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353 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
This term means to scramble, to mix up, to change data in such a way that the wrong people can't read it, but so the right people can unscramble it.
A. authentication
B. authorization
C. encryption
D. nonrepudiation
C. encryption
Which of the following terms refers to the process that guarantees that data remains as originally sent, and that it came from an appropriate source?
A. authentication
B. authorization
C. encryption
D. nonrepudiation
D. nonrepudiation
Which of the following is a term used for a way to encrypt data?
A. cipher
B. authentication
C. encryption
D. hash
A. cipher
Which of the following is the result of running cleartext through an algorithm using a key?
A. key pair
B. plaintext
C. digital signature
D. ciphertext
D. ciphertext
Which of the following is the block cipher used by most TCP/IP applications that use that type of cipher?
A. Rivest Cipher 4 (RC4)
B. Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)
C. Data Encryption Standard (DES)
D. Rivest Shamir Aleman (RSA)
B. Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)
. What is the most popular form of e-mail encryption?
A. Data Encryption Standard (DES)
B. block encryption
C. asymmetric-key algorithm
D. public-key cryptography
D. public-key cryptography
This is a mathematical function that creates a checksum, and which is used by most forms of nonrepudiation.
A. authentication
B. hash
C. encryption
D. nonrepudiation
B. hash
This nonrepudiation tool contains the digital signature of a third party guaranteeing the identity of the person who is passing out this digital tool.
A. hash
B. encryption
C. certificate
D. password
C. certificate
What organization is a very popular certificate authority?
A. Microsoft
B. VeriSign
C. eBay
D. PKI
B. VeriSign
Which type of algorithm is used when two different keys are used in encryption?
A. symmetric-key
B. PKI
C. keyless
D. asymmetric-key
D. asymmetric-key
What is the oldest of the TCP/IP symmetric-key algorithms?
A. Data Encryption Standard (DES)
B. Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)
C. Rivest Cipher 4(RC4)
D. public-key cryptography
A. Data Encryption Standard (DES)
Which of the following is an authentication and encryption protocol that works at the Network layer of the OSI seven-layer model?
A. IPSec
B. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)
C. MS-CHAP
D. Transport Layer Security (TLS)
A. IPSec
What is a potential problem a browser looks for after it receives a certificate from a secure HTTP site? (Select all that apply.)
A. invalid certificate
B. deleted certificate
C. revoked certificate
D. disconnected certificate
A. invalid certificate
C. revoked certificate
Which of the following was developed as a secure replacement for Telnet?
A. Telnet II
B. Secure Shell (SSH)
C. AES
D. IPSec
B. Secure Shell (SSH)
Which of the following is true of the Transport mode of IPSec?
A. Only the actual payload of an IP packet is encrypted.
B. MS-CHAP authentication occurs.
C. The entire packet, including the header, is encrypted.
D. It uses the EAP-TLS protocol.
A. Only the actual payload of an IP packet is encrypted.
Which of the following is a standard that offers authentication, authorization, and accounting? (Select all that apply.)
A. Terminal Access Control Access Control System Plus (TACACS+)
B. Remote Authentication Dial-in User Service (RADIUS)
C. Network Access Servers (NASs)
D. MS-CHAP
A. Terminal Access Control Access Control System Plus (TACACS+)
B. Remote Authentication Dial-in User Service (RADIUS)
This authentication protocol is used in a TCP/IP network where many clients all connect to a single authenticating server with no point-to-point involved.
A. MS-CHAP
B. TACACS+
C. PPP
D. Kerberos
D. Kerberos
. Which of the following is the most common authentication method for dial-up connections?
A. PPP
B. MS-CHAP
C. AAA
D. RADIUS
B. MS-CHAP
This is the most popular form of authentication used in wireless networks today.
A. PPP
B. EAP-PSK (Personal Shared Key)
C. EAP-TLS
D. LEAP
B. EAP-PSK (Personal Shared Key)
Which of the following is a port-authentication network access control standard that forces devices to go through a full AAA process to get past the gateway to a network?
A. EAP
B. KDC
C. 802.1X
D. RADIUS
C. 802.1X
This is an encrypted link between two programs (or endpoints) on two separate computers.
A. PKI
B. tunnel
C. 802.1X
D. Kerberos
B. tunnel
Which of the following is an SSH-enabled program?
A. Secure Copy Protocol (SCP)
B. HTTPS
C. Telnet
D. Kerberos
A. Secure Copy Protocol (SCP)
This cipher will probably be the only streaming symmetric-key algorithm you see.
A. Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)
B. Data Encryption Standard
C. Rivest Cipher 4 (RC4)
D. Caesar cipher
C. Rivest Cipher 4 (RC4)
This protocol offers a method for querying the state of certain network devices.
A. SFTP
B. SNMP
C. NTP
D. SCP
B. SNMP
What causes the most common problems with HTTPS?
A. PKI
B. bad certificates
C. revoked certificates
D. bad URLs
B. bad certificates
This cryptographic hash comes in two versions, but is not the most popular cryptographic hash.
A. MD5
B. CRAM-MD5
C. RSA
D. Secure Hash Algorithm (SHA)
D. Secure Hash Algorithm (SHA)
In a Microsoft domain using Kerberos authentication, after a client has been authenticated and received a TGT, the client presents this to a Ticket-Granting Service to receive something that allows authorization to resources for up to 8 hours. What is a common name for this last item?
A. timestamp
B. password
C. token
D. smart card
C. token
What is Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) if it is not a protocol?
A. authentication rule
B. wrapper
C. token
D. ticket
B. wrapper
This proprietary EAP authentication is used almost exclusively by Cisco on their wireless products.
A. LEAP
B. EAP-MS-CHAPv2
C. EAP-TLS
D. EAP-PSK
A. LEAP
802.1X combines RADIUS-style AAA with which of the following to make a complete authentication solution?
A. PPP
B. MS-CHAP
C. EAP
D. TLS
C. EAP
Which of the following layers of the OSI model does NOT offer any commonly used encryption methods or technologies?
A. Layer 1
B. Layer 7
C. Layer 3
D. Layer 2
A. Layer 1
Which of the following ports does the Kerberos authentication protocol use?
A. 22
B. 23
C. 88
D. 53
C. 88
Which of the following terms describes what rights, privileges, permissions, and actions a person has or can take with respect to a resource or system?
A. auditing
B. accounting
C. authentication
D. authorization
D. authorization
Which of the following technologies is not a true protocol, but enables the use of different authentication methods?
A. EAP
B. 802.1X
C. PPP
D. IPsec
A. EAP
Which of the following protocols is used to query directory services databases?
A. LDAP
B. Kerberos
C. EAP
D. NTP
A. LDAP
Why is a server in a client/server model called dedicated?
A. A user can sit at the server keyboard and run applications.
B. It is a dedicated client.
C. It is dedicated to serving over the network.
D. A server can see clients that are sharing resources.
C. It is dedicated to serving over the network.
Computers that both serve and access data participate in which kind of network?
A. VPN
B. Client/Server
C. VLAN
D. Peer-to-peer
D. Peer-to-peer
Which of the following is an example of a network operating system in a classic client/server network?
A. Windows for Workgroups
B. Windows 98
C. Microsoft Server operating systems
D. Novell NetWare
D. Novell NetWare
4. In early Windows systems there were no user accounts, and permissions on a share could be set to one of two levels. What were these two levels? (Select all that apply)
A. File Scan
B. Read Only
C. Full Control
D. Write Only
B. Read Only
C. Full Control
5. What acronym is used to refer to modern peer-to-peer applications?
A. P2P
B. PPTP
C. VPN
D. L2TP
A. P2P
What types of networks supply a great deal of complexity, security, and power, and are made possible through the use of advanced networking devices? (Select all that apply.)
A. virtual private networks (VPNs)
B. Ethernet LANs
C. dial-up
D. virtual LANs
A. virtual private networks (VPNs)
D. virtual LANs
Using an encrypted tunnel between a computer (or remote network) and a private network is an example of using this type of network.
