increased risk
List factors which determine when a patient should be hospitalized
Admit patients with syncope if they have any of the following:

Hx of CHF or ventricular arrhythmias
assoc chest pain or Acute coronary syndrome symptoms
evidence of CHF or valvular heart dz on Physical
EKG findings of ischemia, arrhythmia, prolonged QT, BBB

Consider admission if:
Age older than 60
history of CAD or congenital heart dz
fam hx of sudden death
exertional syncope in younger pts
List the age dependent causes of syncope
Pediatric patients- vasovagal, conversion rxns, primary arrhythmias (LQTS and WPW)

Middle age- Vasovagal most common. Orthostasis, panic disorders

Elderly- Obstructions to Cardiac output (aortic stenosis, P.E)
arrhythmias
Determine treatment of patients with syncope
s
What are three important parts of a syncope history?
1) What occured before the event
2) description of the event
3) orientation and LOC after the event (postictal state?)
What characteristics from the cardiac exam can help differentiate valvular lesions?
s
What are the symptoms of specific valvular pathology?
s
Know how to manage specific valvular pathologies and when to refer for intervention.
s
What does an S3 sound indicate?
Overloaded ventricle (CHF, 3rd trimester pregnancy)
What is the prognosis like for people with an S3 gallop?
Although normal variant in pregnancy and children, VERY POOR prognosis if present after age 40 or with decreased left heart fxn
What is an S4 usually indicative of?
Stiff ventricle
How do you grade a murmur?
I- less intense than S1, S2
II- same intensity
III- more intense but without palpable thrill
IV- grade III but with palpable thrill
V- can be heard through solid medium
VI- can be heard without stethoscope
What occurs to the intensity of most murmurs as you increase flow across the valve?
they increase in intensity
What are the two murmurs that decrease with increased preload?
MVP and HCM
What can you ask a pt to do to decrease preload?
Standing
valsalva
How can you increase preload?
Lying down
squatting
raising legs
Sustained 30 sec hand grip increases or does not change the murmur of ____ but should soften the murmur of ____
MVP
HCM

(Handgrip increase afterload which widens the outflow tract)
Right sided murmurs increase with ____
inspiration (except PS)
Left sided murmurs increase with ______
expiration
What position are S3 and S4 gallops heard best?
left lateral recumbent
Fixed split S2 is assoc w _____
ASD
If a wave is large on Right, what can be happening?
atrial pressure is high, so tricuspid stenosis or severe pulmonic regurg, stiff RV is possible
If a wave is large on Left, what can be happening?
blood backing up from lungs= mitral stenosis, severe aortic stenosis, complete heart block
Aortic Stenosis
Sx- CHF, angina, dyspnea, syncope with exercise
PE- pulsus tardus with sustained apical impulse, SEM at RUSB with radiation into carotids. S4 sec to LVH which can become S3. Ejection Click.
Dx with ECHO or left heart cath
Worse prognosis of all valve lesions
Surgery is best tx, refer as soon as pt becomes symptomatic
Use Extreme Caution with diuretics and vasodilators (ventricle needs excess volume to overcome pressure of stenotic valve)
Chronic Aortic Regurg
Sx- CHF, angina, dyspnea, sense of pounding heart beat
PE- pulsus bisiferens, high pitched diastolic mumur at LLSB (best heard sitting up and leaning forward)
Dx- ECHO
Indications to replace valve:
1) SYMPTOMS AT REST
2) LVES dimension > 5.5 cm2
3) EF decreased during exercise MUGA scan by >10%
Acute Aortic Regurg
due to acute event like endocard, truama, MI
Sx- acute severe pulm edema with cardiogenic shock
PE- short diastolic murmur at LLSB
Dx- ECHO
Rx- emergency valve replacement
Mitral Stenosis
almost always sec to rheumatic heart dz
increased risk of thromboembolic events and endocard
Sx- dyspnea, HEMOPTYSIS, frequently causes of AFIB
PE- diastolic murmur with opening snap, rumble. EKG with LAH
*Pregnant females may present with acute pulmonary edema and AFIB
Dx- ECHO

MV under lower pressure so vegetations bigger than in aortic stenosis

Tx- digoxin if LV fxn is reduced or AFIB. Diuretics if signs of LHF and pulm HTN
BBs if resting tach
Consider lifelong anticoag if chamber > 5.5cm, prior embolic event, or AFIB
Valvuloplasty
Chronic Mitral Regurg
caused by rheumatic heart dz, MVP, LV dilation, PAPILLARY MUSCLE RUPTURE

