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192 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What is the most common cause of red eye?
viral conjunctivitis
What causes viral conjunctivitis? What are the S/S? (9)
adenovirus following URI-very contagious

red eye
+/- FB sensation
mild itch
normal pupillary response
thin/watery discharge
global injection pattern
preauricular adenopathy
sudden onset
rapid progression
How is viral conjunctivitis treated?
Naphazoline/pheniramine (Visine A or Naphcon A)
What is the causative agent of bacterial conjunctivitis? (4) What are the S/S? (7)
Strep, Staph, Haemoph, Pseudomonas (contacts)

red eye
+/- FB
itch
copious/purulent discharge
lashes matt
preauricular adenopathy
acute onset
How is bacterial conjunctivitis treated?
no contacts = topical polymyxin B-trimethoprim

contacts = Cipro + Erythromycin
What are the S/S of allergic conjunctivitis? (6)
red eye
VERY ITCHY
clear/watery discharge
cobblestone appearance
nasal conjestion
no preauricular adenopathy
How is allergic conjunctivitis treated? (4)
cool compresses
Olopatadine (Patanol)
artificial tears
diphendydrame
What are the S/S of acute angle closure glaucoma? (14)
sudden onset
red eye
eye pain
unilateral vison loss
IOP>40 (tono-pen)
steamy cornea
mid dilated pupils
fixed pupils
irregular pupils
non-reactive pupils
N/V
sparked by ambient lighting
*halos around lights
no hypopion
How is acute angle closure glaucoma treated?
Timolol gtts
Apraclonidine gtts
Pilocarpine gtts
Acetazolamide IV
Mannitol IV
What are the S/S of central retinal vein occlusion? (4) Tx?
painless
unilateral vison loss
cotton wool spots
many scattered retinal hemorrhages

refer to ophthamologist
What are the S/S of central retinal artery occlusion? What is generally the cause? (5)
painless
unilateral vision loss
disc pallor
cherry fovea
"boxcar" veins

usually from embolus
What is the treatment of central retinal artery occlusion? (3)
acetazolamide IV
anterior chamber paracentesis
inhaled carbogen
What are 2 causative agents of orbital cellulitis? What are the S/S? (5)
Staph aureus (G+)
Strep pneumo (G+)

red eye
eye pain w/ eye movement
vison loss
proptosis
fever
What may used in the diagnosis of orbital cellulitis? How is orbital cellulitis treated?
CT scan?

Cefuroxime (G2) IV, opth consult

Augementin (periorbital)
Of the following, which ones are emergent?
conjunctivitis, acute angle closure
glaucoma, central retinal vein occlusion, central retinal artery occlusion, orbital cellulitis
acute angle closure glaucoma
orbital cellulitis
central retinal artery occlusion
What 2 eye conditions should NOT be patched?
chemical burn
corneal ulcer (bacterial keratitis)
What are the 6 W'S that are going through your mind with post-op fever?
WIND (pneumonia, aspiration, PE)
WATER (UTI)
WALKING (DVT, PE)
WOUND (surgical site infxn)
WONDER drugs
WHAT did we do (IV line infxn)
On what post-op days does WIND fever generally occur?
1-2
On what post-op days does WATER fever generally occur?
3-5
On what post-op days does WALKING fever generally occur?
4-6
On what post-op days does WOUND fever generally occur?
5-7
On what post-op days does "WONDER drugs/WHAT did we do" fever generally occur?
7+
What are post-op infectious causes of fever (<20% of pts w/in first 24hrs)? (8)
contamination
bacterial
pneumonia
UTI
abscess
hepatitis
osteomyelitis
peritonitis
What are post-op non-infectious causes of fever? (8)
*atelectasis
malignancy
transfusion
drug fever
thrombophlebitis
PE
gout
metabolic (thyrotoxicosis, Addisonian crisis)
What are the local signs of infection found on PE post-op? (4)
dolor/pain
calor/heat
rubor/red
tumor/mass
What are 5 potential wound complications?
hematoma
seroma
infection
dehiscence
evisceration
What is the Salter-Harris classification of pediatric fractures?
1- physis
2- physis, metaphysis
3-physis, epiphysis
4- physis, metaphysis, epiphysis
5- crush injury
What are the 3 types of deformity for ortho?
RAD (distal ligament compared to proximal)

