Cst Lange Review Part 1

Front 1

Adnexa refers to

Back 1

accessory organs

Front 2

A drop is denoted by the abbreviation

Back 2

gt

Front 3

The abbreviation ung refers to

Back 3

ointment

Front 4

Proximal is a term that indicates a point

Back 4

nearer to the body

Front 5

Adduction means

Back 5

movement toward median plane

Front 6

Ischemic can be defined as

Back 6

a decreased supply of oxygenated blood to a body part or organ

Front 7

A cystocele is

Back 7

a herniation of the urinary bladder

Front 8

Nulli is a prefix that means

Back 8

none

Front 9

False is indicated by the prefix

Back 9

pseudo

Front 10

Tiny red or purple spots on the skin appearing as a result of small hemorrhages within the dermal or submucosal layers are called

Back 10

petechiae

Front 11

Kerato refers to

Back 11

horny

Front 12

The suffix lysis means

Back 12

breaking down

Front 13

The left eye is indicated by the following letters

Back 13

OS

Front 14

Tissue death is called

Back 14

necrosis

Front 15

The secretion of excessive sweat is also known as

Back 15

diaphoresis

Front 16

Which radiographic procedure has the ability to make images in multiple planes

Back 16

MRI

Front 17

The absence of a normal body opening, duct, or canal is called

Back 17

atresia

Front 18

Epistaxis can be defined as

Back 18

bleeding from the nose

Front 19

Blood gas analysis is called

Back 19

ABG

Front 20

A ganglion is a

Back 20

collection of nerve endings

Front 21

The lungs are covered in a serous membranous sac called the

Back 21

visceral pleura

Front 22

The passageway for foods and liquids into the digestive system, and for air into the respiratory system is the

Back 22

pharynx

Front 23

The vocal cords are located in the

Back 23

larynx

Front 24

The fuction of the trachea is to

Back 24

conduct air TO AND FROM the lungs

Front 25

The nasal cavity is divided into two portions by the

Back 25

septum

Front 26

The bones of the palm of the hand are referred to as

Back 26

metacarpals

Front 27

The muscles important in respiration are

Back 27

intercostal

Front 28

The thick, fan-shaped muscle that lies on the anterior chest is the

Back 28

pectoralis major

Front 29

The triangular uscle of the shoulder that ABDUCTS the arm is the

Back 29

deltoid

Front 30

Which of the abdominal muscles orginates at the pubic bone ad ends in the ribs

Back 30

rectus abdominis

Front 31

One of the principal muscles of the pelvic floor is the

Back 31

levator ani

Front 32

The gastrocnemius is the chief muscles of the

Back 32

calf of the leg

Front 33

A connective tissue band that holds bones tovether is called

Back 33

ligament

Front 34

The two bones taht form the side walls the rood of the cranium are the

Back 34

parietal bones

Front 35

The sternocleidomastoid muscle is located

Back 35

along the side of the neck

Front 36

The medial bone of the forearm, which is located on the small-finger side of the hand, is called the

Back 36

ulna

Front 37

The bone that is shaped like a butterfly and forms the anterior portion of the base of the cranium is the

Back 37

sphenoid

Front 38

The bone that forms the posterior portion of the skull is the

Back 38

occipital

Front 39

The lower jawbone is the

Back 39

mandible

Front 40

The bone located in the neck between the madible and the larynx, which suports the tongue and provides attachement for some of the its muscles, is the

Back 40

hyoid bone

Front 41

The adult vertebral column has

Back 41

26 bones

Front 42

How many cervical vertebrae are there

Back 42

7

Front 43

The bone is the axial skeleton that does not articulate with any other bone is the

Back 43

hyoid

Front 44

The number of pairs of ribs is

Back 44

12

Front 45

A slender, rodlike bone that is located at the base of the neck and runs horizontally is the

Back 45

clavicle

Front 46

A connective tissue band that holds bones together is called

Back 46

ligament

Front 47

A connective tissue that holds bone to muscle is a

Back 47

tendon

Front 48

The medial bone of the forearm, which is located on the small-finger side of the hand, is called the

Back 48

ulna

Front 49

The bones that is shaped like a butterfuly and forms the anterior portion of the base of the cranium isthe

Back 49

sphenoid

Front 50

A connective tissue band that holds bones together is called

Back 50

ligament

Front 51

THe bone that forms the posterior portion of the skull is the

Back 51

occipital

Front 52

A connective tissue that holds bone to muscle is a

Back 52

tendon

Front 53

The medial bone of the forearm, which is located on the small-finger side of the hand, is called the

Back 53

ulna

Front 54

The bones that is shaped like a butterfuly and forms the anterior portion of the base of the cranium isthe

Back 54

sphenoid

Front 55

A connective tissue band that holds bones together is called

Back 55

ligament

Front 56

THe bone that forms the posterior portion of the skull is the

Back 56

occipital

Front 57

A connective tissue that holds bone to muscle is a

Back 57

tendon

Front 58

A connective tissue band that holds bones together is called

Back 58

ligament

Front 59

A connective tissue band that holds bones together is called

Back 59

ligament

Front 60

The medial bone of the forearm, which is located on the small-finger side of the hand, is called the

Back 60

ulna

Front 61

A connective tissue that holds bone to muscle is a

Back 61

tendon

Front 62

A connective tissue that holds bone to muscle is a

Back 62

tendon

Front 63

The bones that is shaped like a butterfuly and forms the anterior portion of the base of the cranium isthe

Back 63

sphenoid

Front 64

The medial bone of the forearm, which is located on the small-finger side of the hand, is called the

