Csn Pharm Exam 1

Front 1

Any drug approved for prescription will be found in the ______

Back 1

National Formulary

Front 2

Pregnant women used a medication that was effective for the women but harmful to the fetus, in response to this FDA tightened control over investigational drugs and pregnancy safety categories developed under all under which amendment?

Back 2

Kefauver-Harris Amendment

Front 3

Prescription and OTC drugs must follow the standards found in this publication.

Back 3

The US Pharmacopeia

Front 4

A drug company claimed their antidepressant drug will also help you lose 30 lbs in a month, which isn't true. The company is violating which amendment?

Back 4

Sherley Amendment

Front 5

A person is studying the effects of chemical substances on living tissues. This person is studying _____

Back 5

pharmacology

Front 6

An elderly women is now able to afford her medications under this act

Back 6

Medicare Prescription Drug Improvement and Modernization Act
(Medicare Part D)

Front 7

This amendment distinguished between prescription (legend) and OTC drugs. It also allowed only licensed pharmacist to dispense prescription drugs.

Back 7

Durham- Humphrey Amendment

Front 8

A man in China attempts to send opium, cocaine and substances containing their derivatives to the US. He is prevented from doing so because of what act?

Back 8

The Harrison Narcotic Act; it also defined the legal term narcotic

Front 9

Chemical substances classified as drugs can be derived from _______

Back 9

organic compounds, such as plants or animals, and inorganic compounds, such as minerals.

Front 10

Heroin is a schedule 1 drug, which are considered the most dangerous and illegal. the development of "schedule" categories and programs to prevent and treat drug abuse was established in this act ____

Back 10

The Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act

Front 11

Health care insurance coverage is more accessible and affordable under this act

Back 11

Comprehensive Health Care Reform Act

Front 12

A pharmaceutical company is developing a drug to treat the rare Addison's disease. This company will receive a tax credit under which act?

Back 12

The Orphan Drug Act

Front 13

Some drugs are formulated through ___________

Back 13

genetic engineering or are synthetically produced

Front 14

A drug company wants to begin marketing a new drug, what type of application must they submit and to whom?

Back 14

Investigational New Drug (IND) application to the FDA

Front 15

A patient wants to review her medical records and the health facility must allow her to under this act

Back 15

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

Front 16

Workers and their families are allowed to maintain their health insurance coverage after job lost, at their own expense under this act

Back 16

The Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA)

Front 17

Which agency of the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services regulates drugs in the U.S.?

Back 17

The Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

Front 18

Drug companies must submit IND and conduct toxicity test in lab animals before marketing new drugs under what act?

Back 18

Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act

Front 19

A drug is recalled from pharmacies and a new drug is approved, who is empowered to make these decisions?

Back 19

FDA

Front 20

I bought a bottle of cold medicine and it was wrapped in thick plastic and i couldnt open the lid, i can thank which requirement for this?

Back 20

The Tamper Proof Packaging Requirement

Front 21

Claritin is the trade name for Loratadine. Claritin's patent expired in 2002 and other companies were able to market loratadine under other trade names because of this law

Back 21

The Generic Drug Law

Front 22

Plan B was a medication that required a prescription, now it is available over the counter. Who is responsible for determining this drug can change from prescription status to OTC?

Back 22

FDA

Front 23

A patient receives a prescription for a controlled substance, there are no refills on this prescription because of what amendment?

Back 23

Durham- Humphrey Amendment

Front 24

A company is developing a drug to prevent AIDS, a major public threat, the review process will be accelerated under this act

Back 24

The Drug Relations Act

Front 25

In the early 1900s, a man was arrested for selling a bottle of salt water labeled antibiotics. Which act allowed for this man to be arrested?

