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200 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
what two parameters determine an individual's blood pressure?
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cardiac output x stroke volume
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what two parameters determine an individual's cardiac output?
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stroke volume x heart rate
|
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what elevated parameters is elevated blood pressure/hypertension due to?
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cardiac output and/or peripheral resistance
|
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what percentage of hypertension is considered primary or essential hypertension?
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98%
|
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is a higher risk associated with elevated systolic or diastolic blood pressure?
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systolic
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what are five routine laboratory tests that are used to evaluate a person for hypertension?
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(1) urinalysis
(2) CBC (3) BMP (4) lipid profile (5) ECG |
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At what level of blood pressure do you want to keep someone with uncomplicated hypertension below?
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140/90
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At what level of blood pressure do you want to keep someone who has hypertension with diabetes mellitus?
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130/80
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At what level of blood pressure do you want to keep someone who has hypertension with renal impairment?
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130/80
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At what level of blood pressure do you want to keep someone with high risk hypertension?
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130/80
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About how much does blood pressure decrease with weight loss?
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5-20 mm Hg/10 kg
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About how much does blood pressure decrease when someone adopts the DASH eating plan?
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8-14 mm Hg
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About how much does blood pressure decrease when someone goes on a 2 g Na diet?
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2-8 mm Hg
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About how much does blood pressure decrease with 150 mins/wk of physical activity?
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4-9 mm Hg (only if HR is elevated)
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About how much does blood pressure decrease with moderation of alcohol comsumption?
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2-4 mm Hg
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this type of hypertension is when it is poorly controlled and the person is on three drugs including a diuretic
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resistant
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this type of hypertensive state requires immediate blood pressure reduction to prevent or limit target organ damage
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hypertensive emergency
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this type of hypertensive state benefits from reducing blood pressure within a few hours
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hypertensive urgency
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this type of hypertension seen in pregnant women is high blood pressure present before pregnancy or diagnosed before the 20th week of gestation
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chronic
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this type of hypertension seen in pregnant women is increased blood pressure that occurs in pregnancy (after the 20th week) and is accompanied by edema, proteinuria, or both
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preeclampsia
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what three types of drugs are contraindicated for pregnant women?
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ACE inhibitors, angiotensin II receptor blockers, and direct renin inhibitors
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what drug is commonly recommended for women diagnosed with hypertension during pregnancy?
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methyldopa
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what blood pressure level should you use as a guide to determine if blood pressure is too high?
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180/100
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suffix meaning to create, produce
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-genesis
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suffix meaning to break down
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-lysis
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highly-branched polysaccharide composed of glucose subunits; major carbohydrate storage form in humans
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glycogen
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synthesis of glycogen, predominantly in the liver and skeletal muscle
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glycogenesis
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breakdown of glycogen to glucose
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glycogenolysis
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formation of glucose by the liver or kidneys from pyruvate, lactate, glycerol, or amino acids
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gluconeogenesis
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metabolic pathway that breaks down glucose to two molecules of pyruvate (aerobically) or two molecules of lactate (anaerobically)
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glycolysis
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synthesis of triacylglycerol
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lipogenesis
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breakdown of triacylglycerol, the primary energetic storage for of lipids
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lipolysis
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production of ketones, predominantly in the liver
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ketogenesis
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any of the three compounds created by acetyl CoA which are water soluble cellular fuels normally exported by the liver; used by the brain in situations of starvation
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ketone body
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what are the three ketone bodies?
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(1) acetoacetate
(2) hydroxybutyrate (3) acetone |
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an acid containing a ketone group (-CO-) in addition to the acid group(s)
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ketoacid
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product of fatty acid metabolism that accumulates in blood during starvation and in severe untreated diabetes; acetoacetic acid, acetone or B hydroxybutyric acid (also called ketone body)
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ketone
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plasma pH <7.35 accompanied by the accumulation of ketone bodies in the body tissues and fluids
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ketoacidosis
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high blood glucose concentration
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hyperglycemia
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low blood glucose concentration
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hypoglycemia
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normal blood glucose concentration
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euglycemia
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what is the role of glucose in the human body?
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provides energy for the body's cells
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what are some of the consequences of low blood glucose (hypoglycemia)?
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anxiety
shakiness mental confusion sweating later, at risk for seizures |
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what are some of the consequences of high blood glucose (hyperglycemia)?