Back 64

ulna

Front 65

The medial bone of the forearm, which is located on the small-finger side of the hand, is called the

Back 65

ulna

Front 66

THe bone that forms the posterior portion of the skull is the

Back 66

occipital

Front 67

The bones that is shaped like a butterfuly and forms the anterior portion of the base of the cranium isthe

Back 67

sphenoid

Front 68

The bones that is shaped like a butterfuly and forms the anterior portion of the base of the cranium isthe

Back 68

sphenoid

Front 69

THe bone that forms the posterior portion of the skull is the

Back 69

occipital

Front 70

THe bone that forms the posterior portion of the skull is the

Back 70

occipital

Front 71

The bone that forms the posterior portion of the skull is the

Back 71

occipital

Front 72

The lower jawbone is the

Back 72

mandible

Front 73

The bone located in the neck between the mandible and the larynx, thich supports the tongue and provides attachment for some of the its muscles, is the

Back 73

Hyoid bone

Front 74

A slender, rodlike bone that is located at the base of the neck and runs horizontally is the

Back 74

clavicle

Front 75

The nucleus pulposus is the

Back 75

cushioning mass within an intervertebral disk

Front 76

The upper, flaring portion of hipbone is the

Back 76

ilium

Front 77

A large opening at the base of the skull through which the spinal cord passes is the

Back 77

foramen magnum

Front 78

The larger, weigt-bearing bone of the lower leg is the

Back 78

tibia

Front 79

The bone that fits into the acetabulum, forming a joint, is the

Back 79

femur

Front 80

Another name for the kneecap is

Back 80

patella

Front 81

The membranes that l ine closed cavities within the body are called

Back 81

serous membranes

Front 82

the longest bone in the body is the

Back 82

femur

Front 83

A rounded protuberance found at a point of articulation with another bone is called a

Back 83

condyle

Front 84

An infection of the bone is

Back 84

osteomyelitis

Front 85

The epiphyses are the

Back 85

ends of long bones

Front 86

Oil glands of the skin are called

Back 86

sebaceous

Front 87

The periosteum is

Back 87

the membrane that covers bone

Front 88

A transparent structure that permits the eye to focus rays to form an image on the retina is the

Back 88

lens

Front 89

The purpose of the iris is to

Back 89

regulate the amount of light entering the eye

Front 90

The structure that is seen from the outside as the colored portion of the eye is the

Back 90

iris

Front 91

The nerve that carries visual impulses to the brain is the

Back 91

optic nerve

Front 92

the white outer layer of the eyeball is the

Back 92

sclera

Front 93

A jelly-like substance in the eye's posterior cavity is called POSTERIOR cavity is called

Back 93

vitreous humor

Front 94

The watery substance in the anterior and posterier cavity is

Back 94

aqueous humor

Front 95

The structure that connects the middle ear and the throat, allowing the eardrum to vibrate freely, is the

Back 95

eustachian tube

Front 96

The conjectiva is the

Back 96

covering of the anterior globe except the cornea

Front 97

The number of pairs of spinal nerves is

Back 97

31

Front 98

The great sensory nerve of the face and head is the

Back 98

trigeminal

Front 99

The crainial nerve that contains special sense fibers for hearing as well as for balance is

Back 99

VIII acoustic

Front 100

The part of the brain responsible for maintenance of balance and muscle tone, as well as coordination of voluntary muscle, is the

Back 100

cerebellum

Front 101

The grontal, temporal, parietal, and occipital lobes are divisions of the

Back 101

cerebrum

Front 102

The area of the brain that controls the respiratory center is the

Back 102

medulla oblongata

Front 103

The largest part of the brain is the

Back 103

cerebrum

Front 104

The outermost covering of the brain and spinal cord is the

Back 104

dura mater

Front 105

Cerebrospinal fluid circulates freely in the

Back 105

subarachnoid space

Front 106

The brain contains four fluid-filled spaces called the

Back 106

ventricles

Front 107

The following structure transmits sound vibrations to the inner ear

Back 107

tympanic membrane

Front 108

The winding, cone-shaped tube of the inner ear is the

Back 108

cochlea

Front 109

cross-matching of blood

Back 109

determines suitability of donor by mixing donor RBCs with recipient serum

Front 110

The highly specialized blood cell whose funciton is oxygen transportation is

Back 110

red blood cell with protein hemoglobin

Front 111

A differential count provides an estimate of

Back 111

the percentage of each type of white cell

Front 112

Mixing of incompatible bloods may result in

Back 112

agglutination

Front 113

Platelets are essential for

Back 113

coagulation of blood

Front 114

In the normal adult, the average number of leukocytes per cubic millimeter of circulating blood is

Back 114

5000-10000

Front 115

A large superficial vein in the lower etremity, which begins in the foot and extends up the medial side of the leg, the knee, and the thigh, is called the

Back 115

greater saphenous

Front 116

The vein in the bend of the elbow that is commonly used as a site for venipuncture is the

Back 116

median cubital vein

Front 117

The artery at the back of the knee is the

Back 117

popliteal

Front 118

The superior and inferior mesenteric arteries supply the

Back 118

intestines

Front 119

The vein that drains the veins of the chest wall and empties into the superior vena cava is the

Back 119

azygos

Front 120

The veins of the head and neck are drained by the

Back 120

jugular veins

Front 121

Which arteries supply the heart

Back 121

right and left coronary

Front 122

The atrioventricular AV node causes

Back 122

ventricular contraction

Front 123

Why would an aspirated foreign body be more likely to enter the right bronchus rather than the left bronchus?

