Csd Exam 2

Front 1

reflex

Back 1

a specific, involuntary, unpremeditated response to a particular stimulus

Front 2

receptor

Back 2

the part of the reflex arc that detects the environmental change

Front 3

stimulus

Back 3

the part of the reflex arc that is a detectable change in the internal or external environment (temperature, protein concentration, pressure)

Front 4

integrating center

Back 4

the part of the reflex arc where the signal produced by the stimulus is relayed from the receptor

Front 5

afferent

Back 5

the pathway that the signal travels between the receptor and the integrating center

Front 6

output

Back 6

the product from the integrating center that is sent to the last component of the reflex arc, the effector

Front 7

effector

Back 7

the last component of the reflex arc that is acted upon by the output send from the integrating center

Front 8

efferent

Back 8

the pathway the output travels from the integrating center to the effector

Front 9

muscles and glands

Back 9

the two major classes of biological control system effectors

Front 10

hypothalamus

Back 10

the chief integrating center for the autonomic nervous system (ANS)

Front 11

somatic nervous system

Back 11

this is the nervous system that has nerve fibers going from the CNS to the skeletal muscle cells

Front 12

autonomic nervous system

Back 12

this is the nervous system that accomplishes the efferent innervation of tissues other than skeletal muscle

Front 13

CNS

Back 13

where does the first neuron in the autonomic nervous system have its cell body?

Front 14

autonomic ganglion

Back 14

the synapse between the two cells in the ANS is outside the CNS in a cell cluster called the __ __

Front 15

preganglionic

Back 15

the neurons passing between the CNS and the ganglia in the ANS are termed __

Front 16

postganglionic

Back 16

the neurons passing between the ganglia and the effector cells in the ANS are termed __

Front 17

acetylcholine

Back 17

this is the neurotransmitter between the pre and postganglionic neurons in both the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the ANS

Front 18

norepinephrine

Back 18

this is the neurotransmitter between the postganglionic neuron and the effector cell in the sympathetic division of the ANS

Front 19

acetylcholine

Back 19

this is the neurotransmitter between the postganglionic neuron and the effector cell in the parasympathetic division of the ANS

Front 20

thoracic and lumbar

Back 20

the sympathetic fibers of the ANS come from what two regions of the body?

Front 21

close to the spinal cord

Back 21

where do the ganglia of the sympathetic division of the ANS lie?

Front 22

nicotinic

Back 22

in the sympathetic nervous system, the receptors on the autonomic ganglia are __

Front 23

alpha and/or beta

Back 23

in the sympathetic nervous system, the receptors on the effectors are __

Front 24

brainstem and the sacral portion of the spinal cord

Back 24

the fibers of the parasympathetic division of the ANS come from what two areas?

Front 25

within or very close to the organs that the postganglionic neurons innervate

Back 25

where do the ganglia of the parasympathetic division of the ANS lie?

Front 26

nicotinic

Back 26

in the parasympathetic division of the ANS, the receptors on the ganglia are of what type?

Front 27

muscarinic

Back 27

in the parasympathetic division of the ANS, the receptors on the effectors are of what type?

Front 28

vasoconstriction

Back 28

high levels of circulating epinephrine causes what?

Front 29

vasodilation

Back 29

low levels of circulating epinephrine allow beta receptors to dominate, causing what?

Front 30

epinephrine and norepinephrine

Back 30

these are the two circulating catecholamines that are produced by the adrenal medulla when stimulated by the sympathetic division of the ANS

Front 31

alpha and beta

Back 31

these are the two types of adrenergic receptors (receptors that bind epinephrine and norepinephrine)

Front 32

parasympathetic

Back 32

the vagus nerve is a component of which division of the ANS?

Front 33

thorax, upper abdomen, viscera, and pharynx and larynx

Back 33

these are the areas that the vagus nerve innervates

Front 34

tyrosine

Back 34

norepinephrine and epinephrine are synthesized from which amino acid?

Front 35

choline and Acetyl CoA

Back 35

which two things is ACh synthesized from?

Front 36

acetyl transferase

Back 36

which enzyme facilitates the formation of ACh from choline and Acetyl CoA?

Front 37

muscarinic

Back 37

the receptors that bind ACh on the visceral target sites (or effectors) in the ANS are of what type?

Front 38

acetylcholinesterase

Back 38

this enzyme breaks down ACh and causes transmission termination

Front 39

monoamine oxidase, catechol O-methyl transferase

Back 39

these two enzymes break down epinephrine and norepinephrine, and are found in both neurons and glial cells

Front 40

dense bodies

Back 40

the thin filaments in smooth muscle are anchored to structures called __ __

Front 41

troponin

Back 41

which protein does the smooth muscle cell lack that is present in both cardiac and skeletal muscle cells?

Front 42

calcium

Back 42

changes in the cystolic concentration of what ion control the contractile activity of smooth muscle?

Front 43

single-unit

Back 43

this type of smooth muscle has many gap junctions, and functions as one big muscle

Front 44

multi-unit

Back 44

this type of smooth muscle has few or no gap junctions, so the myofibers respond independently to stimulation

Front 45

tonic

Back 45

this is a smooth muscle contraction that is continuously active

Front 46

latch state

Back 46

the state in tonic smooth muscle contraction that is a low energy contractile state that is not associated with an action potential

Front 47

phasic

Back 47

this is a smooth muscle contraction that is rhythmic or intermittently active

Front 48

calmodulin

Back 48

in smooth muscle, after a rise in calcium, it binds to what structure?

