Cst Certification Review Multiple Choice Test 2

Front 1

Following each surgical case, the post-operative clean-up procedures include which of the following activities:

a. the floor is mopped with detergent germicide, and the mop head and solution are changed every two hours.
b. the walls are washed with a detergent germicide.
c the gown and gloves are removed after the instruments have been taken down the hall to the decontamination area.
d. the sharps are placed in a puncture-proof container.

Back 1

d. the sharps are placed in a puncture-proof container.

Front 2

When supplies are prepared for steam sterilization, the maximum size and weight of a linen pack are :

a. 12x12x20 inches; 12 pounds.
b. 12x20x20 inches; 12 pounds.
c. 12x12x20 inches; 16 pounds.
d. 12x20x20 inches; 16 pounds.

Back 2

b. 12x20x20 inches; 12 pounds

Front 3

Which of the following electrical energy concepts is measured in amps?

a. voltage
b. amperes
c. frequency
d. power

Back 3

b. amperes

Front 4

Which of the following correctly describes a type of fracture?

a. A compound fracture is the same as an open fracture and occurs when the bone protrudes through the skin.
b. A comminuted fracture occurs when one bone fragment is driven into another.
c. A greenstick fracture is most common in the elderly.
d. A simple fracture occurs when the bone is splintered or crushed.

Back 4

a. A compound fracture is the same as an open fracture and occurs when the bone protrudes through the skin.

Front 5

Bacteria are classified by shape. Which of the following is true about the shape of bacteria?

a. spirilla are rod-shaped
b. cocci are spherical in shape
c. spores are spiral-shaped
d. bacilli are round

Back 5

b. cocci are spherical in shape

Front 6

Wounds can heal in three ways. Which correctly describes healing by third intention?

a. clean wound, no infection, primary closure
b. excessive tissue loss, bacterial contamination, wound which has been left open to heal from the bottom up
c. thin, hair-line scar, strong union
d. wound which has been left open due to infection, brought back to surgery for secondary closure, and two surfaces of granulation tissue are approximated

Back 6

d. wound which has been left open due to infection, brought back to surgery for secondary closure, and two surfaces of granulation tissue are approximated

Front 7

Who was known for his gentle tissue handling practices, his silk suturing technique, and the introduction of rubber gloves to the operating environment?

a. Anton van Leeuwenhoek
b. William Halstead
c. Joseph Lister
d. Alexander Fleming

Back 7

b. William Halstead

Front 8

Which of the following is a plasma expander and is used as artificial plasma when blood is not yet available?

a. Lactated Ringer’s solution
b. hyperalimentation solution
c. D5W
d. Dextran

Back 8

d. Dextran

Front 9

Which of the following local anesthetic agents is for topical use only and is not injected?

a. mepivicaine hydrochloride (Carbocaine)
b. lidocaine hydrochloride (Xylocaine)
c. cocaine hydrochloride (Cocaine)
d. bupivicaine hydrochloride (Marcaine)

Back 9

c. cocaine hydrochloride (Cocaine)

Front 10

Cerebrospinal fluid is formed in the:

a. choroid plexus.
b. thalamus.
c. canal of Schlemn.
d. glomerulus.

Back 10

a. choroid plexus.

Front 11

A primagravida is a/an:

a. woman who has delivered one child.
b. woman in her first pregnancy.
c. woman who has many children.
d. person with one kidney.

Back 11

b. woman in her first pregnancy.

Front 12

Which of the following anesthetic agents is given intravenously and is used for a quick induction?

a. Atracurium (Tracrium)
b. isoflurane (Forane)
c. propofol (Diprivan)
d. succinylcholine (Anectine)

Back 12

c. propofol (Diprivan)

Front 13

Which of the following sutures would be used to make tonsil knots and to suture the subcutaneous layer?

a. Chromic gut
b. PDS
c. Plain gut
d. Ti-cron

Back 13

c. Plain gut

Front 14

Excessive scar formation is known as a/an:

a. dead space
b. cicatrix
c. adhesion
d. keloid

Back 14

d. keloid

Front 15

Which of the following is a sponge used on delicate tissue such as the brain and mucous membranes?

a. pledget
b. cottonoid
c. kitner
d. peanut

Back 15

b. cottonoid

Front 16

When using a pneumatic tourniquet, all of the following precautions are taken except which one?

a. Tourniquet inflation pressure depends on the patient’s age, systolic blood pressure, width of the tourniquet, and circumference of the limb.

b. Wrinkle-free padding such as webril should be applied to the area where the tourniquet will be located.

c. With the extremity elevated, an Esmarch bandage may be applied from proximal to distal to esanguinate the limb prior to tourniquet inflation.

d. Tourniquet time should be kept to a minimum and the surgeon should be notified at intervals; generally the time should not exceed 1-1/2 hours.