rotation (overlapping)
angulation (bent)
displacement
How do forearm fractures generally occur? How are they treated?
FOOSH

double sugar tong splint
What are 6 types of forearm fractures?
Colles
Smith
Hutchinson/Chauffeur's
Monteggia
Galeazzi
Briefly describe a Colles fracture.
transverse
distal radius
dorsal angulation
away from ulna
"dinner fork deformity"
wrist extended when fall
also ulnar styloid process fx?
Briefly describe a Smith fracture.
transverse fracture
distal radius
volar displacement
Briefly describe a Barton fracture.
oblique
intra-articular
distal radius
dorsal displacement
dosal carpus subluxation
Briefly describe a Hutchinson (chauffeur's) fracture.
intra-articular
radial styloid
Briefly describe a Monteggia fracture.
ulna fracture w/ radial head disclocation
Briefly describe a Galeazzi fracture.
distal 1/3 of radius
dislocation of distal radioulnar joint
What are 7 tests included in the ligament exam of the knee?
valgus/MCL
varus/LCL
Lachman
anterior drawer
posterior drawer
apprehension
sag sign
What are 4 tests included in the meniscal exam?
joint line point tenderness
McMurray
Apley
Bounce Home
What is the MC ligament injured in the ankle? Second?
anterior talofibular
calcaneofibular
What is the best manipulation test for anterior talofibular ligament?
anterior drawer test
What does a grade 1 ankle inversion injury involve?
atfl partial tear
stable pe
What does a grade 2 ankle inversion injury involve?
complete tear of atfl
partial tear of lcfl
positive anterior draw test
negative talar tilt test
What does a grade 3 ankle inversion injury involve?
complete tear of atfl/lcfl
positive anterior draw test
positive talar tilt test
What x-ray imaging is done for an acute ankle?
ankle-AP/lateral/Mortise
foot-AP/lateral/oblique
leg-AP/lateral
What is a Mortise x-ray of the ankle?
AP w/ foot internally rotated 10-15 degrees; space should be 2-3mm all the way around and symmetrical
What action are the peroneal tendons responsible for?
dorsiflexion
eversion
What are the possible results of an inversion injury?
torn atfl
fibula fracture
Jones fracture (5th metatarsal avulsion)
What does bacterial pharyngitis often resemble?
mono
What are the S/S of bacterial pharyngitis (Centor Criteria)?
tonsilar exudates
"beefy red" uvula
tender ant. cervial adenopathy
fever
absence of cough
age <15
age >45y (subtract a pt)
What diagnostic test can be done for bacterial pharyngitis?
rapid antigen test
How is bacterial pharyngitis treated?
PCN VK 500mg PO TID x 10days (or Clindamycin)
Why is bacterial pharyngitis treated?
prevent rheumatic fever
Is viral pharyngitis more common in adults or children?
adults
What are the MCC of viral pharyngitis (3)?
adenovirus (may get associated conjunctivitis)
rhinovirus
infectious mono
What does the patient's throat with viral pharyngitis look like?
erythematous
How is viral pharyngitis treated?
rest, oral fluids, salt-water gargling
analgesics/antipyretics
What is the DOC for viral pharyngitis?
acetominophen
What is the MC causative agent of bacterial pharyngitis?
GABHS
What is the causative agent of infectious mononucleosis?
Epstein-Barr virus
What are the S/S of mono? (5)
exudative pharyngitis
fever
posterior cervical adenopathy
malaise
enlarged spleen
How is a pt tested for mono?
monospot which detects IgM antibodies to the viral capsid antigen (heterophile antibody) that produces agglutination of horse RBC
What type of rash may show up with mono if pt took antibiotics for S/S?
morbilliform rash (measle-like; maculopapular)
What is included in Virchow's triad for a pulmonary embolism?
endothelial injury
venous stasis
hypercoagulability
What are 9 conditions that can cause hypercoagulability which can lead to a pulmonary embolism?
vitamin K
DIC
polycythemia vera
birth control
pregnancy
cancer
protein S/C deficiency
thrombin 3 deficiency
previous DVT/PE
What are 2 locations of clinically significant clots?
iliofemoral & pelvic venous beds
What is found on history taking for a pulmonary embolism? (4)
#1 dyspnea
#2 pleuritic chest pain (doesn't have to be pleuritic though)
tachycardia
cough
Is pleuritic chest pain generally with inspiration or expiration?
inspiration
What may be found on PE with a pulmonary embolism? (10)
tachypnea
tachycardia
hypoxemia/hypocapnia
rales/wheezing
pleural friction rub
low-grade fever
diaphoresis
DVT/phlebitis signs
hypotension (late sign)
severe hypoxia (late sign)
Homan's sign (pain w/ dorsiflexion)
What ancillary studies are done for a suspected pulmonary embolism?
ABG (res alkalosis, hypoxemia)
D-Dimer ELISA (not assay)
ECG
For a pulmonary embolism, what does it mean if D-Dimer ELISA is negative? Positive?
negative = no PE