Sx- SOB, angina, AFIB frequent
PE- pansystolic murmur with radiation to axilla, wide split S2, EKG with LAH, CXR shows cardiomegaly
Dx- ECHO
Rx- diuretics, ACE-I, beta blockers
Valve replacem. if EF decreases during exercise MUGA scan by >10% or symptoms at rest

Valve reconstruction is preffered to replacem unless:
valve too damaged
caused by rheumatic dz
Mitral Valve Prolapse
very common (10-20% of teens)
PE- midsystolic click with murmur unaffected by sustained hand grip
Dx- ECHO
Tx- same as chronic MR. If murmur, use antibiotic prophylaxis
Are right sided valvular lesions common? Are they replaced?
No! Rare

No! Low pressure so diseased valves are rarely removed and NEVER replaced
What are common causes of tricuspid stenosis?
Rare!
rheumatic heart dz
staph endocarditis (IV drugs)
carcinoid syndrome
Sx- systemic venous congestion (dysp or pulm edema = LHF Sx). Abd p sec to hepatic congestion. Fluttering in neck sec to increased JV pressure
PE- diastolic murmur LSB, giant a wave, EKG with RAH without RVH
Dx- ECHO or RHC
Tx- symptomatic support with diuretics. Valvotomy if symptomatic and valve area > 1cm2
What kind of murmur is heart in tricuspid stenosis?
diastolic murmur LSB, giant a wave, EKG with RAH without RVH
Tricuspid Regurg
usually sec to LHF with increased PAH
Also caused by RHEUMATIC HEART DZ, STAPH ENDOCARD, or CARCINOID

Sx- generally none, but can have fatigue, systemic venous congestion, neck discomfort
PE- holosystolic murmur LLSB with parasternal heave, JVD, v waves
Dx- ECHO
Tx- treat underlying dz (RF, endocard)
VALVE NEVER REPLACED
What are 7 causes of large R wave in V1?
RVH
RBBB- rsR
posterior wall MI
misplaced leads
muscular dystrophy
dextrocardia- CXR
WPW
Pulmonic Stenosis
always congenital, rarely progresses
Sx- systemic congestion
PE- RVH, RAH, a waves
Dx- ECHO or RHC
Rx- diuretics to reduce congestion
valvuloplasty if symptoms severe

Almost always a secondary condition resulting from PAH
When do you replace valves?
Left heart valves- consider when pt FIRST BECOMES SYMPTOMATIC

Right heart valves- NEVER REPLACED, consider valvuloplasty if severe
Porcine valves
less durable, but do not require anticoag
When do you NOT give antibiotic prophylaxis?
isolated secundum atrial septal defects
surgically repaired ASD, VSD or PDA

innocent heart murmurs
ASD
What are the four classifications of pericardial dz?
1) nonconstrictive pericarditis
2) constrictive pericarditis
3) relapsing pericarditis
4) pericardial effusions
What is the diff between pericarditis and acute coronary syndrome?
s
Nonconstrictive pericarditis
90% idiopathic probably viral
often preceded by viral URI or gastroenteritis
Most common pericardial disorder

Sx- severe pleuritic chest p (IMPROVES WITH LEANING FORWARD). FEVER. FRICTION RUB

EKG- DIFFUSE CONCAVE UP ST ELEVATIONS, DEPRESSED PR SEGs

Labs- elevation in CK

Tx- stop causative drugs. NSAIDS
Constrictive pericarditis
scarring and loss of elasticity of pericardial sac
usually idiopathic
CXR- CALCIFICATION WITHIN PERICARDIAL SAC

Dx- CT/MRI finds PERICARDIAL THICKNESS >5MM
Relapsing pericarditis
RARE condition of recurring inflammation of pericardium with severe Chest pain.
autoimmne
Pericardial effusion
accumulation of blood or fluid in sac that can lead to tamponade (compression of the ventricular chambers reducing cardiac output)

Sx- PROGRESSIVE DYSPNEA
BECKS TRIAD

Dx- usually ECHO for dx however CT/MRI are most accurate
EKG- may show LOW VOLTAGE or ELECTRICAL ALTERNANS (beat-to-beat alternation of QRS appearance)

- pericardial fluid rarely helps with diagnosis unless etiology is malig.

Chronic Per Eff-- can warrant surgical drainage or pericardiocentesis
What is Becks Triad?
hypotension, muffled heart sounds, JVD.