Back 123

the right bronchus is more vertical, shorter, and wider than the left

Front 124

The spleen filters

Back 124

blood

Front 125

Circulation that is established through an anastomosis between two vessels supplying or draining two adjacent structures is called

Back 125

collateral circulation

Front 126

Which artery supplies the head and neck?

Back 126

carotid

Front 127

The circle of Willis is lcated

Back 127

at the base of the brain

Front 128

The branch of the external iliac artery that is located in the thigh is called the

Back 128

femoral artery

Front 129

The descending aorta terminates at the level of the fourth lumbar vertebra, dividing into

Back 129

two common iliac arteries

Front 130

The contractions of the heart are synchronized and regularted by the pacemake of the heart, called the

Back 130

sinoatrial node

Front 131

Tiny blood vessels that permeate and nourish tissue are called

Back 131

capillaries

Front 132

The wall or partition dividing the heart into right and left sides is called the

Back 132

septum

Front 133

The heart valve that closes at the time the right ventricle begins pumping, preventing blood from returning to the right atrium, is the

Back 133

tricuspid

Front 134

The inner lining of the heart, composed of smooth, delicate membrane, is called the

Back 134

endocardium

Front 135

The spleen is located

Back 135

in the left hypochondriac region

Front 136

All of the following are parts of the lymphatic system

Back 136

tonsils
spleen
thymus

Front 137

The s-shaped bend in the lower colon is called the

Back 137

sigmoid

Front 138

The reabsorption of water and electrolytes is the main function of the

Back 138

large intestine

Front 139

The terminal portion of the large intestine is

Back 139

anal canal

Front 140

Which structure lies retroperitoneally?

Back 140

kidney

Front 141

The first portion of the large intestine is the

Back 141

cecum

Front 142

The appendix is attached to the

Back 142

cecum

Front 143

The primary function of the gallbladder is

Back 143

storage of bile

Front 144

When the gallbladder contracts, bile is ejected into the

Back 144

duodenum

Front 145

The area in the duodenum where the common bile duct and the pancreatic duct empty is called

Back 145

the ampulla of Vater

Front 146

Which structure is also known as the "fatty apron"?

Back 146

greater omentum

Front 147

The common bile duct is the union of the

Back 147

cystic duct and hepatic duct

Front 148

The yellow tinge in the skin symptomatic of obstructive jaundice is caused by the accumulation of what substance in the blood and tissue?

Back 148

bilirubin

Front 149

The head of the pancreas is located

Back 149

in the curve of the duodenum

Front 150

the sphincter at the junction of the small and large intestines is the

Back 150

ileocecal sphincter

Front 151

The portion of the small intestine that receives secretions from the pancreas and the liver is the

Back 151

duodenum

Front 152

The region of the stomach that connects to the duodenum is the

Back 152

pylorus

Front 153

The mesentery is

Back 153

a double-layered peritoneal structure shaped like a fan

Front 154

The large central portion of the stomach is called the

Back 154

body

Front 155

The muscle serving as a valve to prevent regurgitation of food from the intestine back into the stomach is known as the

Back 155

pyloric sphincter

Front 156

The digestive passageway that begins at the pharynx and terminates in the stomach is the

Back 156

esophagus

Front 157

The point at which the esophagus penetrates the diaphragm is called the

Back 157

hiatus

Front 158

Adenoids are also called

Back 158

pharyngeal tonsils

Front 159

The function of the molar teeth is to

Back 159

crush and grind food

Front 160

Mumps ocur in the

Back 160

parotid glands

Front 161

The salivary glands located under the tongue are the

Back 161

sublingual

Front 162

The liver has

Back 162

two lobes

Front 163

The glomerulus is a

Back 163

cluster of capillaries located on one end of the nephron

Front 164

The tubes or cuplike extensions that project from the renal pelvis are called

Back 164

calyces

Front 165

Urine is transported along the ureters to the bladder by

Back 165

peristaltic waves

Front 166

The smooth, triangular area at the bottom of the bladder that contains three opening is called the

Back 166

trigone

Front 167

The kidneys are positioned

Back 167

retroperitoneally

Front 168

The kidney structure that filtures blood, returns useful sustances to blood, and removes substances form blood that are not needed

Back 168

nephron

Front 169

Blood is supplied to the kidney by means of the renal artery, which arises from the

Back 169

abdominal aorta

Front 170

The indentation in the kidney through which all structures must pass as they enter or leave the kidney is the

Back 170

hilus

Front 171

The outer layer of the kidney is known as the

Back 171

cortex

Front 172

The portion of the male urethra that passes through the pelvic floor is called the

Back 172

membranous portion

Front 173

A lack of voluntary control over micturition is called

Back 173

incontinence

Front 174

Urine empties from the bladder through a tube called the

Back 174

urethra

Front 175

Fertilization occurs in the

Back 175

fallopian tubes

Front 176

The perineum is

Back 176

the area between the vagina and the anus

Front 177

The kidneys are positioned

Back 177

retroperitoneally

Front 178

The kidney structure that filtures blood, returns useful sustances to blood, and removes substances form blood that are not needed

Back 178

nephron

Front 179

Blood is supplied to the kidney by means of the renal artery, which arises from the

Back 179

abdominal aorta

Front 180

The indentation in the kidney through which all structures must pass as they enter or leave the kidney is the

Back 180

hilus

Front 181

The outer layer of the kidney is known as the

Back 181

cortex

Front 182

The portion of the male urethra that passes through the pelvic floor is called the