A. peer-to-peer
B. client/server
C. dial-up
D. virtual private network (VPN)
D. virtual private network (VPN)
Which of the following is a common example of an operating system designed for peer-to-peer networking?
A. Linux
B. Windows 98
C. Microsoft Exchange Server
D. Novell NetWare
B. Windows 98
This is one example of the many programs that use the BitTorrent file-sharing protocol in modern peer-to-peer implementations.
A. µTorrent
B. IDS
C. IPS
D. PPTP
A. µTorrent
What two tunnel protocols enable tunnel endpoints to act like NICs on the same network? (Select all that apply.)
A. VLAN
B. RRAS
C. PPTP
D. L2TP
C. PPTP
D. L2TP
11. On the Windows side of a PPTP connection, you run "Create a New Connection" with what result?
A. An RRAS server is created.
B. A DHCP server is created.
C. A dial-up connection is created.
D. A virtual NIC is created.
D. A virtual NIC is created.
A client using a PPTP VPN to connect to a private LAN will have an IP address of that network, just as if it were directly connected to the LAN, right down to this IP configuration setting, which will control where that client's packets with destination addresses beyond the LAN will be sent.
A. DNS
B. default gateway
C. WINS
D. PPP
B. default gateway
IPSec usually provides the security for this type of VPN.
A. PPTP
B. PPP
C. L2TP
D. VLAN
C. L2TP
Which of the following are the two tunneling protocols used by the majority of VPNs? (Select all that apply.)
A. PPTP
B. OpenVPN
C. L2TP
D. IPSec
A. PPTP
C. L2TP
What type of advanced network device is used to create VLANs?
A. hub
B. switch
C. router
D. bridge
B. switch
In order to have a VLAN span two switches, you must configure a port on each switch to carry all data, regardless of VLAN number, between the switches. What is the term for this port?
A. logical port
B. trunk port
C. assigned port
D. port 0
B. trunk port
This trunk standard enables you to connect switches from different manufacturers.
A. IEEE 802.1X
B. IEEE 802.11
C. IEEE 802.1Q
D. IEEE 802.3
C. IEEE 802.1Q
If a switch contains a Web page that you must connect to in order to configure it, then the switch must also have this type of address for accessing that Web page.
A. MAC address
B. VLAN number
C. IP address
D. well-known port address
C. IP address
What is the common term for a VLAN based on MAC addresses?
A. static vlan
B. routed vlan
C. dynamic vlan
D. managed vlan
C. dynamic vlan
What is the Cisco term for a feature in a special switch that will provide routing between VLANs?
A. virtual routing
B. InterVLAN routing
C. VLAN-VLAN routing
D. trunking
B. InterVLAN routing
What is another term for a Layer 3 switch?
A. concentrator
B. router
C. hub
D. bridge
B. router
In this type of load balancing, one domain name is assigned to many servers, using different IP addresses.
A. DNS load balancing
B. round robin
C. content switching
D. proxy
A. DNS load balancing
A popular option for load balancing is to hide all the Web servers behind a single IP address using a special multilayer switch that performs these two types of operations. (Select all that apply.)
A. NAT
B. port forwarding
C. tunneling
D. round robin
A. NAT
B. port forwarding
CompTIA uses this term to refer to routers and switches that can perform traffic shaping.
A. traffic routers
B. quality of service routers
C. bandwidth shapers
D. port blockers
C. bandwidth shapers
This system adds the capability to react to an attack detected by another component.
A. intrusion detection system (IDS)
B. host-based IDS (HIDS)
C. intrusion prevention system (IPS)
D. network-based IDS (NIDS)
C. intrusion prevention system (IPS)
Some advanced switches have this ability to mirror data from any or all physical ports to a single physical port in order to monitor traffic.
A. port blocking
B. port mirroring
C. load balancing
D. port authentication
B. port mirroring
Some IDS/IPS products will use this advanced switch capability so that administrators can examine all the packet traffic for certain ports.
A. port blocking
B. port mirroring
C. proxying
D. port authentication
B. port mirroring
This is the most common type of proxy server.
A. HTTP
B. DNS
C. FTP
D. Gopher
A. HTTP
How are QoS policies often implemented?
A. trunking
B. traffic shaping
C. port mirroring
D. content switching
B. traffic shaping
When configuring a Web client to use a proxy server, you must tell the Web client not to use the usual DNS resolution, and give it this setting.
A. backup DNS server IP address
B. proxy server IP address
C. automatic IP configuration
D. port mirroring address
B. proxy server IP address
The two most common types of SSL VPNs are: (Select all that apply.)
A. SSL portal VPNs
B. TLS portal VPNs
C. IPsec tunnel VPNs
D. SSL tunnel VPNs
A. SSL portal VPNs
D. SSL tunnel VPNs
Which of the following is NOT a state that VLAN Trunk Protocol (VTP) uses?
A. transparent
B. server
C. master
D. client
C. master
Which of the following types of VPNs is used to connect two LANs separated by a WAN or the cloud?
A. SSL VPN
B. site-to-site VPN
C. client/server VPN
D. L2F VPN
B. site-to-site VPN
In which type of VPN does the client browser run an active control, such as Java or Flash?
A. site-to-site
B. proxy
C. SSL tunnel
D. SSL portal
C. SSL tunnel
Which of the following was a Cisco proprietary protocol that was replaced by L2TP?
A. L2F
B. PPTP
C. PPP
D. IPsec
A. L2F
How many binary digits are in an IPv4 address?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 16
D. 32
D. 32
What is the length of addresses in IPv6?
A. 32 bits
B. 64 bits
C. 128 bits
D. 256 bits
C. 128 bits
What organization developed the new IPv6 standard?
A. IEEE
B. ICANN
C. IANA
D. IETF
D. IETF
Which of the following is an example of an IPv6 address?
A. 197.169.94.82
B. 197.169.94.82/24
C. 2001:0000:0000:3210:0800:200C:00CF: 1234
D. FEDC.BA98.7654.3210.0800.200C.00CF.1234.56AE.9512
C. 2001:0000:0000:3210:0800:200C:00CF: 1234
Which of the following is the IPv6 loopback address? (Select all that apply.)
A. FEDC: 00CF: 1234
B. 0000: 0000: 0000: 0000: 0000: 0000: 0001
C. ::1
D. 127.0.0.1
B. 0000: 0000: 0000: 0000: 0000: 0000: 0001
C. ::1
Which part of this address, FEDC::CF:0:BA98:1234/64, is the network ID?
A. BA98:1234
B. CF:0:BA98:1234
C. FEDC
D. FEDC::
D. FEDC::
This is the address a computer running IPv6 gives itself when it first boots up.
A. EUI-64
B. link-local
C. CIDR
D. global
B. link-local
Given that your MAC address is 00-50-8D-86-0A-07, calculate a link-local address for a non-Windows system.
A. FF02::2:0250:8DFF:FE86:0A07
B. FF02::2:0050:8D86:0A07
C. FE00::0050:8D86:0A07
D. FE00::0250:8DFF:FE86:0A07
D. FE00::0250:8DFF:FE86:0A07
Which of the following describes a link-local address?
A. multicast
B. broadcast
C. unicast
D. stateful
C. unicast
What is the maximum length of an IPv6 subnet mask?
A. 8 bits
B. 16 bits
C. 32 bits
D. 64 bits
D. 64 bits
Where do IPv6 addresses other than link-local get their subnet masks?
A. IANA
B. EUI-64
C. from their routers
D. manually configured
C. from their routers
This is a set of reserved addresses designed to go only to certain systems.
A. global unicast address
B. anycast address
C. link-local address
D. multicast address
D. multicast address
What type of multicast address is FF02::1?
A. all routers address
B. all nodes address
C. solicited node address
D. broadcast address
B. all nodes address
What type of IPv6 address do you need to get on the Internet?
A. global unicast address
B. anycast address
C. global multicast address
D. link-local address
A. global unicast address
With IPv6, how should we regard Internet address changes?