Back 25

The Federal Food and Drug Act

Front 26

Certain drugs must be tested for safety and effectiveness in children under this act

Back 26

The Pediatric Research Equality Act

Front 27

Pre-clinical trials done by pharmaceutical companies are done in/on _______-

Back 27

test tubes and animals

Front 28

Pharmaceutical companies must demonstrate that a new drug has some advantage over __________

Back 28

similar drugs already on the market

Front 29

When lab studies are completed, the info must be submitted to ___________

Back 29

FDA

Front 30

To begin testing on humans, the company must be granted an ________--

Back 30

investigational new drug exemption

Front 31

A company gives a small number of healthy volunteers and the biological effects of the drug in humans and dosage ranges are determined. This takes place in which phase of the clinical trials?

Back 31

Phase 1

Front 32

A company gives a small number number of volunteers who have the disorder the drug is intended to treat. Data is gathered on the drug's efficacy and adverse effects. This takes place in which phase of the clinical trials?

Back 32

Phase 2

Front 33

A pharmaceutical company prescribes an investigational drug to a large number of patients who has the disorder the drug is intended to treat. This takes place in which phase of clinical trials?

Back 33

Phase 3

Front 34

In what phase of clinical trials does the company submit a new drug application (NDA) ?

Back 34

Phase 3

Front 35

Once a new drug enters the market and is taken by a large number of people and companies receive feedback from physicians, patients, nurses, etc. the drug has entered which phase?

Back 35

Phase 4

Front 36

What are some factors that led to ethical issues surrounding clinical trials?

Back 36

1. fewer americans are volunteering
2. companies incur large research and developmental cost
3. FDA imposes rigid regulations

Front 37

Drugs are given 3 names. The name related to the chemical structure of the girl is the ________ name

Back 37

Chemical

Front 38

The name assigned to the drug when the pharmaceutical company applies for the approval process is the __________ name,

Back 38

Generic

Front 39

The name selected by the pharmaceutical company for a drug is the ______.

Back 39

Brand name

Front 40

Mr. Jones orders his meds online because they are much cheaper, however, he's at risk for receiving ________ drugs.

Back 40

counterfeit

Front 41

A reputable on-line pharmacy will show the seal ______.

Back 41

VIPPS Verified Internet Pharmacy Practice Site

Front 42

The American Nurses Association Code of Ethics for Nurses states a nurse's responsibility is _____

Back 42

do no harm to others
don't give harmful medication
administer medication safely and ethicly

Front 43

These are written to protect the residents of the state by maintaining minimum safe standards for nursing.

Back 43

Nurse practice acts

Front 44

true or false
University Hospital policies requires bed ridden patients to be turned every 3 hours. State nurse practice acts requires bed ridden patients to be turned every 2 hours. All agencies have legal policies.

Back 44

False.
The agency (University Hospital) can not have broader policies then the nurse practice act. Patients must at LEAST be turned every 2 hours.

Front 45

What is required for a valid order?

Back 45

patient's name
time/date order is written
name or drug
dosage
route
frequency
signature of person writing order

Front 46

What is a nurse responsible for knowing about a drug s/he will administer?

Back 46

purpose, therapeutic effects, and possible adverse effects
alert to drug-drug and food-drug interactions

Front 47

What code defines moral, ethical and legal concepts and sets guidelines for conducting scientific research on human studies?

Back 47

The Nuremberg Code

Front 48

This board is required to approve and monitor human experimentation at institutions conducting research.

Back 48

Institutional Review Board

Front 49

bid

Back 49

twice a day

Front 50

tid

Back 50

three times a day

Front 51

qid

Back 51

4 times a day

Front 52

qh

Back 52

every hour

Front 53

q 2 h

Back 53

every 2 hours

Front 54

prn

Back 54

as needed

Front 55

stat

Back 55

immediately

Front 56

ac

Back 56

before meals

Front 57

pc

Back 57

after meals

Front 58

c

Back 58

with

Front 59

s

Back 59

without

Front 60

IVP

Back 60

intravenous push

Front 61

IVPB

Back 61

intravenous piggy-back

Front 62

PO

Back 62

BY MOUTH

Front 63

NPO

Back 63

nothing by mouth

Front 64

SQ

Back 64

subcutaneous

Front 65

SL

Back 65

sublingual

Front 66

R

Back 66

rectal

Front 67

NGT

Back 67

naso-gastric tube

Front 68

A drug administered through NG tube is disintegrated and dissolved by fluids in the stomach and small intestine. This drug is in which phase of drug activity?