positive = indeterminate
What may be seen on an ECG of a pulmonary embolism?
*nonspecific ST-T wave changes
-S1Q3T3 (right heart strain) -->large S in lead I, Q inverted T in lead III
What may be seen on a CXR of a pulmonary embolism?
"Wastermark sign" (specific but rare)
What is the gold standard for a pulmonary embolism?
pulmonary angiogram
What types of diagnostic studies can be done for a pulmonary embolism?
CXR
V/Q scan
venous doppler U/S
CT chest angiogram
pulmonary angiogram
With V/Q scan for a pulmonary embolism, what confirms the diagnosis with a high probability?
larger perfusion defect in area with normal ventilation
With a V/Q scan, what should be done if there is low or indeterminate probability (high or low clinical suspicion) of a pulmonary embolism?
LE venous doppler U/S or CT angio (to look for a DVT in extremities)
What should be done for a negative venous doppler U/S in low risk patients? Moderate to high risk patients?
repeat in 5-7 days

CT or angio
What is the study of choice to rule out pulmonary embolism in patient with underlying cardiopulmonary dz or abnormal CXR (superior to V/Q scan) and its purpose is to identify the location and size of clot?
CT chest angiogram
How is a pulmonary embolism treated?
ABC's
O2
IV crystalloid & vasopressors
unfractionated heparin (PTT)
low molecular weight heparin (Lovenox)
coumadin (PT/INR)
thrombolytics
What may be included in the S/S of a pneumonia pt? (10)
productive cough
pleuritic chest pain
night sweats/rigors
fever
dyspnea
rales, rhonchi
wheezes
dullness to percussion
breath sounds
infiltrate may be present on CXR
What type of organisms of pneumonia have a rapid onset?
pnemococcal organisms
What type of organisms of pneumonia have an insidious onset?
atypical organisms (ex. Mycoplasma)
What type of pneumonia generally occurs in college students?
Mycoplasma
What type of pneumonia is the most common in children? (2)
adenovirus
RSV
What is the MCC of community-acquired pneumonia?
Strep
What is the MCC of viral pneumonia?
influenza
What type of pneumonia is mainly seen in aspiration pneumonia?
Klebsiella
What 3 groups of people generally get aspiration (Klebsiella) pneumonia?
alcoholics
elderly
COPD
What is seen on CXR of Klebsiella pneumonia? (2)
lobar infiltrates
pulmonary abscess
Is pseudomonas pneumonia generally community or hospital acquired?
hospital acquired
What is seen on CXR of Pseudomonas pneumonia?
bilateral lower lobe infiltrates
What does BNP lab help differentiate pneumonia from?
CHF
How is outpatient pneumonia treated?
antipyretics
cough suppressants
*Doxycycline
Fluroquinolone (Gatifloxacin or Levofloxacin)
Macrolide (Erythromycin, Azithromycin)