Back 16

c. With the extremity elevated, an Esmarch bandage may be applied from proximal to distal to esanguinate the limb prior to tourniquet inflation.

Front 17

Which of the following is not a sign of inflammation?

a. swelling
b. redness
c. proliferation
d. heat

Back 17

c. proliferation

Front 18

Which surgical position involves lowering the head of the table, which improves visualization of pelvic structures?

a. Reverse Trendelenburg
b. Fowler
c. Trendelenburg
d. Kraske

Back 18

c. Trendelenburg

Front 19

Which of the concepts of electrosurgery (ESU) electrical energy flow is correct?

a. During the use of bipolar electrical energy, the energy passes through the tissue and returns through the same instrument used to deliver the current.
b. The use of bipolar energy may result in alternate site burns.
c. Remote electrode monitoring (REM) is associated with the use of bipolar electrical energy.
d. The use of bipolar energy flow requires the use of a return electrode pad.

Back 19

a. During the use of bipolar electrical energy, the energy passes through the tissue and returns through the same instrument used to deliver the current.

Front 20

An electrical fire should be extinguished with which type of extinguisher?

a. Class B
b. Class A
c. Class D
d. Class C

Back 20

d. Class C

Front 21

Which of the following drugs is an osmotic diuretic used during a craniotomy to reduce cerebral edema?

a. diatrizoate sodium (Renografin)
b. norepinephrine (Levophed)
c. mannitol (Osmitrol)
d. methylergovine (Methergine)

Back 21

c. mannitol (Osmitrol)

Front 22

During a Suprapubic Prostatectomy, the surgeon uses what to enucleate the prostate gland?

a. resectoscope
b. Ferguson scoop
c. Mason-Judd
d. the surgeon’s finger

Back 22

d. the surgeon’s finger

Front 23

The instrument pictured is a:

a. self-retaining O’Sullivan-O’Connor retractor with bladder blade.
b. manual Bozeman retractor.
c. manual Gelpi retractor.
d. self-retaining Balfour retractor with bladder blade.

Back 23

d. self-retaining Balfour retractor with bladder blade.

Front 24

A Transphenoidal Hypophysectomy is the surgical removal of which structure?

a. corpus callosum
b. nucleus pulposus
c. sphenoid sinus
d. pituitary gland

Back 24

d. pituitary gland

Front 25

Which of the following is not good aseptic technique?

a. Unscrubbed persons approach a sterile field facing it and do not walk between two sterile areas.
b. The sterile field should be prepared as closely as possible to the scheduled time of use and should not be covered.
c. Scrubbed persons should avoid changing levels and should be seated only when the entire surgical procedure will be performed at this level.
d. Sterile persons may grasp the edge of the draped back table to move it into position.

Back 25

d. Sterile persons may grasp the edge of the draped back table to move it into position.

Front 26

The surgical scrub should:

a. be a timed procedure rather than a count of the number of stokes.
b. include the subungual area, which should be cleaned with a nail cleaner under running water.
c. start at two inches above the elbows and extend to the fingertips.
d. include a preliminary wash that is performed to remove all resident flora.

Back 26

b. include the subungual area, which should be cleaned with a nail cleaner under running water.

Front 27

If the autoclave temperature reads 270 degrees F, what is the pressure?

a. 27-30 psi
b. 12-14 psi
c. 35-38 psi
d. 15-17 psi

Back 27

a. 27-30 psi

Front 28

Requirements for an individual operating room include all of the following except:

a. built-in systems of oxygen from a blue hose and nitrous oxide from a green hose.
b. adjustable lights connected to an emergency system.
c. seamless, nonporous walls and ceilings.
d. x-ray view box.

Back 28

a. built-in systems of oxygen from a blue hose and nitrous oxide from a green hose.

Front 29

Which of the following drugs is an enzyme added to a local anesthetic to enhance infiltration?

a. tropicanamide (Mydriacyl)
b. naloxone (Narcan)
c. Hyaluronidase (Wydase)
d. Vitamin K (Mephyton

Back 29

c. Hyaluronidase (Wydase)

Front 30

Osteomalacia means:

a. painful bones.
b. an abnormal softening of bone.
c. an x-ray of a bone.
d. enlargement of the ear.

Back 30

b. an abnormal softening of bone.

Front 31

Which of the following is the name of the incision made to perform an Appendectomy?

a. paramedian, made in the left upper quadrant
b. McBurney, made in the right lower quadrant
c. Kocher, made in the right lower quadrant
d. lower oblique, made in the left lower quadrant

Back 31

b. McBurney, made in the right lower quadrant

Front 32

The sterilizing agent that is limited to commercial sterilization of supplies is:

a. paracetic acid.
b. glutaraldehyde.
c. cobalt 60.
d. hydrogen peroxide.