Back 68

pharmaceutical phase

(only drugs administered through the GI tract experience this phase)

Front 69

The movement of a drug from the site of entry into the body's blood strem is called _____

Back 69

absorption

Front 70

The movement of a drug from the blood stream into the interstitial space and into the cell is called ______.

Back 70

distribution

Front 71

the movement of a drug through absorption and distribution is found in which phase of drug activity?

Back 71

pharmacokinetic

Front 72

the bio-chemical actions of drugs and the physiological responses to drugs is found in which phase of drug activity?

Back 72

pharmacodynamic

Front 73

when a drug goes through metabolism and excretion it it in which phase of drug activity?

Back 73

pharmacokinetic

Front 74

A tablet or capsule that have properties that allow rapid or slow disintegration and dissolution (ex. enteric coating) affect which phase of drug activity?

Back 74

pharmaceutical phase

Front 75

the low pH found in the stomach will affect which phase of drug activity?

Back 75

pharmaceutical phase

Front 76

A capsule may stick to the tongue of an elderly, debilitated, or confused patient and this will affect which phase of drug activity?

Back 76

pharmaceutical phase

Front 77

The percentage of the drug dosage that reaches the systemic circulation is called __________

Back 77

bioavailability

Front 78

What factors effect bioavailability?

Back 78

route of administration
degree of first pass effect
degree of second pass effect

Front 79

True or Flase
IV drug administration provides the greatest bioavailability?

Back 79

True because it is delivered directly into the bloodstream

Front 80

True or False
Oral drugs provides the greatest bioavailability?

Back 80

False there are many factors that can affect the drug in the GI tract.

Front 81

A drug that passes from the intestinal lumen to the liver and is partially inactivated before reaching the systemic circulation. This is called ____

Back 81

first pass effect

Front 82

This occurs when the liver excretes unmetabolized drug into the bile and the gut reabsorbs it.

Back 82

second pass effect

Front 83

A drugs rate of absorption will effect which phase of drug activity?

Back 83

pharmacokinetic phase

Front 84

A decrease in the number of mucosal microvilli in the small intestine will effect which phase of drug activity?

Back 84

pharmacokinetic phase

Front 85

Gastric motility, how fast or slow a drug moves a drug moves from the stomach to the small intestine effects which phase of drug activity?

Back 85

pharmacokinetic phase

Front 86

The presence or absence of food will effect which phase of drug activity?

Back 86

pharmacokinetic phase

Front 87

Certain foods and drugs affect a drugs rate of absorption, which in turn effect which phase of drug activity?

Back 87

pharmacokinetic phase

Front 88

Poor circulation of blood delays distribution of drug and affects which phase of drug activity?

Back 88

pharmacokinetic phase

Front 89

The amount of drug that is bound to protein is _______ while the amount of free drug is _______.

Back 89

inactive

active

Front 90

A large amount of circulating free drug could result in _______.

Back 90

toxicity

Front 91

Malnutrition can cause low levels of plasma proteins. This reduces the number of plasma protein binding sites which results in _____

Back 91

increased amounts of free drug and toxicity can occur

Front 92

A person with liver disease has a decreased ability to metabolize drugs and this will affect which phase of drug activity?

Back 92

pharmacokinetic phase

Front 93

The time it takes for one half of a drugs concentration to be eliminated is ____

Back 93

the half length

Front 94

The length of a drug's half life can affect which phase of drug activity?

Back 94

pharmacokinetic phase

Front 95

Renal disease impairs the kidneys from excreting the metabolized drug. This affects which phase of drug activity?

Back 95

pharmacokinetic phase

Front 96

The greater the fit between the drug and the receptor site, the more effective the drug and the fewer side effects or adverse reactions. This affects which phase of drug activity?