Tx 7-10 days, 5 days on Azithromycin
How is inpatient pneumonia treated?
initiated w/in 4h of presentation
oxygen
IV fluid
blood/sputum culture
fluoroquinolone
macrolide + B-lactamase inhibitor (Imepenim)
What are the most common causes of viral pediatric pneumonia?
parainfluenza (Fall)
RSV (Winter)
influenza (Spring)
What type of pneumonia is common to occur in newborn <1mo old? (2)
Group B Streptococci
G- bacilli
What type of pneumonia is common to occur in 1-3mo old? (2)
Chlamydia trachomatis
Strep pneumoniae
What type of pneumonia is common to occur in 3mo-5yr old?
Strep pneumoniae
What type of pneumonia is common to occur in 5-18yo?
Mycoplasma (atypical)
Strep pneumoniae
What may be included in the S/S of a pediatric pneumonia pt? (16)
fever
lethargy
cough
HA
vomitting
rhinorrhea
*dec feeding
"baby not acting right"
tachypnea
tachycardia
rales
wheezing
dec. breath sounds
grunting
accessory muscle use
nasal flaring
What may a CXR for viral pediatric pneumonia show?
diffuse
interstitial
hyperinflation
atelectasis
What may a CXR for bacterial pediatric pneumonia show?
lobar
segmental
perihilar infiltrate
patch infiltrate
What is included in the Tx plan for pediatric pneumonia?
humidified blow-by O2
IV hydration
antimicrobial
How is a newborn pt for pneumonia treated?
admit
Ampicillin IV
OR
Nafcillin + Gentamycin IV
How is a 1-3mo old pt for pneumonia treated?
outpatient
afebrile
-Erythromycin OR Amoxicillin
How is a 3mo-5yr old pt for pneumonia treated?
outpatient
Amoxicillin
OR
Azithromax (macrolide)
How is a 5-18yo pt for pneumonia treated?
outpatient
Azithromax x5d
What are 5 S/S that are included in the history/PE of an asthma patient?
dyspnea
cough
wheezing (expiratory)
tachypnea
tachycardia
What is the name of the sign that is a big warning in severe exacerbations of asthma?
silent chest
What diagnostic tests may be done for an asthma/COPD patient? (11)
spirometry
peak expiratory flow rate
ABG
pulse oximetry
CXR (pneumonia)
EKG
CBC w/ diff
electrolytes
serum theophylline
blood culture (COPD)
sputum culture (COPD)
BNP (COPD vs CHF)
How are mild to moderate asthma/COPD exacerbations treated? (5)
O2 w/ nasal cannula (want PaO2>60 & sat>90%)

B-adrenergic agonists (Albuterol w/ MDI or nebulizer)

corticosteroid

Ipatropium bromide (Atrovent)