Back 32

c. cobalt 60.

Front 33

A nosocomial infection is one which:

a. occurred in the nasopharynx.
b. developed from endogenous flora.
c. occurred socially.
d. occurred as a result of being in a hospital or health care facility.

Back 33

d. occurred as a result of being in a hospital or health care facility.

Front 34

The electrical energy device that uses a stream of argon gas to deliver the electrical current to the target tissues using a “no-touch” technique is the:

a. Electrosurgical generator (ESU).
b. argon-enhanced coagulator.
c. Harmonic Scalpel®.
d. LigaSure™.

Back 34

b. argon-enhanced coagulator.

Front 35

When a patient is placed in the prone position, he or she is log-rolled onto chest rolls with the weight born by the:

a. scapula and olecranon process.
b. symphysis pubis and sternum.
c. clavicle and symphysis pubis.
d. iliac crest and acromion process.

Back 35

d. iliac crest and acromion process.

Front 36

Prior to performing a cervical biopsy, the surgeon may paint the cervix with which of the following solutions?

a. Lugol’s solution
b. Hypaque
c. Gentian violet
d. Indigo carmine

Back 36

a. Lugol’s solution

Front 37

All of the following are neuromuscular blocking agents except:

a. Pavulon.
b. Narcan.
c. Norcuron.
d. Anectine.

Back 37

b. Narcan.

Front 38

If the surgeon ordered tetracaine (Pontocaine) two gtts OU stat, the circulator would give:

a. two drops in the right eye immediately.
b. two drops in both eyes immediately.
c. two drams in the left eye now.
d. two grains in the left eye now.

Back 38

b. two drops in both eyes immediately.

Front 39

Following the surgical case, instruments may be cleaned in a machine that uses high-frequency sound waves to dislodge debris by the process of cavitation. This cleaning device is the:

a. ultrasonic cleaner.
b. washer sterilizer.
c. Sterad.
d. Sterris.

Back 39

a. ultrasonic cleaner.

Front 40

A test performed daily on the pre-vacuum sterilizer to ensure complete removal of air is called the:

a. Pneumokit test.
b. Papanicolaou test.
c. Bowie Dick test.
d. Schiller’s test.

Back 40

c. Bowie Dick test.

Front 41

A Meckel’s diverticulum is located at the:

a. proximal jejunum.
b. distal ilium.
c. distal ileum.
d. distal colon.

Back 41

b. distal ilium.

Front 42

A Colles’ fracture is of the:

a. lateral malleolus.
b. distal radius.
c. distal ulna.
d. medial malleolus.

Back 42

b. distal radius

Front 43

Which of the following is a correct procedure when working with a plaster cast?

a. Separated fingers, instead of the palm of the hand, are used when holding the casted extremity as the plaster is drying.
b. Hot water is used to slow down the time it takes for the cast to harden.
c. The plaster roll should be removed from the bucket of water when the bubbles cease.
d. Plaster rolls should be prepared at least ten minutes prior to their use.

Back 43

c. The plaster roll should be removed from the bucket of water when the bubbles cease.

Front 44

Anita M. age 72, is scheduled for a Total Hip Replacement.
What is the most common reason for performing this procedure?

a. osteomyelitis.
b. osteomalacia.
c. osteoarthritis.
d. osteochondroma.

Back 44

c. osteoarthritis.

Front 45

Anita M. age 72, is scheduled for a Total Hip Replacement.
What is another name for this procedure?

a. arthocentesis
b. arthrodesis
c. McBride procedure
d. arthroplasty

Back 45

d. arthroplasty

Front 46

Anita M. age 72, is scheduled for a Total Hip Replacement.
Anita would be placed in which of the following positions?

a. Kraske
b. Jackknife
c. supine on the fracture table
d. lateral

Back 46

d. lateral

Front 47

Anita M. age 72, is scheduled for a Total Hip Replacement.
Which of the following draping materials would not be used on this case?

a. U drape
b. coban
c. stockinette
d. extremity sheet

Back 47

d. extremity sheet

Front 48

Anita M. age 72, is scheduled for a Total Hip Replacement.
All of the following instruments and supplies may be used except:

a. cement gun.
b. Charnley retractor.
c. polymethylmethacrylate.
d. Kerrison rongeur.

Back 48

d. Kerrison rongeur.

Front 49

Anita M. age 72, is scheduled for a Total Hip Replacement.
Post-operatively, what would be used to immobilize the joint?

a. plaster cast
b. traction
c. abduction pillow
d. adduction pillow

Back 49

c. abduction pillow