Back 96

pharamcodynamic phase

Front 97

Some drugs cause an enzyme to to bind with the drug instead of its target cells, therefore inhibiting the action of that specific enzyme, This can affect which phase of drug activity?

Back 97

pharamcodynamic phase

Front 98

The use of multiple medications by one patient is called _______

Back 98

polypharmacy

Front 99

How can polypharmacy affect drug therapy?

Back 99

Many different drugs can cause drug-drug interactions and can increase or decrease actions of drug

Front 100

Drugs have a range of minimum to maximum doses that will exert a therapeutic response, this is called

Back 100

Dose response or dosage range

Front 101

A dose that is too small is _______ and a dose that is too large can be _____. Both affect drug therapy.

Back 101

subtherapeutic

toxic

Front 102

Evidence that a drug is exerting a therapeutic response is called ______

Back 102

efficacy

Front 103

Over time larger doses of a drug is needed to achieve the same effect because of excess drug metabolizing enzymes and/or decreased sensitivity at receptor sites is called _____

Back 103

Tolerance

Front 104

What weight is targeted for the recommended dosage of a drug?

Back 104

150 lbs

Front 105

How does age affect drug therapy?

Back 105

Children and elderly patients usually require smaller dosages of drugs.

Front 106

True or False
Gender is not a factor that affects drug therapy.

Back 106

False Women and me respond differently to many drugs

Front 107

Differences in genetic makeup can cause varied responses to drugs and affects drug therapy. This is also termed ________.

Back 107

pharmacogenetics

Front 108

Drug therapy is affected by a person's knowledge of a drug and attitude toward taking the drug, which is also termed _____.

Back 108

psycho-social factors

Front 109

A drug is more effective when administered at night this is referred as _____.

Back 109

diurnal response

Front 110

Drug therapy is affected by the time it takes the drug to reach the minimum effective concentration, which is termed _____.

Back 110

onset of action

Front 111

When the drug reaches the highest level of concentration is called ______.

Back 111

Peak Action

Front 112

The length of time a drug has a pharmacological effect or how long the drug works is called _____.

Back 112

Duration of action

Front 113

The ratio between the effective dose and the lethal dose is called _____.

Back 113

therapeutic index

Front 114

The ratio between the minimum effective concentration and the minimum toxic concentration is called _____.

Back 114

therapeutic range

Front 115

The peak level indicates the rate of _____.

Back 115

absorption

Front 116

The trough levels indicates the rate of ______.

Back 116

excretion

Front 117

The half-life of a drug determines the _____.

Back 117

dosing intervals

Front 118

A large initial dose that is given to quickly achieve a therapeutic blood level of a drug is called _______.

Back 118

loading dose

Front 119

When a drug effects undesired receptors is called _____.

Back 119

side effects

Front 120

A physiological response that is harmful to the body and can be potentially life-threatening is called _____.

Back 120

adverse reaction

Front 121

An unexpected response from a drug is called _____.

Back 121

Idiosyncratic response

Front 122

Drugs may accumulate in drug "reservoirs" such as bone, adipose tissue and the liver resulting in a greater than desired pharmacological effect is called _____.

Back 122

cumulation

Front 123

When two or more drugs with similar actions are given simultaneously to increase the pharmacological effect is called _____.

Back 123

summation

Front 124

When two or more drugs with dissimilar actions are given simultaneously to create a pharmacological effect that is greater than if the drugs were given independently is called

Back 124

potentiation

Front 125

A indication that a particular drug should not be given is called ______.

Back 125

contraindication

Front 126

When a patient deviates from the therapeutic regimen due to factors as lack of knowledge, lack of commitment or environmental factors is called _____.

Back 126

non-adherance/ non-compliance

Front 127

An unfavorable event resulting from therapeutic interventions is called ______.

Back 127

iatrogenic effect

Front 128

Iatrogenic effects such as nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, gastric mucosal irritation and stomatitis are examples of ________.