Friction rub may be present.
Pulsus paradoxus
What should you remember to r/o in PEA pts before stopping code?
Pericardial effusion!
What is pulsus paradoxus?
an exaggerated decline in systemic blood pressure with inspiration, which indicates tamponade. Pressure from the effusion presses on the IV septum, reducing LV filling, decreasing SV and decreasing BP
Dilated Cardiomyopathy
Ejection fraction less than 40%
Common causes- Viral, etoh, lymes dz, peripartum, chemotherapy agents, Chagas dx (LEADING CAUSE OF DCM in Central and South Am)

High incidence of MURAL AND PERIPHERAL THROMBUS, esp if EF <20%

Tx- treat underlying dz. Like HF (diuretics, ACE, fluid restriction, low salt, BBs)

If EF <40% and patient has had syncope, VT or sig orthostatic Sxs, consider an AICD
What does Chagas dz show on ECG?
nonspecific changes (RBBB and Left ant hemiblock, PVCs)
Peripartum Cardiomyopathy
can occur within last trimester up to 6 mos postpartum
mortality 20-50%
prognosis depends if heart returns to normal size
strongly advise to AVOID FUTURE PREG
Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy
IHHS (Idiopath Hypertroph Subaortic Stenosis)

disproport. hypertrophy of LV, septum

Assoc w SUDDEN CARDIAC DEATH, especially in kids with FAMILIAL HX

Genetic dz but Majority of pts are ASYMPTOMATIC

If syncope, three factors assoc w high risk of sudd death:
1) age < 30
2) small LVEDL per ECHO
3) nonsustained VT per Holter monitor

PE- often normal. may have S4 gallop. Murmur INTENSIFIED BY VALSAVA (decreasing preload)

EKG- LAH, LVH, LAD, lateral Q waves. NORMAL EKG UNCOMMON

Dx- ECHO
What is the only way to cure HCM?
heart transplant. No drug improves survival.
What should you use with extreme caution in HCM?
anything reduces LV volume (diuretics, nitrates, volume depletion)
Restrictive Cardiomyopathy
rare and a dx of exclusion
HISTORY IS IMPORTANT
poor prognosis
Dx- need endocardial biopsy. Ct to r/o Const Pericard
Tx- no specific tx
How do you differentiate RCM from constrictive pericarditis?
EKG with normal voltage
Nondisplaced apical impulse (absent in CP)
no evidence of pericardial calcifications
4 common causes of artifact
1) patient movement
2) loose or defective electrodes
3) improper grounding
4) faulty EKG machine

Artifact can mimic VFIB
What do PVCs look like?
wide, bizarre QRS
followed by compensatory pause
usually no p wave
What does junctional escape rhythm look like?
p waves inverted, absent or after QRS
rate 40-60, unless accelerated (60-100)
What does SVT look like?
cant see p waves
narrow QRS
reg rhythm
What does aFib look like?
irreg irreg
no p waves, fib waves instead
Which are not shockable rhythms?

Shockable?
asystole, PEA

Vfib and pulseless Vtach
What does Second Degree Block Type I (Wenkebach) look like?
progressive lengthening, then dropped beat
2nd degree Type II look like?
constant PR interval, just dropped beats
3rd degree block?
P and QRS are divorced!

Tx: pacemaker
Describe proper techniques for obtaining BP in children
avoid stimulant food or drugs
sitting quietly for 5 minutes
right arm supported with cubital fossa at heart level
preferred method = auscultation
40% circumference at midpoint of upper arm
Dont use machines!
need 3 measurements on separate visits
integrate historical data and risk stratify pediatric pts for CAD risk
s
describe proper tx for different classifications of HTN
s
What are the classifications for HTN in kids?
Normotensive- SBP and DBP < 90th %
PreHTN- 90-95%
Stage 1 HTN- 95%-99%
Stage 2 HTN- >99%
What are the BP standards based on?
Gender, Age, Height
If kids BP is <90th% but is still about 120/80, this is considered ____
preHTN.

THIS BP LEVEL OCCURS FOR SBP AT 12 YRS OLD AND FOR DBP AT 16
Plan for prehtnsive?
recheck in 6 mos
TLCs- weight management
no drugs
Plan for Stage 1 HTN?
recheck in 1-2 weeks if pt is symptomatic
TLCs
Drugs based on indications:
1) symptomatic HTN
2) secondary HTN
3) HTNsive target organ damage
4) DM
5) persistent HTN despite nondrug plan
Stage II HTN
Evaluate or refer to source of care within 1 wk or immediately if symptomatic