A. impossible
B. rare but normal
C. common, and disruptive
D. a manual task
B. rare but normal
What is the default status of IPv6 for Windows Server 2008?
A. developmental support
B. complete support; active on default install
C. rudimentary IPv6 support
D. complete support; not installed by default
B. complete support; active on default install
In what mode is a DHCPv6 server operating if it works much like an IPv4 DHCP server, passing out IPv6 addresses, subnet masks, and default gateways, plus optional items (DNS server addresses)?
A. active
B. stateful
C. passive
D. stateless
B. stateful
In what mode is a DHCPv6 server operating if it only passes out optional information?
A. active
B. stateful
C. passive
D. stateless
D. stateless
How does a DNS server today identify a record for a host with an IPv6 address?
A. A
B. NS
C. AAAA
D. IPv6
C. AAAA
Presently, almost all the tier 1ISP routers properly perform what function for IPv6?
A. resolve names to addresses
B. provide DNS addresses to clients
C. forward packets
D. host DNS servers
C. forward packets
What must you use to span the gap in IPv6 support and access the IPv6 Internet?
A. DHCP6
B. IPv4-only routers
C. DNS
D. tunnels
D. tunnels
This type of tunnel allows you to connect your IPv6 client to an IPv6 router over an IPv4 network.
A. IPv6-to-IPv6 tunnel
B. IPv4-to-IPv4 tunnel
C. IPv6-to-IPv4 tunnel
D. IPv4-to-IPv6 tunnel
D. IPv4-to-IPv6 tunnel
Of the four popular tunneling standards that allow you to connect your IPv6 client to an IPv6 router over an IPv4 network, which one is presently the dominant one?
A. 6to4
B. Teredo
C. 6in4
D. ISATAP
A. 6to4
Of the four popular tunneling standards that allow you to connect your IPv6 client to an IPv6 router over an IPv4 network, which one does not require a tunnel broker?
A. 6to4
B. Teredo
C. 6in4
D. ISATAP
A. 6to4
25. Of the four popular tunneling standards that allow you to connect your IPv6 client to an IPv6 router over an IPv4 network, which two can go through a NAT router? (Select all that apply.)
A. 6to4
B. Teredo
C. 6in4
D. ISATAP
B. Teredo
C. 6in4
Of the four popular tunneling standards that allow you to connect your IPv6 client to an IPv6 router over an IPv4 network, which one is built into Microsoft Windows?
A. 6to4
B. Teredo
C. 6in4
D. ISATAP
B. Teredo
Of the four popular tunneling standards that allow you to connect your IPv6 client to an IPv6 router over an IPv4 network, which one uses nonstandard addresses for the endpoints?
A. 6to4
B. Teredo
C. 6in4
D. ISATAP
D. ISATAP
Which of the following are automatic tunnel configuration protocols? (Select all that apply.)
A. TSP
B. TIC
C. ISATAP
D. Teredo
A. TSP
B. TIC
An organization or person offering this service creates an IPv6 tunnel, and usually offers a custom-made endpoint client.
A. DHCPv6
B. TIC
C. TSP
D. tunnel broker
D. tunnel broker
To test that a tunnel has been created, and to see the tunnel adapter, open a command prompt and enter this command.
A. ping Microsoft.com
B. netsh
C. ipconfig/all
D. netstat
C. ipconfig/all
Which address range does multicast use in IPv4?
A. 224.0.0.0/4
B. 192.168.0.0/24
C. 127.0.0.0/8
D. 172.16.0.0/16
A. 224.0.0.0/4
Which of the following multicast addresses will only reach routers?
A. FF02::1
B. FF02::2
C. FF02::1:FFXX:XXXX
D. FE80::.
B. FF02::2
This device combines multiple circuits at one end of a connection into a single complex circuit on a single wire. The signal is then split into the individual connections on the other end.
A. bridged connection
B. multiplexer
C. modulator-demodulator (modem)
D. terminal adapter (ta)
B. multiplexer
Multiplexers used this technology to keep individual calls separate.
A. Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM)
B. Session Initiation Protocol (SIP)
C. bridge connections
D. Frequency Division Multiplexing
D. Frequency Division Multiplexing
Which of the following is the digital signal to which a central office converts analog voice signals before sending them across trunk lines?
A. DS0
B. DS1
C. DS2
D. DS3
A. DS0
What device converts an analog signal to digital and a digital signal to analog?
A. multiplexer
B. modulator
C. modulator-demodulator
D. demodulator
C. modulator-demodulator
How many copper wires are used by a T1 line?
A. 1-pair
B. 4-pair
C. 2-pair
D. 3-pair
C. 2-pair
What device connects to each end of a T1 connection?
A. modem
B. dedicated line
C. multiplexer
D. CSU/DSU
D. CSU/DSU
What is the T1 signaling method?
A. DS0
B. DS1
C. DS2
D. DS3
B. DS1
The frame for this signaling method has a framing bit, plus 24 channels, each holding a single 8-bit data sample.
A. DS0
B. DS1
C. DS2
D. DS3
B. DS1
What is the data transfer speed for DS1?
A. 1.544 Mbps
B. 2.048 Mbps
C. 43 Mbps
D. 34.368 Mbps
A. 1.544 Mbps
How many channels are in a T1 bundle?
A. 64
B. 24
C. 32
D. 16
B. 24
What is the European counterpart to a T1 line?
A. T3
B. E3
C. DS3
D. E1
D. E1
What is the total bandwidth of an E3 line?
A. 1.544 Mbps
B. 2.048 Mbps
C. 43 Mbps
D. 34.368 Mbps
D. 34.368 Mbps
What is the speed of the low end of the Optical Carrier (OC) specification, OC-1?
A. 51.8 Mbps
B. 39.8 Gbps
C. 43 Mbps
D. 34.368 Mbps
A. 51.8 Mbps
What packet-switching standard designed for and used primarily with T-carrier lines is very fast, but does not guarantee data integrity?
A. ATM
B. Frame Relay
C. TCP/IP
D. Multi-Protocol Label Switching (MPLS)
B. Frame Relay
Worldwide, most voice and data SONET rings use this cell-based packet-switching standard.
A. ATM
B. Frame Relay
C. TCP/IP
D. Multi-Protocol Label Switching (MPLS)
A. ATM
Which of the following are the devices on the customer's side of a WAN connection to a building, not including the actual connection point? (Select all that apply.)
A. CSU/DSU
B. modem
C. multiplexer
D. router
A. CSU/DSU
D. router
What test should a network administrator know how to run on a CSU/DSU to test a WAN connection?
A. time division multiplexing
B. BERT
C. PRI
D. baud rate
B. BERT
Which of the following common terms describe a regular phone line designed to work only with analog sound and that uses an RJ-11 connector? (Select all that apply.)
A. ISDN
B. dedicated line
C. PSTN
D. POTS
C. PSTN
D. POTS
What device converts 8-bit-wide parallel data from a computer into 1-bit-wide serial data to send to a modem where it is converted to an analog signal before being sent over phone lines?
A. CSU/DSU
B. UART
C. DSL modem
D. multiplexer
B. UART
What is the current V standard for modems?
A. V.90
B. V.42bis
C. V.92
D. MNP5
C. V.92
When you configure an ISDN terminal adapter (TA), you must enter the telephone number for the other end of the ISDN connection, as well as this special number, provided by the telephone company.
A. default gateway
B. DS0
C. Service Profile ID (SPID)
D. Basic Service Service Set Identifier (BSID)
C. Service Profile ID (SPID)
An ISDN PRI setup consists of which of the following?
A. 2 D channels and one B channel
B. 23 B channels over T1
C. 2 B channels and one D channel
D. 23 DS0 channels over T1
B. 23 B channels over T1
Which of the following are versions of DSL service? (Select all that apply.)
A. xDSL
B. SDSL
C. VDSL
D. ADSL
B. SDSL
C. VDSL
D. ADSL
Which of the following is the DSL device that is located in a central office, connecting multiple DSL customers to the Internet?