Back 182

membranous portion

Front 183

A lack of voluntary control over micturition is called

Back 183

incontinence

Front 184

Urine empties from the bladder through a tube called the

Back 184

urethra

Front 185

Fertilization occurs in the

Back 185

fallopian tubes

Front 186

The perineum is

Back 186

the area between the vagina and the anus

Front 187

The small, sensitive structure of the female homologous to the male penis is the

Back 187

clitoris

Front 188

Ova are swept into the fallopian tubes by small, fringelike extensions of the distal ends of the tubes called

Back 188

fimbriae

Front 189

The inner lining of the uterus is called the

Back 189

endometrium

Front 190

The ligament that attaches the overies to the pelvic wall is the

Back 190

suspensory

Front 191

The supporting structure of the male reproductive system is the

Back 191

spermatic cord

Front 192

The loose skin covering the glans penis like a sheath is called the

Back 192

prepuce

Front 193

In a male, the structure surrounding the entrance to the urethra just below the urinary bladder is

Back 193

the prostate gland

Front 194

The following are structures of the male urethra

Back 194

membranous, prostatic, penile

Front 195

This structure stores sperm and propels them toward the urethra during ejaculation

Back 195

vas deferens

Front 196

The long, coiled tue in which sperm mature is the

Back 196

epididymis

Front 197

The English surgeon who began the age of chemical control of the atmosphere was

Back 197

Lister

Front 198

Passage of fluid through a cell membrane is called

Back 198

osmosis

Front 199

Oxygen-dependent bacteria are said to be

Back 199

aerobic

Front 200

The destruction of bacteria by white cells during the inflammatory process is called

Back 200

phagocytosis

Front 201

Bacteriostatic means

Back 201

to inhibit growth of microorganisms

Front 202

Staphylococcus aureus would most likely be transmitted by

Back 202

nose and mouth

Front 203

Microbial death occurs when an organisms is

Back 203

no longer capable of reproduction

Front 204

What immune protection is available to the fetus

Back 204

natural passive

Front 205

The clinical syndrome characterized by microbial invasion of the bloodstream is

Back 205

septicemia

Front 206

A toxoid is

Back 206

an inactivated toxin

Front 207

Inflammatory exudate that is thick and yellow is termed

Back 207

suppurative

Front 208

The body's first line of defense against the invasion of pathogens is

Back 208

skin and mucous membrane linings

Front 209

Rodlike shaped bacteria are identified microscopically as

Back 209

bacilli

Front 210

A procedure used to remove damaged tissue that provides growth conditions for pathogens is called

Back 210

debridement

Front 211

Herpes simplex is commonly called

Back 211

cold sore

Front 212

All of the following descriptors refer to the inflammatory process EXCEPT:
heat
pain
vasoconstriction
edema

Back 212

vasoconstriction

Front 213

Clostridium tetani causes

Back 213

lockjaw

Front 214

A laboratory procedure useful in classifying bacteria using a staining procedure is

Back 214

Gram stain

Front 215

A dulminating infection arising from necrotic tissue and spreading rapidly is

Back 215

gas gangrene

Front 216

Which bacteria is commonly found in soil?

Back 216

Clostridium tetani

Front 217

The bacteria that causes rheumatic fever is

Back 217

Streptococcus

Front 218

A severe allergic reaction possibly resulting in death is called

Back 218

anaphylactic shock

Front 219

What organism is responsible for a boil?

Back 219

Staphylococcus aureus

Front 220

The organism most frequently found in burns is

Back 220

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Front 221

A bacterial pathogen most frequenly invading damaged skin is

Back 221

Staphlococcus aureus

Front 222

Which type of wound would favor the development of gas gangrene?

Back 222

necrotic

Front 223

Gas gangrene is caused by

Back 223

Clostridium perfringens

Front 224

The bacteria highly resistant to sterilization and disinfection is

Back 224

spores

Front 225

A bacteria found in the intestinal tract is

Back 225

Escherichia coli

Front 226

The burn classification that is characterized by a dry, pearly white, or charred-appearing surface is

Back 226

third

Front 227

OSHA is a governmental regulating agency whose aim is to

Back 227

execute requirements designed to prevent transmission of blood-borne pathogens in the work environment

Front 228

Inflammation is characterized by pain, redness, heat, swelling, and loss of function. The redness can be attributed to

Back 228

vasodilation bringing more blood to the area

Front 229

Removal of contaminated debris from a wound is called

Back 229

debridement

Front 230

The space caused by separation of wound edges is called

Back 230

dead space

Front 231

If tissue is approximated too tightly it can cause

Back 231

ischemia

Front 232

Tensile strength of a wound refers to

Back 232

ability of tissue to resist rupture

Front 233

The substance that unites with thrombin to form fibrin, the basic structural material of blood clots is

Back 233

fibrinogen

Front 234

A cicatrix is

Back 234

a scar

Front 235

Keloids are

Back 235

a raised, thickened scar

Front 236

supraspinatous function

Back 236

abduction, external rotation, most commonly torn

Front 237

A CDC guidleline that addresses the care of "sharps" includes ALL of the following EXCEPT:
a. needles should always be recapped
b. needles should not e bent or broken by hand
c. needles should not be removed from disposable syringes
d. needles should be discarded in puncture-resistant containers for disposal

Back 237

a

Front 238

The type of wound healing that requires debridement is

Back 238

third

Front 239

To promot healing, a surgical wound must have all of the following requisites EXCEPT
a. suture closure of dead space
b. drains to removed fluid or air
c. a moderately tight dressing
d. tight sutures to create tension

Back 239

d

Front 240

Wound healing that employs a technique allowing the wound to heal from the bottom up is called

Back 240

second intention

Front 241

Which body fluid is least likely to transmit HIV?