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increased respiration
fruity smell diabetic coma ketoacidosis |
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this type of diabetes is an autoimmune destruction of pancreas beta cells; caused by hyposecretion
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type I
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this type of diabetes is slow onset, and subtle; caused by hyporesponsiveness
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type II
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what are the three major organs involved in the metabolism of carbohydrates, proteins, and fat?
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(1) liver
(2) adipose cells (3) skeletal muscle |
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what is the major hormone used to lower blood glucose?
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insulin
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control of the flow of fuels in or out of the major organs that matabolize fuels is via what two mechanisms?
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(1) hormones
(2) autonomic nervous system |
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what hormones are used to control blood glucose?
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insulin, glucagon, epinephrine, norepinephrine, cortisol, and growth hormone (insulin is the only one that lowers, the rest raise)
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this metabolic functional state is a state of plenty and occurs when ingested nutrients are being absorbed into the blood; anabolic pathways predominate, resulting in maitaining body proteins, and store energy molecules in the form of fat or glycogen
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absorptive state
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this metabolic functional state, the state of fasting, occurs when no nutrients are absorbed from the gastrointestinal system; the major goal of this state is to spare glucose for the nervous system; metabolic pathways stimulated during this state are catabolism of carbohydrates, fat, and proteins
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postabsorptive state
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what are the two major hormones of the absorptive state?
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insulin and growth hormone
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about 2/3 of ingested CHO is this plant polysaccharide
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starch
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about 1/3 of ingested CHO is in the form of these two disaccharides
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sucrose and lactose
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the majority of ingested CHO is digested and absorbed where?
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the upper 20% of the small intestine
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approximately __% of ingested CHO are absorbed
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98%
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digestion of CHO begins in the mouth where what enzyme begins to break down starch?
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salivary amylase
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salivary amylase begins to break starch down into what type of CHO?
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disaccharides and short branches chains of glucose
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what are three types of disaccharides?
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(1) sucrose
(2) lactose (3) maltose |
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in the small intestine, what enzyme digests starch into disaccharides and short branched chains of glucose?
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pancreatic amylase
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sucrose, lactose, maltose and glucose are further digested by these enzymes located in the border of GI epithelial cells into monosaccharides
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luminal enzymes
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what are the three monosaccharides that the disaccharides and branched chains of glucose are broken down into in the GI tract?
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(1) glucose
(2) galactose (3) fructose |
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this glucose transporter gets glucose into the skeletal muscle cells
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Glut 4
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this glucose transporter on the basal membrane transports monosaccharides out of the G1 epithelial cells into the interstitial space; it is also found in the liver, pancreas, and kidney
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Glut 2
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how does glucose enter the beta cells of the pancreas?
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via facilitated transport through the Glut-2 transporter
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the metabolism of glucose is coupled with an influx of what and a section of what?
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calcium, insulin
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this is a key anabolic hormone for many tissues in the body to promote glucose uptake into skeletal muscle cells and adipocytes
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insulin
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this is the preferred energy source for the body's cells; it can be fully oxidized to ATP
|
glucose
|
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what is the key pathway for the breakdown of glucose in the body?
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glycolysis
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what are the two fates of glucose when it enters the liver?
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(1) liver glycogen
(2) becomes triglycerides that are packaged into VLDLs and enter the circulation |
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what are the two fates of glucose when it enters the muscle?
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(1) muscle glycogen
(2) oxidized for energy |
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what is the fate of glucose when it enters the adipocytes?
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triglycerides
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what is the alternative mechanism (other than insulin) that is used to promote glucose entry into muscle cells?
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muscle contraction
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what are the two main responses to exercise (in relation to glucose)?
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(1) increased glucose transport
(2) after exercise effect: promotes insulin sensitivity and glycogen storage |
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this is a transmembrane receptor that possesses tyrosine kinase activity on the muscle cells and adipocytes
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insulin receptor
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this is a protein that is involved in glucose transport; its inhibition allows glut-4 transporter translocation
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AS160
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this protein phosphorylates AS160, therefore allowing glut4 translocation; also stimulates glycogenesis
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Akt
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this is a glucose transporter that facilitates glucose diffusion in response to insulin signaling or muscle contraction
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Glut-4
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this kinase acts as a fuel sensor; when activated, it favors catabolic pathways and stimulates production of 2 ADP--> ATP + AMP
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AMPK (AMP activated kinase)
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the brain accounts for approximately __ % of the consumption of glucose when the body is at rest
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60
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a total of about __ g of glucose is consumed per day
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120
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the brain is sensitive to lowered blood glucose, therefore, below __ mg/dL you will see signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia
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70
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blood glucose levels below __ mg/dL is a serious situation (can be life-threatening)
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40
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during situations of starvation, the brain utilizes __
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ketones
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what are the three major fuels for muscles?