antibiotic (pneumonia)
How is moderate to severe asthma/COPD exacerbatoins treated? (6)
O2 by nasal cannula
albuterol
corticosteroid
Ipatropium
antibiotic (infection)
positive airway pressure
How are severe to life-threatening asthma/COPD exacerbations treated? (5)
intubation/mechanical ventilation
albuterol
Ipatropium bromide (Atrovent)
IV Methylprednisolone
admit to ICU
What is an ominous sign of pediatric asthma?
child tachypneic w/ normal PaCO2 (would expect a fall in PaCO2 due to hyperventilation)
What are 4 risks of UTI?
young children
immunocompromised
elderly men (BPH)
recently sexually active
What are key S/S of UTI (pertinent positives)? (3)
dysuria
urinary frequency
suprapubic discomfort
What labs point towards a UTI?
pos leukocyte esterase
RBC (ex. 2/hpf)
WBC (ex. 3/hpf)
What is the most common pathogen of UTI?
E. coli (80%)
proteus
Klebsiella
enterobacter
pseudomonas
What is the general Tx plan for UTI?
Ciprofloxacin x 3days
What would you prescribe a pt w/ UTI if cannot afford a flouroquinolone? (3)
Bactrim
Amoxicillin
Cephalexin
Your patient w/ UTI has already been treated with Bactrim and returns complaining of similar symptoms. What do you treat with?
Flouroquinolone x 7-10days
Your UTI patient has a positive bHCG, what do you treat her with?
Amoxicillin-Clavulanate (Augmentin)
Nitrofurantoin
What can you use to treat UTI patients complaints of dysuria? What do you need to inform them of with this medication?
Pyridium x 2-3days
urine may turn orange
What are the first 2 conditions you need to think about with elderly and altered mental status?
UTI
pneumonia
What are key S/S of pyelonephritis (pertinent positives)? (6)
fever
dysuria
urinary frequency
suprapubic discomfort
chills?
positive CVA tenderness
What are the key labs for pyelonephritis? (5)
pos nitrites
pos leukocyte esterase
RBC (ex 2/hpf)
WBC (ex 3/hpf)
WBC casts
How is sepsis r/o for pyelonephritis?
CBC (look @ WBC & bandemia)
Does FQ PO or IV have better bioavailability?
same :)
How is an uncomplicated pyelonephritis pt treated?
Cipro or Levaquin PO x 10days
What are the Tx options for complicated pyelonephritis pts? (3)
IV FQ
ampicillin + gentamicin IV
IV Rocephin
What do the diagnostic tests show for prerenal ARF?
BUN/Cr > 20:1
FENa < 1%
sp gravity > 1.020
hyaline casts in urine
What do the diagnostic tests show for intrarenal ARF?
BUN/Cr 10:1-20:1
FENa > 1
sp gravity 1.010-1.020
US may help
What do the diagnostic tests show for postrenal ARF?
US shows hydronephrosis
serum/urine tests have similar results to intrarenal cause
What type of diagnostic test is used for testicular torsion pts?
DOPPLER US (duplex)
What are pertinent positive S/S of testicular torsion?
scrotal pain
acute
gets worse w/ time
does not change w/ position
N/V?
elevated, enlarged, tender testicle
horizontal "sideline" testicle
generally male <20yo
How is testicular torsion treated?
urology consult
manual detorsion
ice packs (grrrr???)
What is phren's sign?
when you elevate testicle/scrotum pt's pain decreases
What helps to differentiate epididymitis from testicular torsion? (4)
epididymitis is more gradual, no associated vomiting, worsens with standing, positive phren's sign
What is the common causative organism of epididymitis in pts <40yo? >40yo?
<40yo Gonorrhea/Chlamydia

>40 UTI organisms (E. coli, proteus, Klebsiella)
What is it called if epididymitis coinfects the testes? What is the "uncommon" causative organism?
epididymitoorchitis
mumps
What are key pertinent positive S/S of Fournier's gangrene?
diabetic
itching
discomfort of inner thighs/scrotum/labia
edema of scrotum/labia
global erythema
US reveals gas in affected area
eventually smelly
travels along fascia
What are the S/S of acute cholecystitis?
RUQ pain/tenderness
fever
elevated WBC's
inflammatory changes on US
What are 2 inflammatory changes that may show up on US of acute cholecystitis?
gallbladder wall thickening
pericholecystic fluid
What is the Tx plan for cholecystitis?
may include admission
fluid/electrolytes
Cefotetan (2nd generation)
cholecystetomy (may have to do open procedure)
How may ports are done for laparoscopic cholecystectomy? What is "clipped"? What type of imaging may be done intraoperatively?
4

cystic artery & cystic duct

cholangiogram
What are the leads that an anteroseptal MI will show?
V1-V4
What are the leads that an anterior MI will show? What are 2 conditions/rhythms that may precede this type of MI?
V3-V4