Back 241

saliva

Front 242

A band of scar tissue that binds together two anatomical surfaces that are normally separate from each other is called

Back 242

adhesion

Front 243

A drug that interferes with the blood-clotting mechanism is

Back 243

heparin

Front 244

A mg is a measurement of

Back 244

weight

Front 245

The solutions used IV to replace plasma when plasma is not available is

Back 245

Dextran

Front 246

An inch equals how many cm?

Back 246

2.54cm

Front 247

How many millilters are in 1 ounce?

Back 247

30ml

Front 248

One gram equals

Back 248

1000mg

Front 249

A drug used to increase blood pressure is

Back 249

epinephrine

Front 250

The action of an anticholinergic drug is to reduce

Back 250

secretions

Front 251

The total volume in a 30cc syringe is

Back 251

1 ounce

Front 252

Naloxone (Narcan) is an example of a/an na

Back 252

narcotic antagonist

Front 253

Avitene is a

Back 253

hemostatic

Front 254

An absorbable gelatin hemostatic agent that is often soaked in thrombin or opinephrine solution is

Back 254

Gefoam

Front 255

Each of the following agents must be applied using dry gloves or instruments EXCEPT
a. gelfoam
b. collastat
c. avitene
d. helistat

Back 255

a

Front 256

An anticoagulant given subcutaneously, intravenously, or as a flush is

Back 256

heparin

Front 257

A drug that decreases the tendency of blood platelets to clot is

Back 257

warfarin sodium

Front 258

An antibiotic used intraoperatively is

Back 258

Gentamicin

Front 259

A topical antibiotic is

Back 259

Bacitracin

Front 260

Which item is used on cut edges of bone to seal off oozing of blood?
a. electrocautery
b. silver nitrate
c. bone wax
d. epinephrine

Back 260

bone wax

Front 261

The most common diurectic is

Back 261

Lasix

Front 262

An osmotic diurectic agent used to decrease cerebral edema and intraocular edema is

Back 262

mannitol

Front 263

A systemic agent used to control uterine hemorrhage is

Back 263

pitocin

Front 264

Steroids are used for

Back 264

reduction of tissue inflammation and swelling

Front 265

Solu-Medrol is an

Back 265

anti-inflammatory

Front 266

Tubal patency may be tested by the installation of ______ into the uterine cavity

Back 266

methylene blue

Front 267

A mydriatic drug., Neo-Synephrine, is used to

Back 267

dilate the pupil

Front 268

Immobility of the eye, along with lowered intra-ocular pressure is facilitated by the use of

Back 268

Retrobulbar block

Front 269

Miochol is a

Back 269

miotic

Front 270

An agent that keeps the cornea moist during surgery and is used for irrigation as well is

Back 270

BSS

Front 271

An artificial plasma-volume expander is

Back 271

dextran

Front 272

An anticoagulant used in vascular surgery is

Back 272

heparin

Front 273

Heparin effects are reversed by

Back 273

protamine sulfate

Front 274

The universal donor blood that may be fiven in extreme emergencies until the patient can be typed and crossmatched is

Back 274

O

Front 275

Normal saline is used for laparotomy pack moistening and for intraperitoneal irrigation because it is

Back 275

isotonic

Front 276

Levophed

Back 276

restores and maintains blood pressure

Front 277

A drug used to treat metabolic acidosis is

Back 277

sodium bicarbonate

Front 278

The last sensation to leave the patient during general anesthesia induction is

Back 278

hearing

Front 279

An ultrashort acting drug useful during intubation to produce paralysis and also to produce muscle relaxation when used in a dilute solution is

Back 279

Anectine

Front 280

Neuroleptoanalgesia combines

Back 280

a tranquilizer and narcotic

Front 281

A sedative-tranquilizer used to reduce anxiety and apprehension of the pre-op patient and as an adjunct to general anesthesia to reduce the amount and concentration of other more potent agents is

Back 281

Valium

Front 282

An antimuscarinic

Back 282

limits salivation

Front 283

Anesthesia given in combination of several agents to obtain optimum results is called

Back 283

balanced anesthesia

Front 284

A bolus is

Back 284

a dose injected all at once, IV

Front 285

A drug used to soothe and relieve anxiety is

Back 285

sedative

Front 286

A Bier block provides

Back 286

anesthesia to a distal portion of an extremity

Front 287

Which inhalation agent is used for short procedures requiring no muscle relaxation?

Back 287

nitrous oxide

Front 288

The most frequently used barbiturate for IV anesthesia is

Back 288

pentothal

Front 289

Halothan is also called

Back 289

Fluothane

Front 290

A method of anesthesia in which medication is injected into the subarachnoid space, affecting a portion of the spinal cord, is called a

Back 290

spinal block

Front 291

The indication for an epidural would be

Back 291

anorectal, vaginal, perineal, and obstetric procedures

Front 292

Compazine is

Back 292

an antiemetic

Front 293

Pontocaine is

Back 293

tetracaine HCL

Front 294

Which technique can be employed to prevent pain during an operative procedure or to relieve chronic pain

Back 294

nerve block

Front 295

The most widely used local anesthetic is

Back 295

lidocaine

Front 296

Another name for adrenalin is

Back 296

epinephrine

Front 297

A vasocontrictor that, when added to a local anesthetic agent, extends its life is

Back 297

epinephrine

Front 298

The purpose of an LMA is

Back 298

to establish and maintain a patent airway

Front 299

A drug used to reverse hypotension is

Back 299

Levophed

Front 300

Blood or fluid can be quickly delivered to a patient via

Back 300

rapid infusion pump

Front 301

Blood oxygenation can be monitored during surgery by means of a

Back 301

pulse oximeter

Front 302

A drug that could be used to reverse the effect of muscle relaxants is

Back 302

Prostigmin

Front 303

Arterial blood gases (ABGs) are commonly obtained by accesssing the

Back 303

radial artery

Front 304

Which piece of equipment is of extreme importance when anesthesia induction begins?