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(1) carbohydrates
(2) fats (3) ketones |
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during resting conditions, muscle preferentially utilizes what for energy?
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fatty acids
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glycogen can be converted into what molecule during muscle contraction to meet the energy demands of the muscle?
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glucose-6-phosphate
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this cycle is when pyruvate can be converted into lactate or alanine, which are then transported by the circulation to the liver where it uses them to produce glucose
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Cori cycle
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these molecules are synthesized within the adipocytes from fatty acids, glycerol, and glucose
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triglycerides
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this enzyme catalyzes the breakdown of triglycerides to fatty acids and glycerol
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lipase
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a major stimulus for the release of fatty acids is the level of what molecule that is a metabolite of glucose?
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glycerol-3-phosphate
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the liver stores about __-__ kcals of glycogen
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400-450 (100 g)
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during this phase, the liver takes of glucose and promotes glycogenesis
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absorptive
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during this phase, the liver releases glucose through the metabolic processes of glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis
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post absorptive
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during periods of excess triglycerides, the liver synthesizes these molecules
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VLDLs
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during periods of low fuel availability, the liver converts fatty acids into what?
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ketones
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the liver meets its own energy requirements through the production of what from amino acids?
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ketoacids
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about how much glucose is containe din the plasma?
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3g or 12 kcal
|
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where is the major glycogen storage in the body?
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muscle glycogen
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what is the body's upper limit for glycogen storage?
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15 g/kg body mass
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what is the body's upper limit of glycogen storage for a 70 kg male?
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1050 g; about 4200 kcal
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what is the body's upper limit of glcogen storage for a 56 kg female?
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840 g; about 3360 kcal
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on the average normal diet, what are muscle glycogen stores?
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400 g (1600 kcal)
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the digestion of proteins begins in the stomach, where the secretion of __ is converted into __ in the presence of H?
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pepsinogen; pepsin
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what cells in the stomach secrete pepsinogen?
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chief cells
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__% of ingested protein is absorbed as amino acids?
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99%
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in the small intestines, peptide fragments are converted into what molecules?
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oligopeptides (3-8 amino acid residues)
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in the small intestines, what enzyme converts peptide fragments into oligopeptides?
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pancreatic enzymes (trypsin, chymotrypsin, elastase, carboxypeptidase)
|
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what enzymes in the stomach allow oligopeptides to be digested into amino acids or short peptides of 2 or 3 amino acids?
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intestinal brush boarder peptidases
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what are the three major fates of absorbed proteins?
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(1) amino acids enter the body cells and are used for synthesis of proteins
(2) amino acids enter the liver where they can be oxidized for energy or used to synthesize liver proteins (3) some amino acids are converted into ketoacids |
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what are the three major fates of the ketoacids?
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(1) converted into urea for excretion by kidney
(2) can enter the Krebs cycle for oxidation (3) can be converted into fatty acids |
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what is another name for dietary fat?
|
chylomicron
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which enzyme in the circulation releases free fatty acids and monoglycerides from dietary fat that can enter the body's cells?
|
lipoprotein lipase
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fat digestion and absorption occurs almost entirely in what organ?
|
the small intestine
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about __% of ingested fat is absorbed
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95%
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What are six functions of calcium in the body?
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(1) muscle contraction
(2) role in action potential (3) second messenger (4) exocytosis of messengers (neurotransmitter, insulin) (5) major bone mineral (6) blood clotting |
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where is the majority of total body calcium found (98.8%)?
|
bones
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about how much calcium is combined with plasma proteins and is non-diffusible through the capillary membrane?
|
41%
|
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about how much calcium is combined with plasma ECF and anionic substances?
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9%
|
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about how much calcium is ionized and can freely diffuse through the capillary membrane?
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50%
|
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what is the average calcium level in the human body?
|
9.4 mg/dL (normal range-9.0-10.5)
|
|
what are three functions of phosphate?