A. UART
B. CSU/DSU
C. NIU
D. DSLAM
D. DSLAM
What is the maximum distance between a user's demarc and the central office for all versions of DSL?
A. 18,000 feet
B. 3,000 yards
C. 5 miles
D. 3.4 kilometers
A. 18,000 feet
In a DSL connection, what device is used between your computer (or router) and the wall jack?
A. CSU/DSU
B. DSL modem
C. multiplexer
D. router
B. DSL modem
If you have cable Internet service, what protocol is used between the head end connection and the cable company's network?
A. TCP/IP
B. H.323
C. DOCSIS
D. DSLAM
C. DOCSIS
This type of connection is always used for dial-up.
A. PPPoE
B. DHCP
C. PPP
D. PPTP
C. PPP
Which of the following is a standard developed by Citrix for use with a remote terminal connection?
A. RDP
B. RDC
C. SIP
D. ICA
D. ICA
Which of the following is the most heavily adopted VoiP standard?
A. SIP
B. RTP
C. H.323
D. RDC
B. RTP
The first generation of packet-switching technology was called:
A. X.25
B. ATM
C. SONET
D. OC-1
A. X.25
Which of the following newer technologies proposes to provide networking over the existing power line infrastructure?
A. WiMAX
B. BPL
C. PPOE
D. DSL
B. BPL
Which of the following protocols is commonly used to stream video?
A. LTE
B. LEC
C. RTSP
D. GSM
C. RTSP
All of the following are true concerning LTE (Long-Term Evolution), EXCEPT:
A. serious competitor to WiMAX
B. uses High-Speed Packet Access (HPSA)
C. supported by AT&T, Verizon, and Sprint
D. uses satellite technology
D. uses satellite technology
Most fiber-to-the-home technologies employ a version of:
A. SONET
B. OC-1
C. passive optical network
D. active optical network
C. passive optical network
Which of the following is the most popular wireless networking standard?
A. IEEE 802.4
B. IEEE 802.16
C. IEEE 802.11
D. IEEE 802.3
C. IEEE 802.11
Which of the following are wireless network modes? (Select all that apply.)
A. Wireless B
B. infrastructure
C. ad hoc
D. extended
B. infrastructure
C. ad hoc
What type of unit is formed by one or more wireless nodes communicating in ad hoc mode?
A. Basic Service Set (BSS)
B. Independent Basic Service Set (IBSS)
C. Basic Service Set Identifier (BSSID)
D. Extended Service Set (ESS)
B. Independent Basic Service Set (IBSS)
What type of unit is formed by a single WAP servicing a given area?
A. Basic Service Set (BSS)
B. Independent Basic Service Set (IBSS)
C. Basic Service Set Identifier (BSSID)
D. Extended Service Set (ESS
A. Basic Service Set (BSS)
What type of unit is formed by two or more WAPs servicing a given area?
A. Basic Service Set (BSS)
B. Independent Basic Service Set (IBSS)
C. Basic Service Set Identifier (BSSID)
D. Extended Service Set (ESS)
D. Extended Service Set (ESS)
What is the term for the name attached to an infrastructure mode wireless network serviced by a single WAP and including at least one wireless node?
A. Basic Service Set (BSS)
B. Independent Basic Service Set (IBSS)
C. Basic Service Set Identifier (BSSID)
D. Extended Service Set (ESS)
C. Basic Service Set Identifier (BSSID)
What is used as the BSSID for a BSS?
A. the MAC address of the WAP
B. a randomly generated value
C. a user-supplied name
D. the name of the manufacturer
A. the MAC address of the WAP
What do wireless nodes in an IBSS use in place of the BSSID value in each packet?
A. the MAC address of the WAP
B. a randomly generated value
C. a user-supplied name
D. the name of the manufacturer
B. a randomly generated value
What is the term or terms for the second level of naming in a Wi-Fi network that can be applied in either ad hoc mode or infrastructure mode? (Select all that apply.)
A. network name
B. supplicant
C. Service Set Identifier (SSID)
D. Extended Service Set Identifier (ESSID)
A. network name
C. Service Set Identifier (SSID)
D. Extended Service Set Identifier (ESSID)
Which status term applies to whether your wireless device is connected?
A. mode
B. link state
C. signal strength
D. access
B. link state
Which term applies to how well your wireless device is connecting to other devices?
A. mode
B. link state
C. signal strength
D. access
C. signal strength
Which of the following is the broadcasting method used by later implementations of 802.11 networks?
A. BSS
B. FHSS
C. DESSS
D. OFDM
D. OFDM
Which of the following is used to describe a portion of available spectrum?
A. channel
B. frame
C. frequency
D. interframe space
A. channel
How many channels were defined by the 802.11 standard?
A. 8
B. 14
C. 16
D. 32
B. 14
Which of the channels defined by the 802.11 standard may be used in the United States?
A. 1 through 11
B. 8 through 24
C. 2 through 32
D. 16 through 32
A. 1 through 11
Which of the following choices are collision avoidance methods defined by the 802.11 standard? (Select all that apply.)
A. CSMA/CA
B. Point Coordination Function (PCF)
C. Distributed Coordination Function (DCF)
D. CSMA/CD
B. Point Coordination Function (PCF)
C. Distributed Coordination Function (DCF)
What is the term used to explain what happens when packets are sent out on a network by two devices simultaneously, corrupting both packets?
A. channeling
B. collision
C. transmit beamforming
D. interframe space
B. collision
This term describes the predetermined silence period that is added to the length of a packet to determine the waiting period for a network device after it has detected traffic on the media.
A. interframe gap
B. wait time
C. PCF
D. link state
A. interframe gap
Which Wi-Fi standard offers speeds of up to 54 Mbps, a range of up to about 300 feet, operates in the 2.4 GHz frequency, and is downward compatible with an earlier, popular Wi-Fi standard?
A. 802.11g
B. 802.11b
C. 802.11n
D. 802.11a
C. 802.11n
Which Wi-Fi standard offers speeds of up to 100 Mbps (or higher), a range of up to about 300 feet, and operates in the 2.4-GHz and 5.0-GHz frequencies?
A. 802.11g
B. 802.11b
C. 802.11n(correct)
D. 802.11a
A. 802.11g
B. 802.11b
C. 802.11n(correct)
D. 802.11a
. Which of the following is a method for limiting access to your wireless network based on the physical addresses of wireless NICs?
A. 802.1X
B. WEP
C. MAC address filtering
D. WPA
C. MAC address filtering
Which standard includes secure authentication using a RADIUS server and password encryption using EAP?
A. IEEE 802.1X
B. WEP
C. MAC address filtering
D. WPA
A. IEEE 802.1X
This data encryption standard is the weakest of the wireless encryption standards, with many problems, including encryption that is easy to break; it only encrypts the Data Link and Physical layers, the key is static and shared, and there is no mechanism for performing user authentication.
A. Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)
B. Mac address filtering
C. Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA)
D. Wi-Fi Protected Access 2 (WPA2)
A. Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)
This encryption standard uses a 128-bit block cipher that is more difficult to crack than the 128-bit TKIP wrapper of the previous standard.
A. Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)
B. Mac address filtering
C. Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA)
D. Wi-Fi Protected Access 2 (WPA2)
D. Wi-Fi Protected Access 2 (WPA2)
What is the gain of the typical WAP antenna?
A. 11 dB
B. 54 dB
C. 2 dB
D. 10 dB
C. 2 dB
When configuring a WAP, set this to something unique and easily identified, and follow up by giving this same name on all wireless hosts that should connect to this network.
A. MAC address
B. SSID
C. user name
D. password
B. SSID
Which settings should be modified when you have overlapping Wi-Fi signals? (Select all that apply.)
A. WPA2
B. beacon
C. channel
D. frequency
C. channel
D. frequency
What method of extending a wireless network creates an Extended Service Set?