Back 304

suction

Front 305

The minimum distance a nonsterile person should remain from a sterile field is

Back 305

1 foot

Front 306

Identify whoch of the following is NOT safe practice
a. discard opened sterile bottles
b. sterile persons drape first toward themselves, than away
c. sterile persons face sterile areas
d. sterile tables may be covered for later used

Back 306

d. NOT safe to covere sterile tables for later use

Front 307

Tables are considered sterile

Back 307

only of the top

Front 308

At the end of the case, drapes should be

Back 308

check for instruments, rolled off, and placed in a hamper

Front 309

If a solution soaks through a sterile drape

Back 309

cover wet area with impervious sterile drape or towel

Front 310

The pounds of pressure necessary in a steam sterilizer set at 250F is

Back 310

15-17psi

Front 311

Positive assurance that sterilization conditions have been achieved can only be obtained through

Back 311

biologic control test

Front 312

A wrapped tray of instruments is sterilized in a gravity displacement sterilizer at 250F for

Back 312

30 min

Front 313

The minimum exposure time for unwrapped instruments in a flash sterilizer that is set at 270F is

Back 313

3 min

Front 314

When steam is used to sterilized a rubber tubing or catheter

Back 314

a residual of distilled water should be left inside the lumen

Front 315

To be sterilized effectively, a linen pack must not weigh more than

Back 315

12 pounds

Front 316

Gravity displacement utilizes _____ to destroy microorganisms

Back 316

steam

Front 317

The process called cavitation occurs in the

Back 317

ultrasonic cleaner

Front 318

All of the following statments regarding instrument sets are true EXCEPT
a. instruments must be placed in perforated trays
b. heavy instruments are placed on the bottom
c. all instruments must be close
d. all detachable parts must be disassembled

Back 318

c is false because all instruments must be OPEN

Front 319

All of the following statements regarding steam sterilization are true EXCEPT
a. flat packages are placed on the shelf on edge
b. small packages, placed one on top of the other, are criss-crossed
c. basins are placed on their sides
d. solutions may be autoclaved along with other itmes as long as they are on a shelf alone

Back 319

d is false because solutions are sterilized alone on a slow-exhaust cycle to prevent them from boiling over. The pressure gauge must read 0F before opening the door. This is so the caps will not pop off

Front 320

Wrapped basin sets may be sterilized by steam under pressure at 250F for a minimum of

Back 320

20 min

Front 321

Which of the following statements regarding the sterilization of basin sets is true?

Back 321

basins must be separated by a porous material if they are nested

Front 322

Why would gas sterilization be chosen over steam sterilization

Back 322

it is less damaging to items

Front 323

The chemical agent used in gas sterilization is

Back 323

ethylene oxide

Front 324

What chemical system uses peracetic acid as the sterilant?

Back 324

steris

Front 325

The lumen of a tubing undergoing ethylene oxide (EO) sterilization is

Back 325

dried thoroughly

Front 326

Why is thylene oxide diluted with an inert gas such as chlorofluorocarbon?

Back 326

it provides flame retardation

Front 327

The commerical name for glutaradehyde is

Back 327

Cidex

Front 328

A 30 min, single use, sterilization system useful for endoscopes is

Back 328

Steris

Front 329

Which of the following is essential when using activated glutardehyde for sterilization?

Back 329

items must be rinsed thoroughly in sterile water before use

Front 330

What is the shelf life of Cidex?

Back 330

between 14-28 days

Front 331

In which procedure would the use of a high-level disinfectant be acceptable instrument preparation

Back 331

cystoscopy

Front 332

In a high-speed flash sterilizer, unwrapped instruments are exposed for a minimum of

Back 332

3 min

Front 333

To kill spores, an item must be immersed in a 2% aqueous solution of glutaraldehyde for

Back 333

10 hours

Front 334

When placing tubing in an activated glutaraldehyde solution, one should

Back 334

be certain that the interior of the tubing is completely filled

Front 335

What is the role of moisture in EO sterilization?

Back 335

dried spores are resistant to the gas, so they must be hydrated

Front 336

"Slow exhaust" in a gravity displacement steam sterilizer is used for

Back 336

solutions

Front 337

Oil is best sterilized by

Back 337

convection hot air

Front 338

What is the function of an aerator in EO sterilization?