TLCs

Drugs- initiate therapy
Why should you ask about sleep history with HTN?
association with sleep apnea with overweight and HTN
Overweight and high BP are components of ________, a condition of multiple metabolic risk factors for CVD as well as for type II DM
METABOLIC SYNDROME
What does BEARS stand for?
Bedtime problems
Excessive daytime sleepiness
Awakenings during the night
Regularity and duration of sleep
Sleep disordered breathing
T or F: Secondary HTN is more common in children than in adults
True
What labs do you get in kids with secondary HTN?
Renal function (BUN, UA)
CMP (looking for anemia)
Fasting plasma glucose and lipids should be performed in prehtnsive children who are ___, ____, ___
Obese
have fam hx of HTN or CVD
have chronic renal dz
What is the most prominent clinical evidence of target organ damage caused by HTN in children/adol?
LVH on ECHO
What is the goal of pharm therapy in HTNsive kids?
to get them down to <95% unless concurrent conditions present, then <90%
What is the most common cause of acquired heart dz in children?
Kawasaki's dz
What is Kawasaki's disease?
acute self limiting vasculitis of unknown etiology
76% in children under 5
boys > girls
asians and blacks > whites
What are the clinical manifestations of Kawasaki's?
CRASH and BURN

Conjunctivitis
Rash
Adenopathy
Strawberry tongue
Hand and feet edema

and BURN! FEVER FOR > 5 DAYS


can have coronary artery aneurysms and ectasia in 15-25% of untreated cases. May lead to MI, sudden death, ischemic heart dz
What labs are abnormal in Kawasakis?
EKG findings?
elevated acute phase reactants
elevated ESR
elevated platelets
elevated WBC
elevated LFTs

flattened T waves
What is the treatment for Kawasakis?
IVIG
ASA high dose until afebrile, then low dose ASA 6-8 wks until ESR and platelets are normal
Kawasakis board buzzwords
Febrile child, not responding to Antibiotics
Fever of AT LEAST 5 days

NO CARDIOMEGALY
What is the only reason ever to treat a child with aspirin?
KAWASAKIS
What is Kawasakis commonly confused for?
-drug reactions (no fever)
-JRA (chronic low grade temp, rash when fever peaks)
-measles (rash diff, measles has exudative conjunctivitis)
What is the second most common acquired heart disease in childhood?
Rheumatic fever/Heart Dz
What is the latency period for RF?
3 weeks
What causes Rheumatic Fever?
untreated Group A Beta hemolytic strep of the pharynx
What are the Jones criteria? How many do you need?
Need either 2 Maj +1 minor OR 1 Maj + 2 minor

Major- arthritis (large joints, migratory)
carditis
chorea
erythema marginatum (serpinginous border rash on trunk/limbs)
subq nodules

Minor- arthralgia, fever of 38C, elevated ESR or C reactive protein, prolonged PR interval
Diagnosis of RF?
need evidenc of an antecedent strep infection

history of recent scarlet fever
positive throat culture
elevated ASO
streptozyme test
What is the most common valve involved with carditis s/p RF?
Mitral valve- insufficiency, CHF, stenosis years later.

Aortic insuff less common but more severe
RF treatment?
supportive care, bed rest, treat strep, Aspirin
When should you consider meds for a kid with an LDL over 190?
If they have fam hx of early heart dz or two additional risk factors present; or if LDL is higher than 130 if DM present
When is informed consent required?
Most times for:
Surgery
anesthesia
other invasive or complex medical or radiological procedures
What should the physician discuss during informed consent discussions?
the Dx if known
nature and purpose of proposed tx
risk and benefits
alternatives regardless of cost or insurance coverage
risks and benefits of alternatives
risk and benefits of not receiving tx
What are the main barriers to effective informed consent?
lack of clinician time
confusion about when IC is needed
afraid of giving too much info
perception of pts that IC is just legal release
Pt unaware they can refuse
Pt language/culture
poor quality of form
Pt inability to understand info
clinician inability to detect lack of pt understanding
What is it called when surgery is performed without pts consent or it exceeds scope of consent?
BATTERY
What is it called if pt suffers consequence from procedure that was not discussed with the pt?
NEGLIGENCE
What percentage of patients who receive CPR in the hospital die?
86% of patients who are rescusitated by CPR dont live to be discharged
What is a POST form? Who is it for?
a physician order that can be completed by any provider but must be signed by a MD or DO.

COMPLEMENTS, does NOT REPLACE advanced directives

It is for seriously ill or terminally ill patients
What question do you ask yourself to see if a pt needs a POST form?
Would I be surprised if the patient died in the next year?

IF NO, DO A POST!
What is the rationale behind the POST form?
AD might not be available when needed.
AD might not have prompted need discussion, may not be specific enough
AD may be overridden by a treating Dr
AD does not immediately translate into a Drs order
Legality of POST form
Must accompany patient!
protects from liability if follow form
POST orders are ORDERS
legally recognized form of DNR
If you would not be surprised patient died in 6 months, consider _______
HOSPICE