A. installing a wireless bridge
B. adding a WAP
C. creating an IBSS
D. installing a router
B. adding a WAP
Which of the following describes a type of wireless bridge that can only communicate with a single other bridge, and therefore is used to connect just two wireless network segments?
A. dipole
B. omnidirectional
C. point-to-multipoint
D. point-to-point
D. point-to-point
When troubleshooting a potential wireless hardware problem, open this Windows utility to see if there is an error or conflict with the wireless adapter.
A. My Network Places
B. Device Manager
C. Network Access Server (NAS)
D. Task Manager
B. Device Manager
Most WAPs use one of the following channels by default EXCEPT:
A. 1
B. 9
C. 6
D. 11
B. 9
Which of the following are weaknesses in WEP that allow it to be easily cracked? (Select all that apply.)
A. size of the encryption key
B. use of AES
C. use of 802.1X
D. faulty implementation of the RC4 protocol
A. size of the encryption key
D. faulty implementation of the RC4 protocol
If you are installing a new WAP, and it is near another WAP, what is one way to reduce interference?
A. Different ESSIDs should be assigned.
B. The new WAP should be switched to 5.0 GHz.
C. Separate channels should be used.
D. The existing WAP should be switched to mixed mode.
C. Separate channels should be used.
All of the following items can cause interference to wireless networks in the 2.4-GHz range EXCEPT:
A. older wireless phones
B. other WAPS
C. microwave ovens
D. FM radios
D. FM radios
Most WAPs use one of the following channels by default EXCEPT:
A. 1
B. 9
C. 6
D. 11
B. 9
Which of the following key sizes does WEP use? (Select all that apply.)
A. 128 bits
B. 104 bits
C. 40 bits
D. 64 bits
B. 104 bits
C. 40 bits
Which of the following are weaknesses in WEP that allow it to be easily cracked? (Select all that apply.)
A. size of the encryption key
B. use of AES
C. use of 802.1X
D. faulty implementation of the RC4 protocol
A. size of the encryption key
D. faulty implementation of the RC4 protocol
If you are installing a new WAP, and it is near another WAP, what is one way to reduce interference?
A. Different ESSIDs should be assigned.
B. The new WAP should be switched to 5.0 GHz.
C. Separate channels should be used.
D. The existing WAP should be switched to mixed mode.
C. Separate channels should be used.
All of the following items can cause interference to wireless networks in the 2.4-GHz range EXCEPT:
A. older wireless phones
B. other WAPS
C. microwave ovens
D. FM radios
D. FM radios
Which of the following key sizes does WEP use? (Select all that apply.)
A. 128 bits
B. 104 bits
C. 40 bits
D. 64 bits
B. 104 bits
C. 40 bits
Network components will fail, and you can sum up the best protection against such failure in one word. Select that word from the following:
A. firewalls
B. redundancy
C. DMZ
D. rootkit
B. redundancy
This term describes several methods for spreading data across multiple drives.
A. inheritance
B. RAID
C. macro
D. honeypot
B. RAID
This term describes an unauthorized person who is intentionally trying to access resources on your network.
A. virus
B. authenticated user
C. hacker
D. Trojan
C. hacker
Which of the following is the "super" account native to Linux and Macintosh OS X?
A. Administrator
B. Root
C. Admin
D. Supervisor
B. Root
This type of malware replicates through networks.
A. rootkit
B. macro
C. worm
D. Trojan
C. worm
Which of the following is malware that pretends to do one thing, or looks as if it's doing one thing, while doing something evil?
A. rootkit
B. macro
C. worm
D. Trojan
D. Trojan
Network components will fail, and you can sum up the best protection against such failure in one word. Select that word from the following:
A. firewalls
B. redundancy
C. DMZ
D. rootkit
B. redundancy
This type of Trojan takes advantage of very low-level operating system functions to hide itself from most less-sophisticated anti-malware tools.
A. rootkit
B. macro
C. worm
D. Trojan
A. rootkit
This term describes several methods for spreading data across multiple drives.
A. inheritance
B. RAID
C. macro
D. honeypot
B. RAID
While not malware, strictly speaking, this type of program monitors the types of Web sites you frequent and uses that information to create targeted advertisements, often pop-up windows.
A. spyware
B. macro
C. adware
D. Trojan
C. adware
This term describes an unauthorized person who is intentionally trying to access resources on your network.
A. virus
B. authenticated user
C. hacker
D. Trojan
C. hacker
This term describes any program that sends information about you or your computer over the Internet without your consent.
A. spyware
B. macro
C. adware
D. Trojan
A. spyware
Which of the following is the "super" account native to Linux and Macintosh OS X?
A. Administrator
B. Root
C. Admin
D. Supervisor
B. Root
What is the name for the most recent and more nefarious form of social engineering tactics?
A. Denial of Service
B. phishing
C. smurf attack
D. zombie
B. phishing
This type of malware replicates through networks.
A. rootkit
B. macro
C. worm
D. Trojan
C. worm
Which of the following is malware that pretends to do one thing, or looks as if it's doing one thing, while doing something evil?
A. rootkit
B. macro
C. worm
D. Trojan
D. Trojan
This type of Trojan takes advantage of very low-level operating system functions to hide itself from most less-sophisticated anti-malware tools.
A. rootkit
B. macro
C. worm
D. Trojan
A. rootkit
While not malware, strictly speaking, this type of program monitors the types of Web sites you frequent and uses that information to create targeted advertisements, often pop-up windows.
A. spyware
B. macro
C. adware
D. Trojan
C. adware
This term describes any program that sends information about you or your computer over the Internet without your consent.
A. spyware
B. macro
C. adware
D. Trojan
A. spyware
What is the name for the most recent and more nefarious form of social engineering tactics?
A. Denial of Service
B. phishing
C. smurf attack
D. zombie
B. phishing
What type of attack uses zombie computers to bring a network down under a massive number of requests?
A. DDOS
B. phishing
C. smurf attack
D. zombie
A. DDOS
This term describes a single computer under the control of a (usually) remote operator.
A. DDOS
B. phishing
C. smurf attack
D. zombie
D. zombie
Which of the following are alternatives to passwords for authentication? (Select all that apply.)
A. smart devices
B. biometric devices
C. factors
D. inheritance
A. smart devices
B. biometric devices
What is the term that describes an approach that uses tight control over what a user account can do on a network, allowing the user to only do what he or she needs to do for the job, and no more?
A. user account control
B. least privilege
C. group permissions
D. administrative access control
B. least privilege
. Assigning permissions to this type of account makes keeping track of assigned permissions much easier.
A. user
B. group
C. administrator
D. super
B. group
If a user is a member of more than one group, then the permissions to a single resource assigned to the different groups are combined. What is the term used to describe the resulting permissions.
A. elective
B. combined
C. inheritance
D. effective
D. effective
This term describes how permissions pass down from folder to folder.
A. elective
B. combined
C. inheritance
D. effective
C. inheritance
This is a network's first line of defense against external threats.
A. port filtering
B. firewall
C. Network Address Translation (NAT)
D. MAC filtering
B. firewall
This common technique, employed at the edge of a network, eliminates the need for public IP addresses on a private network while hiding the actual addresses of internal network hosts.
A. port filtering
B. firewall
C. Network Address Translation (NAT)
D. MAC filtering
C. Network Address Translation (NAT)
What technique is used to guard against hackers looking for ways to send unauthorized TCP or UDP packets into your network?
A. port filtering
B. firewall
C. Network Address Translation (NAT)
D. MAC filtering
A. port filtering
. These firewall technologies block traffic based on the IP address. (Select all that apply.)
A. packet filtering
B. MAC filtering
C. port filtering
D. IP filtering
A. packet filtering
D. IP filtering
What type of filtering is employed when traffic is blocked just based on IP address?
A. stateful
B. port
C. stateless
D. MAC
C. stateless
What type of filtering is employed when all packets are examined as a stream, and when a stream is disrupted or packets get corrupted, the firewall acts accordingly?