Back 338

it is a separate unit used to decrease the aeration time

Front 339

Ethylene oxide destroys cells by

Back 339

interfering with the normal metabolism of the protein and reproductive processes

Front 340

Activated glutaraldehyde is used to disinfect endoscopes for

Back 340

20 minutes

Front 341

When using a high-level disinfectant, always

Back 341

rinse items with sterile distilled water before using

Front 342

The chemical sterilant used in the STERIS method of sterilizing is

Back 342

peracetic acid

Front 343

The Endoflush ststem

Back 343

initially cleans reusable channeled instruments

Front 344

Which of the following is not an acceptable wrapper for gas sterilization?
a. nylon
b. muslin
c. paper
d. plastic

Back 344

a. nylon is not acceptable because of inadequate permeability; however, muslin, nonwoven fabric, paper, and plastic are safely used. Items wrapped for gas sterilization should be tagged to avoid inadvertent steam sterilization

Front 345

Which of the following is the only acceptable plastic taht can be used for a steam sterilization wrapper?
a. polyethylene
b. polypropylene
c. polyamide
d. polyvinyl chloride

Back 345

b. polypropylene
- polypropylene film of 1-3mm thickness is the only plastic acceptable for steam sterilization. It is used in the form f pouches presealed on two or three sides. The open sides are then heat sealed

Front 346

All of the foloowing statments regarding muslin wrapper are true EXCEPT
a. muslin must be laundered, even if unused, in order to rehydrate it
b. a 140-thread count of unbleached muslin is used for wrappers
c. muslin is flexible and easy to handle
d. small holes can be repaired by stitching on a patch

Back 346

d. is false because small holes can only be heat sealed with double-vulcanized patches, they never can be stitched bc they will leave needle holes in the muslin

Front 347

Packages wrapped in muslin must have

Back 347

four thicknesses

Front 348

The maximum storage life for a muslin-wrapped item in a closed cabinet is

Back 348

30 days

Front 349

An item dropped on the floor is considered safe only if

Back 349

it is enclosed in an impervious material

Front 350

When using a pour solution

Back 350

the contents must be used or discarded after the bottle is opened

Front 351

What is the standard safety margin on package wrappers

Back 351

1 inch or more

Front 352

When opening a wrapper, the circulator should open the top flap

Back 352

away from self

Front 353

When the scrub nurse opens an inner sterile wrapper

Back 353

the side nearest the body is opened first

Front 354

When flipping a sterile item onto the field, the circulator may

Back 354

project item without reaching over the sterile field

Front 355

The room temperature in an operating room OR should

Back 355

between 68 and 76F

Front 356

If an OR staff member wears eyeglasses

Back 356

the glasses should be wiped with an antiseptic solution before each operation

Front 357

Each statement regarding OR attire is true EXCEPT
a. lab coats worn out of the OR suite should be clean, closed, and knee length
b. scrub suits are always changed upon re-entry to the OR suite
c. scrub suits may be worn out of the OR uncovered, if they are changed upon OR re-entry
d. nonprofessional personnel and visitors must wear approved attire in the OR

Back 357

c. is false

Front 358

The most effective protection from the radiation of x-rays is a

Back 358

lead apron

Front 359

It is considered good technique to

Back 359

handle the mask only by the strings

Front 360

Sterile gloves

Back 360

should be wiped off after donning to remove lubricant

Front 361

Electrical cords should be

Back 361

removed from pathways so equipment is not rolloed over them

Front 362

Scatter radiation effects are directly related to

Back 362

amount of radiation and length of exposure time

Front 363

When using a patient roller, how many people are necessary to move the patient safely and efficiently?

Back 363

4

Front 364

When moving the patient from the OR table, who is responsible for guarding the head and neck from injury?

Back 364

anesthesiologist

Front 365

To move the patient from the transport stretcher to the OR table

Back 365

one person stands next to the stretcher, one adjacent to the OR table, while the patient moves over

Front 366

When moving a patient with a fx in the OR, all of the following are true EXCEPT
a. extra personnel are necessary
b. support of the extremity should always be from below the site of fracture
c. lifters on the affected side support the fx
d. the surgeon should be present

Back 366

b. is false, because, fx should be supported from both above and below the fx site when moving the patient

Front 367

The safety strap is ____ inches above the knee, not too tight but secure

Back 367

2 inches

Front 368

A patient with a fractured femur is being moved to the OR table. Who is responsible for supporting and protecting the fx site?

Back 368

The physician

Front 369

Crossing the patient's arms across his or her chest may cause

Back 369

interference with respiration

Front 370

A precaution always taken when the patient is in the supine position is to

Back 370

protect the heels from pressure on the OR table

Front 371

During lateral positioning, a

Back 371

pillow is placed between the legs

Front 372

To prevent strain to the lumbosacral muscles and ligaments when the patient is in the lithotomy position

Back 372

The buttocks must not extend beyong the table edge

Front 373

The lithotomy position requires each of the following

Back 373

1. Legs raised simultaneously by two people who grasp the sole of a foot in one hand and support the knee area with the other
2. sturrups must be of equal height and approprate for the size of the patient's leg
3. patient's buttocks rest along the break between the body and leg sections of the table

Front 374

All off the following are requirements of the Kraske position

Back 374

1. patient is prone with hips over the break of the table
2. a pillow is placed under lower lefs and ankles
3. a padded knee strap is applied 2 inches above the knees
4. table is flexed to acute angle and small rolled towel is under each shoulder

Front 375

When using an armboard, the most important measure is to

Back 375

avoid hyperextension of the arm

Front 376

Anesthetized patients should be moved slowly to

Back 376

allow the circulatory system to adjust

Front 377

If the patient is in a supine position, the circulator must always

Back 377

see the that ankles and legs are not crossed

Front 378

Extreme positions of the head and arm can cause injury to the

Back 378

brachial plexus

Front 379

Ulnar nerve damage could result from

Back 379

placing an arm on an unpadded table egde

Front 380

In the prone position, the thorax must be elevated from the OR table to prevent

Back 380

compromised respiration

Front 381

The anesthesiologist closes the eyelids of a general anesthetic patient for all of the following reasons

Back 381

1. prevent drying of the eye
2. prevent eye trauma
3. protect the eye from anesthetic agents
- they may remain open if protected with opthalmic ointment

Front 382

Diastolic blood pressure refers to

Back 382

the relaxation phase between heartbeats

Front 383

Systolic blood pressure represents

Back 383

the greatest force caused by contraction of the left ventricle of the heart

Front 384

Tachycardia is a

Back 384

heartbeat over 100 beats per minute

Front 385

The most common artery used to feel the pulse is the

Back 385

radial artery

Front 386

The body temp in 98.6F, what is it in Celsuis?