Back 128

gastro-intestinal effects

Front 129

iatrogenic effect of decreased red and/or white blood cells (blood dyscrasias) is called _______.

Back 129

hematologic effect

Front 130

Monitor for increase in liver enzymes such as AST, ALP, and ALT in which iatrogenic effect?

Back 130

hepatotoxicity (liver failure)

Front 131

Monitor for increase in the blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and the serum creatinine in which iatrogenic effect?

Back 131

nephrotoxicity (kidney failure)

Front 132

Iatrogenic effects such as weight gain, hyperglycemia, fluid and electrolyte imbalances is called ______.

Back 132

metabolic effects

Front 133

Iatrogenic effects such as rashes, itching, changes in pigmentation is called ______.

Back 133

dermatologic effects

Front 134

iatrogenic effect such as increased reaction of the skin to the sun is called _____

Back 134

photosensitivity

Front 135

Iatrogenic effects such as sedation, agitation, psychosis is called _______.

Back 135

behavioral effect

Front 136

an iatrogenic effect capable if causing cell mutation leading to carcinoma (cancer) is called ______.

Back 136

carcinogenic effect

Front 137

iatrogenic effects that cause developmental disorders in the fetus is called _____.

Back 137

teratogenic effect

Front 138

In this category there is no evidence of risk to the human fetus

Back 138

category A

Front 139

In this category there are little to no risk to the fetus

Back 139

category B

Front 140

In this category animal studies show an adverse effect on the fetus but no human studies have been done. Potential benefits to the mother may outweigh the potential risk to the fetus

Back 140

category C

Front 141

In this category there is evidence that there is risk to a human fetus. Potential benefits to the mother may outweigh the potential risk to the fetus

Back 141

category D

Front 142

In this category animal and/or human studies show fetal abnormalities or adverse reactions. The risk to the fetus outweighs the potential benefits to the mother.

Back 142

category X

Front 143

Anaphylactic shock occurs in which of the 4 types of allergic reactions?

Back 143

Type 1

Front 144

Auto-immune response occurs in which of the 4 types of allergic reactions?

Back 144

Type 2

Front 145

A delayed reaction occurs in which of the 4 types of allergic reactions?

Back 145

Type 3

Front 146

The type of allergic reaction causes sensitized T lympocytes

Back 146

type 4

Front 147

The sympathetic nervous system is also known as the _______ system and its primary neurotransmitter are _______.

Back 147

adrenergic

norepinephrine, epinephrine, dopamine

Front 148

The sympathetic nervous system is responsible for the _______ response.

Back 148

fight or flight

Front 149

The sympathetic nervous system affects what main organs?

Back 149

heart, lungs, and brain

Front 150

The parasympathetic nervous system is also known as the ______ system and its primary neurotransmitter is ______.

Back 150

cholinergic

acetylcholine

Front 151

The parasympathetic nervous system is responsible for the ______ response.

Back 151

rest and digest

Front 152

Adrenergic agonist drugs are also known as ______

Back 152

sympathomimetics

Front 153

Adrenergic drugs mimic ____________ and act on one or more adrenergic receptor sites.

Back 153

norepinephrine, epinephrine, and/or dopamine

Front 154

What are the adrenergic receptor sites?

Back 154

alpha 1, alpha 2, beta 1, beta 2 and dopaminergic

Front 155

When _____ receptors are stimulated by adrenergric drugs, (nor)epinephrine and dopamine are released causing increased cardiac contraction and arterioles and venules vasoconstrict causing increased blood pressure and blood return to heart.

Back 155

alpha 1

Front 156

What is the body's response to stimulation of alpha 1 receptors?

Back 156

increased cardiac contraction.
vasoconstriction of arterioles and venules causing increased blood pressure and blood return to heart

Front 157

When ______ receptors are stimulated, the release of norepinephine and/or epinephrine is inhibited causing blood pressure to decrease.

Back 157

alpha 2

Front 158

What is the body's response when alpha 2 receptors are stimulated?