A. stateful
B. port
C. stateless
D. MAC
A. stateful
What firewall technology allows or denies access to a network according to the MAC address of the computer seeking access?
A. port filtering
B. firewall
C. Network Address Translation (NAT)
D. MAC filtering
D. MAC filtering
What is the only network protection provided by Windows Internet Connection Sharing (ICS)?
A. port filtering
B. firewall
C. Network Address Translation (NAT)
D. MAC filtering
C. Network Address Translation (NAT)
This is a clever way to lure potential hackers in and log their behavior.
A. port filtering
B. honeypot
C. Network Address Translation (NAT)
D. demilitarized zone
B. honeypot
You position this lightly protected network between your firewall and the Internet, while your intranet is secure behind the firewall.
A. port filtering
B. honeypot
C. Network Address Translation (NAT)
D. demilitarized zone
D. demilitarized zone
. A clever administrator organizes users into this type of account.
A. user
B. group
C. administrator
D. super
B. group
What type of device you can insert into a PC in lieu of entering a password?
A. smart
B. biometric
C. factor
D. USB
A. smart
This type of device accepts something of the user, such as a fingerprint, retina scan, or voiceprint in place of a password.
A. smart devices
B. biometric devices
C. factors
D. inheritance
B. biometric devices
Which type of attack involves the attacker inserting him - or herself into a conversation between two others?
A. phishing
B. man in the middle
C. malware
D. leeching
B. man in the middle
All of the following are attacks on wireless connections EXCEPT:
A. leeching
B. cracking encryption
C. evil twin
D. FTP bounce
D. FTP bounce
Utility programs that can scan a network to determine things like open ports or passive applications are called:
A. viruses
B. Trojans
C. vulnerability scanners
D. firewalls
C. vulnerability scanners
Which of the following is NOT a technique used to deal with malware?
A. anti-malware
B. patch management
C. training
D. wireless encryption
D. wireless encryption
Combined permissions that lead to conflicting permissions, where a user does not get access to a needed resource, are usually caused by:
A. deny permissions
B. authentication problems
C. malware
D. identification issues
A. deny permissions
Which of the following allows all VMs to communicate with each other, the host, and the network?
A. hypervisors
B. virtual switches
C. Virtual PBX
D. Virtual Machine Manager
B. virtual switches
Which of the following is a cloud service offering virtualized networks, servers, and services?
A. Network as a Service
B. Software as a Service
C. Virtualization as a Service
D. virtual machine
A. Network as a Service
Which of the following creates a complete environment for a guest operating system to function as though that operating system were installed on its own computer?
A. emulation
B. translation
C. virtualization
D. polyinstantiation
C. virtualization
What is the term for an environment created by software, with sight and sound provided by video and audio equipment, primarily used for gaming and simulation?
A. virtual reality
B. virtual machine
C. hypervisor
D. sandbox
A. virtual reality
Which of the following describes software or hardware that converts the commands to and from the host machine into an entirely different platform?
A. hypervisor
B. Virtual Machine Manager
C. supervisor
D. emulator
D. emulator
All of the following are virtual machine managers EXCEPT:
A. VMware Workstation
B. KVM
C. Microsoft Virtual PC
D. Snes9X
D. Snes9X
Which of the following are important reasons to implement virtualization? (Select all that apply.)
A. hardware increases
B. research and testing
C. system recovery
D. system installation
E. both B and C
E. both B and C
All of the following are advantages to using virtualization in research and testing environments EXCEPT
A. product testing
B. security testing
C. development testing
D. hardware testing
D. hardware testing
All of the following are examples of hypervisors EXCEPT:
A. ESX
B. Virtual PC
C. Hyper-V
D. Oracle VM Server
B. Virtual PC
All of the following are characteristics of VMware's ESX Server EXCEPT:
A. support for large storage
B. ability to move running VMs
C. automatic fault tolerance
D. requires Linux host OS
D. requires Linux host OS
. A technique that gives each virtual NIC a connection to a physical NIC is called:
A. bridging
B. routing
C. NAT
D. switching
A. bridging
A form of virtualization that eliminates telephone switching hardware is called a:
A. VoIP
B. POTS
C. Virtual PBX
D. ISDN
C. Virtual PBX
What is another term for a virtual machine?
A. host
B. guest
C. emulator
D. environment
B. guest
Which of the following operating systems, when added as a virtual machine, requires a separate, licensed copy?
A. Microsoft Windows
B. Ubuntu Linux
C. FreeDOS
D. OpenBSD
A. Microsoft Windows
. Most virtual machine managers replace the CTRL-ALT-DELETE key sequence with:
A. CTRL-ALT-INSERT
B. CTRL-ALT-ESC
C. CTRL-ALT-FN
D. ALT-F4
A. CTRL-ALT-INSERT
A virtual machine that is not powered on is stored as a:
A. hard drive
B. process in RAM
C. set of files
D. snapshot
C. set of files
. An advantage of virtualization that enables a VM to be replicated is known as:
A. system restoration
B. system installation
C. system recovery
D. system duplication
D. system duplication
Which of the following is a virtual machine manager for Mac OS X?
A. VirtualPC
B. Parallels
C. Hyper-V
D. ESX
B. Parallels
Which of the following is an open-source virtual machine manager developed by Red Hat?
A. Virtual PC
B. Xen
C. Virtual Box
D. KVM
D. KVM
VMware's ESX server can support up to how many CPUs, depending upon the version?
A. 32
B. 4
C. 8
D. 64
A. 32
. All of the following are characteristics of Hyper-V EXCEPT:
A. available for free
B. Microsoft product
C. requires Windows Server 2008
D. simple to use
C. requires Windows Server 2008
Which of the following is a type of virtual switching that gives every VM its own physical NIC?
A. virtual bridging
B. dedicated bridging
C. routing
D. NAT
B. dedicated bridging
Which of the following terms describe a point-in-time backup of a virtual machine?
A. full backup
B. differential backup
C. snapshot
D. system state backup
C. snapshot
Which of the following is the first step a virtual machine takes when it is powered on?
A. POST
B. instant-on
C. snapshot
D. dedicated bridging
A. POST
Which of the following is the most limiting factor in a host's ability to run virtual machines?
A. hard disk space
B. network bandwidth
C. CPU
D. RAM
D. RAM
Which of the following advantages to virtualization provides significant cost savings in utility usage?
A. hardware consolidation
B. power savings
C. system recovery
D. system duplication
B. power savings
Which of the following requires an underlying operating system in order to create and manage virtual machines?
A. hypervisor
B. Virtual Switch
C. Virtual PBX
D. virtual machine manager (VMM)
D. virtual machine manager (VMM)
VMware Fusion is a popular virtual machine manager for which operating system?
A. Solaris
B. Linux
C. Mac OS X
D. Windows 7
C. Mac OS X
. The term "bare-metal" virtualization software refers to which of the following?
A. hypervisors
B. VMMs
C. virtual switches
D. hardware consolidation
A. hypervisors
The practice of hosting machines, processing, or networks at a site other than your location is referred to as:
A. onsite
B. offsite
C. centralized
D. decentralized
B. offsite
Which of the following are vulnerabilities of a poorly managed network? (Select all that apply.)
A. lack of security
B. unnecessary cost
C. unnecessary redundancy
D. lack of efficiency
A. lack of security
B. unnecessary cost
C. unnecessary redundancy
D. lack of efficiency
What is the overall term for the set of documents, policies, and procedures for maintaining and updating a network with the objective of lessening vulnerabilities?
A. configuration management
B. physical network diagram
C. wiring diagram
D. logical network diagram
A. configuration management
Which of the following identifies how wires in a network connect to various switches and other devices?
A. configuration management
B. physical network diagram
C. network diagram
D. wiring scheme
D. wiring scheme
Which of the following documents the cabling runs of a network, defining the type of connections, such as Gigabit Ethernet, T1, and so on?