Back 386

37C

Front 387

Which term indicated low or decreased blood volume?

Back 387

hypovolemia

Front 388

If the surgeon wants to assess the patient's ability to void voluntarily via the urethra, yet sees the need for urinary drainage, he could use a

Back 388

Bonanno suprapublic catheter

Front 389

When catheterizing a patient

Back 389

the tip of the catheter must be kept sterile

Front 390

In which burn classification are the skin and subcutaneous tissue destroyed?

Back 390

third

Front 391

Uncontrolled increased positive pressure in one side of the thorax causes collapse of the opposite side, which is called

Back 391

mediastinal shift

Front 392

Why is the obese patient at greater surgical risk than one of normal weight?

Back 392

because fat has poor vascularity

Front 393

The patient has received preop meds. The action to be taken when this patient complains of dry mouth and request water would be to

Back 393

restrict fluids completely and explain the reason for action of medication

Front 394

When drawing a blood sample for arterial blood gases (ABGs), what is considered a safe time lapse between blood drawing and analysis?

Back 394

10 minutes

Front 395

A patient is on anticoagulant drugs. Which of the following tests may be done to check the clotting time of his or her blood?

Back 395

prothrombin time

Front 396

The preoperative UA done on a patient indicates that the specific gravity is 1.050. This is

Back 396

above normal range and he or she is dehydrated

Front 397

A type and crossmatch is done

Back 397

if the surgeon anticipates in advance of the operation that blood loss replacement may be necessary

Front 398

A patient scheduled for surgery has a hematocrit reading of 40% of whole blood volume. This is

Back 398

within normal range

Front 399

Inherited deficiencies of coagulation in which bleeding occurs spontaneously after minor trauma is

Back 399

hemophilia

Front 400

Preoperative chest x-rays

Back 400

should be done on all surgical patients

Front 401

An electrocardiogram is

Back 401

an electrical recording of heart activity

Front 402

After being scheduled in the OR for a routine tonsilectomy, the nurse checking the chart of a patient notes that the hemoglobin is 9.0g. This reading is

Back 402

below te normal range

Front 403

A microscopic blood exam that estimates the percentages of each type of white cell is called a

Back 403

differential blood count

Front 404

Which procedure is NOT absolutely necessary in patient identification?

Back 404

identification by the scrub before the procedure begins

Front 405

Operative records documenting all aspects of perioperative care are required by

Back 405

JCHO

Front 406

Except for endotracheal tube installation, basic life support cannot be interrupted for more than

Back 406

5 seconds (and CPR should not be suspended for more than 30 seconds)

Front 407

External cardiac compression

Back 407

provides oxygen to vital tissues

Front 408

During intraoperative CPR effort the scrub's role is to

Back 408

remain sterile, keep track of counted items, and assist as necessary

Front 409

A patient was burned on the lip with a hot mouth gag. Which of the following actions would have prevented this incident?

Back 409

the scrub nurse cooled the itme in a basin with sterile water

Front 410

A patient signs a permission form for surgery, but because of a language barrier he or she does not fully understand what she or he has signed. This could constitute a liability case for

Back 410

assault and battery

Front 411

If a patient falls because he or she was left unattended, the OR team member could be cited in a lawsuit for

Back 411

abandonment

Front 412

Which is NOT considered a safe procedure when caring for dentures inadvertently sent to the OR?

Back 412

wraping in a plastic bad and atch to the patient's chart

Front 413

A lack of care or skill that any nurse or technician in the same situation would be expected to use is the legal definition of

Back 413

negligence

Front 414

The lefal doctrine that mandates every professional nurse and technician to carry out their duties according to national standards of care practiced throughout the country is the

Back 414

doctrine of Reasonable Man

Front 415

The doctrine of Respondeat Superior refers to

Back 415

employer liability for employee's negligent conduct

Front 416

Liability is a legal rule that

Back 416

holds each individual responsible for his or her own acts

Front 417

A criteria that identifies, measures, monitors, and evaluates patient care is

Back 417

quality assurane programs

Front 418

Each of the following applies to an incident report EXCEPT:
a. notation is made on the patient's OR record
b. statement should be factual and non-interpretive
c. description includes action taken
d. details are complete and accurate

Back 418

a. is false bc you would NOT make a record on the chart

Front 419

In which way could a patient's response to impending surgery exhibit itself?

Back 419

tension, axiety, fear, suspicion, anger and hostility

Front 420

Excessive exposure to radiation can affect the

Back 420

reproductive organs

Front 421

Radiation exposure of the staff is monitored with

Back 421

film badges

Front 422

Ionizing radiation protection is afforded by the use of

Back 422

lead

Front 423

A potential safety hazard associated with laster sugery is

Back 423

eye injury

Front 424

An OR hazard that has been linked to incrased risk of spontaneous abortion is female OR employees is exposure to

Back 424

waste anesthetic gas

Front 425

Which virus can be trasmitted by a needle puncture or splash in the eye

Back 425

Hep B

Front 426

While usuing this mixture, a scavenging system is used to collect and exhaust or absorb its vapors. It is called

Back 426

methyl methacrylate