Mobitz
complete heart block
What are the leads that an anterolateral MI will show?
V4-V6, I, aVL
What are the leads that a lateral MI will show?
V5-V6, I, aVL
What are the leads that an inferior MI will show? What are 3 condtions/rhythms that may precede this type of MI?
II, III, aVF

bradycardia
1st degree heart block
Wenckebach
What are the leads that an inferiorlateral MI will show?
II, III, aVF, V5-V6
What are the leads that a posterior MI will show?
V1 (mirror)
What are the leads that a right ventricular MI will show?
II, III, aVF, V4R

a lot of times along with inferior MI
What are the leads that a septal MI will show?
V1-V2
In general, what needs to be evaluated on EKG for MI? (4)
-ST segment elevation > 1 mm in 2 contiguous leads
-Q wave presence in 2 contiguous leads
-new LBBB
-ST segment depression or T wave inversion in 2 contiguous leads
What are 8 contraindications for STEMI fibrinolytic therapy?
-SBP > 180, DBP>110
-Hx of structural CNS disease
-Closed head or facial trauma w/in past 3 mos
-Recent (w/in 6 wks) surgery, trauma, GI bleed, laser eye surgery
-Clotting disorders
-CPR > 10 minutes
-Pregnant female
-Serious systemic disease (terminal CA, severe kidney or liver disease
What are the treatment options for acute coronary syndrome?
-ASA >160mg
-Clopidogrel (Plavix) (hold if going for emergent CABG)
-nitrates 0.4mg q 5min x 3 or until pain relief or SBP <100
-morphine
-beta-blocker (Lopressor)
-unfractionated heparin (PTT)
-Lovenox
-Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitors (Aggrenox) (do no use w/ Clopidogrel or fibrinolytics)
-tPA (w/ heparin)
-retevase (w/ heparin)
-TNKase
-PCI (w/in 90mins)
-CABG
How is unfractionated heparin and partially Lovenox reversed?
protamine sulfate
What are the Tx options for STEMI?
MONA
beta blocker
Clopidogrel
Heparin
PCI (w/in 90 mins; <12h from onset)
fibrinolytics (w/in 30 mins; <12h from onset)
ACEI/ARB
HMG CoA reductase inhibitor
What are the Tx options for unstable angina/non-STEMI?
MONA
beta blocker
Clopidogrel
heparin
Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitor
ACEI/ARB
HMG CoA reductase inhibitor
What is included in the classification of left sided heart failure? (4)
pulmonary congestion
DOE
PND
cough
What is included in the classification of right sided heart failure? (2) What is the MCC?
peripheral edema
JVD > 3 (CVP-->preload)

MCC = left heart failure
What is happening with systolic dysfunction? (5)
ventricles pumping <40-50%
dilated ventricles (first L)
dilated cardiomyopathy
secondary to ischemic heart dz
worse w/ exercise
What is happening with systolic dysfunction? (4)
ventricle pump ~60% (but may have decreased amount)
long standing HTN
ischemic heart dz
ventricular hypertrophy
What are some of the S/S of CHF? (14)
DOE
orthopnea
PND
SOB @ rest
chest pain
abd. pain
weakness
JVD
crackles
rales
S3/S4 murmur
hepatojugular reflex
peripheral edema
AMS
What may be seen on CXR of CHF? (6)
symptoms may lag up to 6hr (normal CXR does not exclude CHF)

Kerly B lines in periphery
cephalization of blood flow
cardiomegaly
inc pulm vasculature
pleural effusion
interstitial edema
What may an echocardiogram show for CHF? (4)
ejection fraction
wall motion abnormality
valvular dz
systolic vs diastolic
What BNP level rules out CHF? What BNP level rules in CHF?
<100 rules out CHF
>250 rules in CHF
What are 7 conditions that may cause a falsely elevated BNP?
elderly
women
liver failure
renal failure
HRT
pulmonary embolus
pulmonary HTN
What is included in the Tx plan for CHF? (7)
ABCs
CPAP/BiPAP
sublingual nitrates
nitroprusside (if BP stable and no relief w/ nitrates)
Furosemide (Lasix)
Bumetadine (Bumex)
Morphine
What is included in the primary survey for ACLS?
Airway
Breathing
Circulation
Defibrillation
For ACLS, where do you check for a pulse in adults? Children?
carotid
brachial
If a pt has a definitive pulse, but is not breathing, then what do you do?
give 1 breath q 5-6 seconds (8-10/min)