A. configuration management
B. network diagram
C. wiring scheme
D. network map
B. network diagram
Which of the following includes every router, switch, server, CSU/DSU, cable modem, and wireless access point, including the make and model and firmware upgrade?
A. configuration management
B. network diagram
C. wiring scheme
D. network map
B. network diagram
Whose job is it to create a network diagram?
A. human resources
B. network administrator
C. network technician
D. desktop support technician
B. network administrator
This document describes the broadcast domains and individual IP addresses for all devices in a network with static IP addresses, sometimes showing individual computers, but rarely showing connections to individual computers.
A. configuration management
B. network diagram
C. wiring scheme
D. network map
B. network diagram
Which of the following includes diagrams of individual structured cabling connections, including the actual designation for each cable run, such as the wiring details for an EIA/TIA 568B connection?
A. configuration management
B. network diagram
C. wiring scheme
D. network map
C. wiring scheme
Which of the following would be included in a network diagram? (Select all that apply.)
A. gateway router
B. IP addresses
C. VLAN switches
D. EIA/TIA details
A. gateway router
C. VLAN switches
Which of the following is a term that describes a log of performance and other indicators taken of a network and its server during normal operations?
A. application log
B. system log
C. security log
D. baseline
D. baseline
Which of the following are policies that affect most users? (Select all that apply.)
A. acceptable use
B. configuration
C. security
D. upgrade
A. acceptable use
C. security
How to deal with a virus attack would be detailed under which of the following?
A. acceptable user policy
B. security policy
C. configuration policy
D. baseline
B. security policy
Which of the following describes exactly what a user can and cannot do with the organization's computers and network?
A. acceptable use policy
B. security policy
C. configuration policy
D. baseline
A. acceptable use policy
Almost every Cisco device has a command a network tech can use to document that configuration of that document. What is that command?
A. Performance Monitor
B. show startup-config
C. netstat
D. msconfig
B. show startup-config
This Windows utility will allow you to gather information on many aspects of a computer and network, which you can save in log files to serve as a baseline.
A. Performance Monitor
B. show config
C. netstat
D. msconfig
A. Performance Monitor
Which of the following is a way of presenting information in Performance Monitor?
A. object
B. view
C. counter
D. log
B. view
Which of the following is a measurable feature of a system component in Windows Performance Monitor?
A. object
B. view
C. counter
D. log
C. counter
Which of the following is a system component that can be measured in Windows Performance Monitor?
A. object
B. view
C. counter
D. log
A. object
Use this capability of Performance Monitor to save data collected on system and network performance.
A. object
B. view
C. counter
D. log
D. log
. This log records events such as logon successes and failures.
A. system
B. security
C. application
D. network
B. security
. This log records events related to services, device drivers, and configuration changes.
A. system
B. security
C. application
D. network
A. system
This log records events related to a program, including starts, stops, and failures.
A. system
B. security
C. application
D. network
C. application
What is the name of the Windows utility for viewing log files?
A. Performance Monitor
B. System Tools
C. show config
D. Event Viewer
D. Event Viewer
This term applies to the result of techniques that make sure a shared resource is available in a timely manner when clients request.
A. caching
B. resource availability
C. high availability
D. data backup
C. high availability
This term applies to the process of storing data that someone asks for in the hope that someone else will ask for it again.
A. caching
B. resource availability
C. high availability
D. data backup
A. caching
In spite of all attempts to protect networks, systems do fail, and when you rebuild a new system, you must have a recent one of these in order to get back up and running.
A. caching
B. resource availability
C. high availability
D. data backup
D. data backup
Data backup, UPSes, backup generators, and redundant hardware all provide some form of this.
A. fault tolerance
B. QoS
C. traffic shaping
D. caching
A. fault tolerance
This form of redundancy uses multiple hard drives working together in such a way that if one drive fails, the others will continue without interruption.
A. RAID 1
B. UPS
C. data backup
D. RAID 0
A. RAID 1
. This keeps your servers running for a short period of time after an electrical brownout or blackout.
A. UPS
B. backup generator
C. RAID
D. redundant hardware
A. UPS
This term describes multiple servers or groups of servers representing a single server, distributing the load and protecting from the failure of a single server.
A. RAID
B. UPS
C. cluster
D. QoS
C. cluster
. Which of the following is not a category of logs?
A. general
B. history
C. system
D. traffic
D. traffic
. Which of the following RAID levels has no fault tolerance?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 5
D. RAID 6
A. RAID 0
Which of the following is a Unix/Linux logging program?
A. Event Viewer
B. PerfMon
C. Syslog
D. Console
C. Syslog
This type of configuration document goes deeper into the individual components of the network:
A. network map
B. wiring scheme
C. network diagram
D. baseline
A. network map
Which of the following terms describes cabling and connectors in network wiring standards used (CAT53, 568A, fiber, and so on)?
A. network map
B. baseline
C. network diagram
D. wiring scheme
D. wiring scheme
Which of the following are considerations in designing and building a network? (Select all that apply.)
A. list of requirements
B. compatibility issues
C. security
D. peripherals
A. list of requirements
B. compatibility issues
C. security
D. peripherals
Network design must consider all of the following factors EXCEPT:
A. acceptable use policies
B. wireless
C. structured cabling
D. system security
A. acceptable use policies
Which of the following steps determines the requirements for the network?
A. define the network's needs
B. determine external connections
C. determine internal connections
D. plan security
A. define the network's needs
Structured cabling is a design consideration related to which of the following?
A. compatibility
B. external connections
C. security
D. internal connections
D. internal connections
Which of the following are considered network peripherals? (Select all that apply.)
A. switch
B. printer
C. router
D. scanner
B. printer
D. scanner
All of the following are considered characteristics of a SOHO network EXCEPT:
A. simple design (usually)
B. wide variety of enterprise-level services and servers
C. a minimal number of switches, routers, servers, and workstations
D. standardization of operating systems
B. wide variety of enterprise-level services and servers
All of the following are considerations in determining network needs EXCEPT:
A. determining size and location
B. determining host and server operating systems
C. determining how many servers are needed
D. determining file and folder access permissions
D. determining file and folder access permissions
Quantifying the need for equipment, operating systems, and network applications is a function of which of the following?
A. security
B. structured cabling
C. network design
D. compatibility
C. network design
All of the following are considerations when selecting workstations EXCEPT:
A. brand
B. standardized hardware
C. standardized operating systems
D. number for each employee
D. number for each employee
. Which of the following can be used to avoid using a full-blown file server?
A. File Server
B. Workstation
C. Peripheral
D. Network Attached Storage (NAS)
D. Network Attached Storage (NAS)
Design considerations such as purpose and functionality, operating system, redundancy, and backups primarily affect which of the following devices?
A. switches
B. routers
C. servers
D. PBX
C. servers
. All of the following factors affect equipment room design and selection EXCEPT:
A. location
B. size
C. power
D. operating system
D. operating system
Which of the following are ways that peripherals, such as printers and scanners, may be networked? (Select all that apply.)
A. dedicated NIC
B. serial cable
C. shared from computer
D. virtualization
A. dedicated NIC
C. shared from computer
Compatibility issues stemming from newer equipment or applications when integrated with older or legacy ones are called:
A. frontward compatibility
B. data compatibility
C. connector compatibility
D. backward compatibility
D. backward compatibility
Network compatibility issues affect interoperability of all of the following EXCEPT:
A. network devices
B. data
C. applications
D. cabling
B. data
. Which of the following is a compatibility issue with wireless networking?
A. encryption
B. user accounts
C. WAP placement
D. signal strength
A. encryption
Which of the following are desired features on a network switch? (Select all that apply.)
A. encryption
B. Power over Ethernet (PoE)
C. VLAN support
D. WAN support
B. Power over Ethernet (PoE)
C. VLAN support
All of the following are design considerations with structured cabling EXCEPT:
A. length of runs
B. documentation
C. CAT ratings
D. data flow
D. data flow
. Which of the following is NOT a consideration when considering electrical and environmental issues in equipment rooms?