Back 158

blood pressure is decreased

Front 159

When _____ receptors are stimulated (nor)epinephrine and dopamine are released causing cardiac contraction and heart rate to increase, the release of renin to increase and intra-ocular pressure to increase.

Back 159

beta 1

Front 160

What is the body's response to the stimulation of beta 1 receptors?

Back 160

cardiac contraction and heart rate increase. increased release of renin from kidneys and increased intraocular pressure

Front 161

When ______ receptor's are stimulated epinephrine is released causing bronchioles to dilate and GI and uterine relaxation occurs

Back 161

beta 2

Front 162

What is the body's response to the stimulation of beta 2 receptors?

Back 162

Bronchioles dilate and GI and uterine relax

Front 163

When ______ receptors are stimulated the coronary, renal, and visceral arterial vessels are dilated to supply oxygen to these organs.

Back 163

dopaminergic

Front 164

What are examples of Adrengeric Agonist?

Back 164

direct-acting (catecholamines) and sympathetic amines (non-catecholamines)

Front 165

What are examples of direct acting (catecholamines) adrenergic agonist?

Back 165

epinephrine
norepinephine
dopamine
dobutamine

Front 166

What adrenergic agonist stimulates alpha 1, beta 1 and beta 2 receptors. Is given for cardiac and respiratory problems and can be given IM, IV, SC and inhalation

Back 166

epinehprine (adrenaline)

Front 167

Which direct-acting adrenergic agonist stimulates alpha 1 and beta 1 receptor sites causing vasoconstiction to treat hypotension. Its only given in ICU because it can cause lost of extremities

Back 167

norepinephrine (Levophed)

Front 168

Which direct-acting adrenergic agonist stimulates dopaminergic, alpha 1, and beta 1 receptors causing peripheral vasoconstriction while vasodilating vessels to major organs. Used for acute hypotension and improve renal perfusion.

Back 168

dopamine (intropin)

Front 169

which direct acting adenergic agonist stimulates beta 1 receptors causing increased cardiac output and used for cardiogenic shock. IV use only

Back 169

dobutamine (Dobutrex)

Front 170

Which sympathetic amine selectively stimulates beta 2 receptors and opens up lungs

Back 170

albuterol (proventil)

Front 171

Which sympathetic amine stimulates beta 2 receptors and is used to slow/stop contractions in pre-term labor

Back 171

terbutaline (brethine)

Front 172

which sympathetic amine stimulates alpha 1 receptors causing nasal mucosal vasoconstriction. also increases BP and HR

Back 172

psuedoephedrine (sudafed)

Front 173

When administering Sympathomimetics ______ and ______ should be assessed for those that stimulate alpha 1 and beta 1 receptor sites

Back 173

tachycardia and hypertension

Front 174

When administering Sympathomimetics, be caution of patients with _______ disease and _____ disease.

Back 174

coronary artery disease and hypertensive disease

Front 175

Drugs that block the effects of the sympathetic neurotransmitters are called _____.

Back 175

Adrenergic Antagonist Drugs (Blockers/Sympatholytics)

Front 176

Drugs that are _______ reduce the level of dopamine in the brain and are often used as anti-anxiety and anti-psychotic agents.

Back 176

anti-dopaminergic

Front 177

This adrenergic antagonist drug vasodilates arterioles, relax smooth muscles in the urethra and decreases the force of the cardiac contraction.

Back 177

Alpha 1 Adrenergic Blocker

Front 178

Isoxsuprine (Vasodilan) causes vasodilation; what type of adrenergic blocker is it?

Back 178

Alpha 1 blocker

Front 179

Doxazosin mesylate (Cardura) dilates the urethra and it what type of adrenergic blocker?

Back 179

alpha 1 blocker

Front 180

Phentolamine mesylate (Regitine) dilates blood vessels and is what type of adrenergic antagonist?

Back 180

alpha 1 blocker

Front 181

Vertigo, palpitations, sexual dysfunction and orthrostatic hypotension are all side effects of what adrenergic antagonist?