recheck q 2 mins
Explain how CPR should be given.
5 cycles of 30 compressions (100/min) and 2 breaths
What is included in the secondary survey for ACLS?
Airway
Breathing
Circulation
Differential Diagnosis
What is the sequence of Tx for pulseless VF/VT?
-ABCs
-shock (360J monophasic, 200J biphasic)
-5 cycles of CPR
-shock
-CPR
-Epinephrine 1mg q 3-5mins (may give 1 dose of Vasopressin 40U to replace 1st or 2nd dose of Epi)
-5 cycles CPR
-shock
-CPR
-Amiodarone 300mg then 150mg
OR Lidocaine 1-1.5mg/kg then 0.5-0.75mg/kg (max 3 doses or 3mg/kg)
How is torsades de pointes treated?
1-2g magnesium
What meds can be givin down an ETT and what is the dosage?
NAVEL (double dose)
Narcan
Atropine
Vasopressin
Epinephrine
Lidocaine
What is the sequence of Tx options for asystole/PEA?
-5 cycles of CPR
-Epinephrine 1mg q 3-5mins (may give 1 dose of Vasopressin 40U to replace 1st or 2nd dose of Epi)
-atropine 1mg q 3-5mins (max 3 doses or 0.4mg/kg)
What are the H's and T's that need to be thought about with PEA and bradycardia? (10)
Hypovolemia
Hypoxia
Hydrogen ion (acidosis)
Hyper/Hypokalemia
Hypothermia

Toxins/Tablets
Tamponade
Tension pneumothorax
Thrombosis
Trauma
What are S/S of poor perfusion caused by bradycardia or unstable tachycardia? (4)
acute AMS
ongoing chest pain
hypotension
other signs of shock
What is the sequence of Tx for poor perfusing bradycardia pts?
-transcutaneous pacing (w/o delay if 2nd or 3rd degree block)
-atropine 0.5mg while awaiting pacer (up to 3mg)
-Epinephrine 2-10ug/min or Dopamine 2-10ug/kg/min
-transvenous pacing
What is the sequence of Tx options for stable narrow QRS (<.12) regular v-tach?
-vagal manuevers
-Adenosine 6mg rapid IVP (if needed then 12mg then 12mg again)
-expert consultation :)
-if rhythm converts (reentry SVT): Tx recurrence w/ Adenosine, Diltiazem, or beta blockers)
-if rhythm does not convert (a-flutter, ectopic atrial tach, juncitional tach): Diltiazem, beta blockers
What is the sequence of Tx options for stable narrow QRS (<.12) irregular v-tach?
-expert consult
-possible a-fib/a-flutter/MAT
-Diltiazem or beta blockers
What 2 conditions are beta blockers used w/ caution?
pulmonary dz
CHF
What is the sequence of Tx options for stable wide QRS (>.12) regular v-tach?
-expert consult
-Amiodarone 150mg over 10mins (max 2.2g/24h)
-synchronized cardioversion

if SVT w/ aberrancy give adenosine
What is the sequence of Tx options for stable wide QRS (>.12) irregular v-tach?
-expert consult
-may Tx a-fib (beta blocker or Diltiazem)
-pre-excited a-fib (AF+WPW): Amiodarone 150mg over 10mins (avoid AV nodal blocking agents: Adenosine, Digoxin, Diltiazem, Verapamil)
How is unstable tachycardia treated (rate >150bpm)?
immediate synchronized cardioversion
-SVT & a-flutter may respond to lower energy (50J)
What are 11 causes of peritonitis?
appendicitis
perforated peptic ulcer
acute salpingitis
diverticulitis perforation
small bowel perforation
gangrenous cholecystitis
trauma
large bowel perforation
ischemic small bowel
acute necrotizing pancreatitis
post-op complication
What may be included in the S/S of peritonitis?
acute abdomen
abdominal pain
tenderness
guarding
rigidity
distension
free peritoneal air
diminished bowel sounds
fever
chills/rigors
N/V
tachycardia
sweating
tachypnea
restlessness
dehydration
oliguria
disorientation
shock
Is a cutting needle or reverse cutting needle used more often in cutaneous surgery?
reverse cutting needle (sharp edge of outer curve of needle that is directed away from the wound)
What is a subcuticular suture good for?
wounds where tension is minimal