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(1) major bone mineral
(2) acid-base buffer system (3) phosphorylation of proteins |
|
about how much phosphate is found as bone mineral?
|
85%
|
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about how much phosphate is found in cells?
|
14-15%
|
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about how much phosphate is found in the ECF?
|
less than 1%
|
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inorganic phosphate comes in what two forms?
|
HPO4- and H2PO4-
|
|
which form of phosphate is contained in higher concentration in the ECF?
|
HPO4
|
|
what is the average total quantiity of inorganic phosphorus in the body?
|
4 mg/dL
|
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this is a decrease in the ECF concentration of calcium that causes neuromuscular excitability; this results in a condition of tetany
|
hypocalcemia
|
|
the decrease in calcium allows easy initiation of action potentials through an increase in the permeability to this ion
|
sodium
|
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this is an increase in the ECF concentration of calcium, which depresses the nervous system and muscle activity; serious cardiac arrhythmias may occur if it becomes too high
|
hypercalcemia
|
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what are the three major hormones in the body that control calcium and phosphate balance?
|
(1) parathyroid hormone
(2) Vitamin D3 (3) calcitonin |
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what organ is considered the major calcim reservoir in the body?
|
bone
|
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bone is composed of an organic matrix composed largely of what type of fibers?
|
collagen
|
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what is the homogenous ground substance in bone made of?
|
fluid and proteoglycans
|
|
what is the primary crystalline bone salt found in the bone matrix?
|
hydroxyapatite
|
|
what cells are responsible for deposition of bone?
|
osteoblasts
|
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active osteoblasts secrete what enzyme?
|
alkaline phosphatase
|
|
what are mature osteoblasts embedded in the bone matrix called?
|
osteocytes
|
|
bone absorption occurs by activation of what type of cells?
|
osteoclasts
|
|
about how much calcium that is presented to the GI tract gets excreted?
|
90%
|
|
about how much of the filtered calcium gets reabsorbed
|
99%
|
|
what is the major site for the adjustment of the final amount of reabsorption of calcium?
|
late distal tubule
|
|
the C cells of this gland secrete calcitonin
|
thyroid
|
|
what stimulates the release of parathyroid hormone by the parathyroid gland?
|
a decrease in calcium concentration in the circulation
|
|
this hormone functions to stimulate the release of exchangeable calcium, proliferation of osteoclasts, increase absorption, increased renal absorption of calcium and excretion of phosphate, and secretion of vitamin D3
|
parathyroid hormone
|
|
some studies have shown that this hormone will decrease osteoclastic absorption of calcium and shift the balance of absorption vs. deposition towards more deposition; possibly decreases the formation of osteoclasts
|
calcitonin
|
|
what are four other hormones that increase bone mass?
|
(1) insulin
(2) Growth hormone/IGF-1 (3) estrogen (4) testosterone |
|
what are three hormones that can decrease bone mass?
|
(1) parathyroid hormone
(2) cortisol (at high levels) (3) thyroid hormone (at high levels) |
|
decreased parathyroid hormone leads to this problem, which leads to decreased EFC calcium; tetany is a serious concern with this
|
hypoparathyroidism
|
|
an increase in the concentration of parathyroid hormone leads to this condition, which causes increased osteoclastic activity
|
hyperparathyroidism
|
|
this type of hyperparathyroidism occurs due to oversecretion of PTH and is usually caused by a tumor
|
primary
|
|
this type of hyperparathyroidism is caused by increased secretion of PTH secondary to derangements in calcium balance (i.e. kidney failure, vitamin D deficiency)
|
secondary
|
|
this disease is generally due to a lack of vitamin D3 in the diet of children; both the plasma levels of calcium and phosphate are decreased and the compensatory rise in PTH cause sincreased bone absorption and thus weakened bones; new bone is formed but it is not properly calcified
|
rickets
|
|
this is improper mineralization of the new bone matrix in adults; may be due to calcium, vitamin D, or phosphate deficiency
|
osteomalacia
|
|
this disease occurs when renal failure leads to decreased secretion of vitamin D3 and therefore decreased absorption of calcium
|
renal rickets
|
|
this is the loss of bone mass, diminished organic bone matrix
|
osteoporosis
|
|
what are five possible causes of osteoporosis?
|
(1) protein malnutrition
(2) lack of physical activity (3) postmenopausal lack of estrogen (4) old age (5) Cushing's syndrome (Excess cortisol) |
|
what are three things that could cause a vitamin D deficiency?
|
(1) lack of sunlight
(2) poor nutrition (3) dietary restrictions |
|
these are chemical substances that are necessary for the life and growth of an organism
|
nutrients
|
|
what are four functions of nutrients?