Back 181

alpha 1 blocker

Front 182

These adrenergic antagonist slow the heart rate, decrease BP through vasodilation and decreased release of renin from the kidneys and the force of cardiac contraction is decreased.

Back 182

Beta Adrenergic Blockers

Front 183

Propranolol HCL (Inderal) is used for tachycardia, hypertension, coronary artery disease and migraines; what type of adrenergic antagonist is it?

Back 183

beta blocker

Front 184

Metoprolol (Lopressor, Toprol XL) is used for hypertension and coronary artery disease; which type of adrenergic antagonist is it?

Back 184

beta blocker

Front 185

Timolol Opthalmic Drops (Timoptic) is used for open angle glaucoma and is which type of adrenergic antagonist?

Back 185

beta blocker

Front 186

Which adrenergic antagonist lowers HR, force of cardiac contraction and rate of AV contraction?

Back 186

beta blocker

Front 187

Bradycardia, GI disturbance, cardiac heart failure, decreased BP and depression are all side effects of what adrenergic antagonist?

Back 187

Beta blocker

Front 188

When administering sympatholytics, monitor blood pressure because ______ can result with any of those drugs

Back 188

hypotension

Front 189

When administering sympatholytics monitor for reflex _____ with alpha 1 adrenergic blockers

Back 189

tachycardia

Front 190

_________ drugs stimulate the parasympathetic nervous system and mimics neurotransmitter _______.

Back 190

Cholinergic

acetylcholine

Front 191

What are the types of cholinergic receptors?

Back 191

Muscarinic and nicotinic

Front 192

Muscarinic receptors affect _____

Back 192

smooth muscles

Front 193

Nicotinic receptors affect _____

Back 193

skeletal muscles

Front 194

______ destroys acetylcholine and by inhibiting it, acetylcholine is available to the receptors for a longer period of time.

Back 194

acetylcholinesterase

Front 195

Heart rate decreases, BP decreases, bronchoconstriction occurs, bronchial secretions increase, salivation increases all occur when the ______ system is stimulated

Back 195

cholinergic

Front 196

What direct acting cholinergic agonist stimulates urination and increases motility, usually used post-op.

Back 196

bethanechol (Urceholine)

Front 197

What acetylcholinesterase inhibitor stimulates urination and increases gastric motility?

Back 197

neostigmine (Prostigmin)

Front 198

What acetylcholinesterase inhibitor is used to maintain muscle strength in myasthenia gravis?

Back 198

pyridostigmine bromide (mestinon)

Front 199

What acetylcholinesterase inhibitor is used to reduce intraocular pressure

Back 199

demecarium bromide opthalmic drops (humarsol)

Front 200

What acetylcholinesterase inhibitor slows progression of Alzheimer's Disease

Back 200

donepezil (Aricept)

Front 201

Abdominal cramping, diarrhea, extreme muscle weakness and respiratory distress are all possible side effects of ______.

Back 201

acetylcholinesterase inhibitors

Front 202

_____ cholinergic drugs act directly on receptors

Back 202

direct acting

Front 203

______cholinergic drugs inhibit the action of acetylchoineesterase

Back 203

indirect acting

Front 204

_____ drugs inhibit the action of acetylcholine by competing with it for space on the acetylcholine receptors

Back 204

cholinergic antagonist

Front 205

HR rate increase, bronchial secretions decrease, salivation decrease, GI motility decreases are all effects of ____

Back 205

cholinergic antagonist

Front 206

Which cholinergic antagonist can be used to dry respiratory tract secretions and can treat bradycardia?

Back 206

atropine sulfate

Front 207

Which cholinergic antagonist can be used for irrate bowel syndrome?

Back 207

dicyclomine HCL (Bentyl)

Front 208

Which cholinergic antagonist can be used for spastic bladder?

Back 208

tolterodine tartrate (Detrol)

Front 209

Dry mouth, dehydration, constipation, urinary retention, increased intraocular pressure and blurry vision can all be side effects of ________

Back 209

parasympatholytics (cholinergic antagonist)