A. temperature
B. humidity
C. electrical load capacity
D. data
D. data
Which of the following can reduce equipment needs, consolidate servers, and provide security features to a network?
A. outsourcing
B. virtualization
C. insourcing
D. Software as a Service (SaaS)
B. virtualization
. Which of the following switch features can be used to prevent broadcasts from spanning networks?
A. WANs
B. placement
C. VLANs
D. encryption
C. VLANs
Which of the following enables access and management capabilities on servers and network devices even when there is no power to the device?
A. lights-out management
B. remote management
C. SNMP
D. virtual management
A. lights-out management
All of the following are design considerations in a network's IP address scheme EXCEPT:
A. static address assignment
B. MAC addressing
C. DHCP address assignment
D. private IP addressing
B. MAC addressing
All of the following are factors involved in router selection EXCEPT:
A. scalability
B. expandability
C. media support
D. VLAN support
D. VLAN support
Which of the following design considerations affects the bandwidth and reliability of external connections?
A. ISP selection
B. switch selection
C. structured cabling
D. security
A. ISP selection
What is the Maximum Transmission Unit (MTU) for Ethernet?
A. 1000 bytes
B. 1400 bytes
C. 2500 bytes
D. 1500 bytes
D. 1500 bytes
. What is an MTU compatibility issue that can occur when an Ethernet network connects to an ISP's WAN connection?
A. MTU mismatch
B. MTU black hole
C. Path MTU Discovery
D. MTU fragmentation
A. MTU mismatch
What is an MTU issue that can happen when a network device blocks ICMP traffic?
A. MTU mismatch
B. MTU black hole
C. Path MTU Discovery
D. MTU fragmentation
B. MTU black hole
All of the following are security issues inherent in network design EXCEPT:
A. wireless encryption
B. equipment theft
C. data format
D. Access Control Lists
C. data format
Door locks, deadbolts, and motion sensors that protect equipment rooms are all forms of which type of security?
A. physical
B. logical
C. managerial
D. technical
A. physical
Which of the following is a tool that can tell you where a cable break is on a copper cable?
A. cable tester
B. TDR
C. certifier
D. OTDR
B. TDR
Which of the following is a tool that can tell you if a cable can handle its rated amount of capacity?
A. cable tester
B. TDR
C. certifier
D. OTDR
C. certifier
Which of the following is a tool that can tell you if there's a continuity problem or if a wire map isn't correct?
A. cable tester
B. TDR
C. certifier
D. OTDR
A. cable tester
Which of the following is a tool that can tell you where a cable break is on a fiber cable?
A. cable tester
B. TDR
C. certifier
D. OTDR
D. OTDR
A good one of these will give you Application, Session, Transport, Network, and Data Link layer information from every frame traveling through your network.
A. voltage event recorder
B. protocol analyzer
C. certifier
D. cable tester
B. protocol analyzer
Which of the following is a tool that you can use to make UTP cables?
A. TDR
B. OTDR
C. cable stripper
D. butt set
C. cable stripper
Which tool do you use to tap into a 66-block or 110-block to see if a particular line is working?
A. TDR
B. OTDR
C. cable stripper
D. butt set
D. butt set
Which of the following is a tool that positions UTP wires into a 66- or 110-block?
A. TDR
B. punchdown tool
C. cable stripper
D. butt set
B. punchdown tool
Which of the following is a software tool you would use to discover just where a problem exists when you have problems reaching a remote system?
A. nslookup
B. ping
C. ipconfig
D. tracert
D. tracert
Which of the following commands can you use to diagnose DNS problems on a Windows computer?
A. nslookup
B. ping
C. ipconfig
D. dig
A. nslookup
. This command is not available on Windows, but on a computer running Linux or Mac OS X, this command will let you diagnose DNS problems.
A. nslookup
B. ping
C. ipconfig
D. dig
D. dig
This command keeps running, providing a dynamic trace of the route a packet is taking. It is not available in Windows.
A. mtr
B. route
C. routetraceroute
D. ping
A. mtr
. This Windows-only program must be run with a switch (such as -n) and lets you see the NetBIOS names of systems on your Windows network (it will also see SAMBA systems).
A. nslookup
B. netstat
C. nbtstat
D. hostname
C. nbtstat
This tool displays information on the current status of all running IP processes, showing what sessions are active, and shows more information when run with certain switches.
A. nslookup
B. netstat
C. nbtstat
D. hostname
B. netstat
. This type of tool, also called a protocol analyzer, intercepts and logs network packets.
A. certifier
B. arping
C. packet sniffer
D. port scanner
C. packet sniffer
. This type of tool probes ports on another system, and logs the state of the scanned ports.
A. certifier
B. arping
C. packet sniffer
D. port scanner
D. port scanner
What systems can use the arping command? (Select all that apply.)
A. Windows
B. Mac OS X
C. Linux
D. UNIX
B. Mac OS X
C. Linux
D. UNIX
Which of the following is included in the output from the arping command?
A. "bytes="
B. "time<"
C. "Unicast reply from 1/4"
D. "global options:"
C. "Unicast reply from 1/4"
Which of the following commands displays lines that include both the IP address and MAC address of the target system?
A. ping
B. nslookup
C. arping
D. mtr
C. arping
Which of the following commands displays the metrics for each router?
A. nslookup
B. routetraceroute
C. route
D. mtr
D. mtr
When you run the ipconfig command, what switch must you use if you wish to see detailed information?
A. /release
B. /all
C. /renew
D. /allcompartments
B. /all
When you run the route command, what switch must you use if you wish to see the current routing table on your computer?
A. display
B. show all
C. screen
D. print
D. print
When you run the nbtstat command, what switch must you use if you wish to see the NetBIOS names on the local network?
A. /display
B. /n
C. -n
D. -r
C. -n
When you run the netstat command, what switch must you use if you wish to see the current routing table on your computer?
A. /display
B. /n
C. -n
D. -r
D. -r
. What will display when you run netstat without any switches?
A. current sessions
B. local routing table
C. NetBIOS names
D. DNS server names
A. current sessions
Which of the following appear in the output from the netstat command when the command is run without switches? (Select all that apply.)
A. proto
B. foreign address
C. local address
D. state
A. proto
B. foreign address
C. local address
D. state
Which of the following is a problem you would want to escalate? (Select all that apply.)
A. inability of user to log in
B. switching loop
C. broadcast storm
D. route problems
B. switching loop
C. broadcast storm
D. route problems
Which of the following is a software tool that is built into operating systems? (Select all that apply.)
A. port scanner
B. ipconfig
C. packet sniffer
D. traceroute
B. ipconfig
D. traceroute
. Which of the following is a type of third-party network troubleshooting tool? (Select all that apply.)
A. port scanner
B. ipconfig
C. packet sniffer
D. traceroute
E. both A and C
E. both A and C
What command contains information about physical NICs and virtual NICs (tunnel adapters)?
A. ping
B. route
C. ipconfig
D. dig
C. ipconfig
. What is another term for a switching loop?
A. routing loop
B. ARP loop
C. bridging loop
D. broadcast loop
C. bridging loop
Which of the following is the first step in troubleshooting?
A. establish a theory of probable cause
B. identify the problem
C. implement and test the solution
D. test the theory to determine cause
B. identify the problem
Which protocol will help prevent downtime due to failures on the default gateway?
A. HSRP
B. OSPF
C. BGP
D. RIP v2
A. HSRP
Which of the following commands enable you to determine if a connection can be made between two computers?
A. traceroute
B. route
C. arp
D. dig
A. traceroute
All of the following help to identify a problem during the troubleshooting process EXCEPT:
A. identify symptoms
B. determine if anything has changed
C. determine next steps to resolve problem
D. question users
C. determine next steps to resolve problem
All of the following are considered good troubleshooting steps EXCEPT:
A. identify the problem
B. implement and test the solution and escalate as necessary
C. test the theory to determine cause
D. change multiple factors at once to quickly determine the cause
D. change multiple factors at once to quickly determine the cause