|
(1) normal cellular function
(2) cellular repair (3) growth and development (4) immunity |
|
what are the six types of macro and micronutrients?
|
(1) proteins
(2) CHO (3) fat (4) vitamins (5) minerals (6) water |
|
the inadequate usage of a nutrient to sustain normal biochemical function
|
malnutrition
|
|
what is the common cause of malnutrition?
|
a cellular imbalance between the supply of nutrients and the body's demand for them
|
|
what is a deficiency of protein called?
|
kwashiorkor
|
|
what is a deficiency of energy called ?
|
marasmus
|
|
what is a deficiency of iron called?
|
anemia
|
|
what can vitamin A defiency cause?
|
night blindness, or full blindness later
|
|
what is vitamin C defiency called?
|
scurvy
|
|
what is thiamin deficiency called?
|
beriberi
|
|
what can a calcium deficiency cause?
|
osteoporosis
|
|
what can a vitamin D deficiency cause?
|
rickets, osteoporosis
|
|
what can an iodine deficiency cause?
|
goiter
|
|
what can a folate deficiency cause?
|
neural tube defects in a fetus
|
|
children who are poorly malnourished suffer up to __ days of ilness each year
|
160
|
|
the triceps skinfold thickness is an indicator of what in the body?
|
subcutaneous fat
|
|
the mid upper arm circumference is an indicator of what in the body?
|
muscle mass
|
|
some common symptoms of this disease include edema of the abdomen and extremities, decreased muscle mass, enlarged and fatty liver, inadequate growth, lethargy, flaky skin, vomiting, and diarrhea
|
kwashiorkor
|
|
what six laboratory values will be decreased in a child who is diagnosed with kwashiorkor?
|
(1) serum albumin
(2) plasma glucose (3) plasma amino acids (4) potassium (5) magnesium (6) serum cholesterol |
|
a moderate protein energy malnutrition is considered a loss of __-__% of body weight
|
10-20
|
|
a severe protein energy malnutrition is considered a loss of greater than __% of body weight
|
20%
|
|
this type of protein energy malutrition is a result of insufficient intake of protein and energy
|
primary
|
|
this type of protein energy malnutrition is a result of complications of diseases and other illnesses that impair the body's ability to absorb nutrients
|
secondary
|
|
these things that are found in human breastmilk can help kill bad gut bacteria in the baby and keep the good ones around
|
oligosaccharides
|
|
this is an energy dense lipid paste very similar to peanut butter, but wth added vitamins, and minerals, powdered milk, vegetable oil, and sugar
|
ready to use therapeutic food (RUTF)
|
|
these are esesntial organic substances in the body that control body processes (cofactors in enzymatic reactions)
|
vitamins
|
|
what are the 8 water soluble vitamins?
|
(1) thiamin (B1)
(2) riboflavin (B2) (3) niacin (B3) (4) pyridoxine (B4) (5) cobalamin (B12) (6) ascorbic acid (C) (7) folate (8) pantothenic acid |
|
what are the four fat soluble vitamins?
|
A, D, E, and K
|
|
what are the six essential inorganic minerals needed for the body?
|
(1) iodine
(2) sodium (3) chloride (4) calcium (5) potassium (6) magnesium |
|
what are the two trace elements/minerals found in the body?
|
iron and zinc
|
|
this is the most common nutrition disorder in the world and is a lack of iron
|
anemia
|
|
what is a diet component that can help increase iron absorption?
|
vitamin C (ascorbic acid)
|
|
what are two diet components that can decrease iron absorption?
|
oxalates in spinach and tannins in tea
|
|
this is a diffuse enlargment of the thyroid gland caused by a deficiency of iodine
|
goiter
|
|
this is a congenital abnormality that is an irreversible form of mental retardation that can be caused by severe iodine deficiency
|
cretinism
|
|
what are the two types of neural tube defects that can be caused by a lack of folic acid in the diet?
|
(1) spina bifida
(2) anencephaly |
|
what are some common consequences of a thiamine (B1) deficiency?
|
(1) cerebral ataxia (neuropathic beriberi)
(2) cardiac beriberi (congestive heart failure) (3) wenicke korsakoff syndrome (confusion and psychosis) |
|
what can a deficiency of fluoride cause?
|
dental caries
|
|
what can an excess of fluoride cause?
|
fluorosis (crippling bone disease)
|