Front 49

myosin light chain kinase

Back 49

the calcium calmodulin complex in smooth muscle binds to this enzyme, activating it

Front 50

uses ATP to phosphorylate the myosin light chains

Back 50

what is the role of activated myosin light chain kinase in smooth muscle contraction?

Front 51

pulmonary

Back 51

this circuit of blood circulation includes blood pumped from the right ventricle through the lungs and then to the left atrium

Front 52

systemic

Back 52

this circulation contains blood that leaves the left ventricle, travels throughout the body, and is returned to the right atrium via the superior and inferior vena cava

Front 53

pulmonary trunk

Back 53

the pulmonary circulation's blood leaves the right ventricle via the __ __

Front 54

pulmonary veins

Back 54

the blood leaves the lungs in the pulmonary circulation through 4 __ __, which empty into the left atrium

Front 55

interventricular septum

Back 55

this structure separates the ventricles of the heart

Front 56

AV valves

Back 56

these valves are located between the atrium and ventricle in each half of the heart; they permit blood flow from the atrium to the ventricle but not in the backward direction

Front 57

tricuspid

Back 57

the right AV valve is also known by this name

Front 58

bicuspid, mitral

Back 58

the left AV valve is also known by these names

Front 59

semilunar

Back 59

these are the valves that are located between the ventricles and the arteries they pump into; they allow blood flow in the arteries during ventricular contraction but prevent blood flow moving in the opposite direction during relaxation

Front 60

pulmonary arteries

Back 60

these arteries take blood from the right side of the heart that take deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs for reoxygenation

Front 61

systemic arteries

Back 61

these are arteries that come from the left side of the heart that take oxygenated blood to the body

Front 62

.03

Back 62

it takes approximately __ seconds for the SA node to conduct the electrical potential to the AV node

Front 63

.13

Back 63

it takes approximately __ seconds for the AV node to conduct the electrical potential to the bundle branches

Front 64

.01-.03

Back 64

it takes between __ and __ seconds for the bundle branches to conduct the electrical potential to the Purkinje fibers

Front 65

intercalated disks

Back 65

these disks connect cardiac cells together at their ends; they hold the cells together and serve as attachment sites for the myofibrils; they provide synchronized contraction of cardiac tissue and are responsible for force transmission

Front 66

gap junctions

Back 66

these structures located in the intercalated disks in cardiac muscle are responsible for the spread of ions, and therefore the action potential, throughout the entire cardiac muscle

Front 67

hyperplasia

Back 67

in utero, cardiac cells grow by __

Front 68

hypertrophy

Back 68

in adult cells, cardiac cells grow by __

Front 69

ventricles, atria, Purkinje fibers

Back 69

fast response cardiac action potentials occur in these areas of the heart

Front 70

SA and AV nodes

Back 70

slow response cardiac action potentials are observed in these areas of the heart

Front 71

beta

Back 71

these are the primary adrenergic receptors on the heart

Front 72

alpha

Back 72

the coronary vasculature has a greater number of this type of adrenergic receptor than does the heart

Front 73

P wave

Back 73

this area on the ECG is when the atria are depolarizing

Front 74

QRS complex

Back 74

this area on the ECG is when the ventricles are depolarizing

Front 75

T wave

Back 75

this area on the ECG is when the ventricles are repolarizing

Front 76

PR interval

Back 76

this interval in the ECG is the time it takes to get from the SA node initiating the action potential, through the AV bundle, to the ventricles to start depolarization

Front 77

QT segment

Back 77

this segment on the ECG is ventricular systole/contraction and the ejection of the cardiac output

Front 78

ST segment

Back 78

this part of the ECG corresponds with the action potential plateau phase; there is a reversal of polarity here and the entire myocardium is depolarized at once

Front 79

sinus rhythm

Back 79

this is the normal heart rate paced by the SA node

Front 80

tachycardia

Back 80

this is when the heart rate is above normal resting heart rate, greater than 100 beats per minute

Front 81

bradychardia

Back 81

this is a heart rate lower than the normal resting heart rate, lower than 60 beats per minute

Front 82

AV node/bundle

Back 82

these are where most heart blocks occur

Front 83

first degree

Back 83

this is the degree of heart block when every P wave is followed by a QRS complex, but the PR interval is greater than .2 seconds

Front 84

second

Back 84

this is the degree of heart block when some P waves are followed by QRS intervals and some aren't, but a pattern emerges

Front 85

third

Back 85

this is the degree of heart block when not every P wave is followed by a QRS, and no pattern emerges

Front 86

flutter

Back 86

this occurs when the action potential in the heart fires sooner than it should

Front 87

fibrillation

Back 87

this occurs when the chambers of the heart produce a quivering motion instead of a coordinated contraction

Front 88

premature ventricular contraction

Back 88

this occurs when the heart beats prematurely out of sync with the electrical potential; can degenerate into ventricular tachycardia and fibrillation

Front 89

ectopic pacemaker

Back 89

this occurs when the heart is blocked, and another place int he heart takes over as the pacemaker below the level of the block

Front 90

cardioversion

Back 90

this is a means of restarting the normal sinus rhythm by putting the entire heart into refractory period and hoping that the SA node takes over

Front 91

Stokes-Adams syndrome

Back 91

this is a period from when the block occurs to when the ectopic pacemaker can take over when a heart block occurs (causes syncope and unconsciousness)

Front 92

total peripheral resistance

Back 92

this is the sum of resistances to flow offered by all of the systemic blood vessels

Front 93

arterioles

Back 93

these vessels determine the precise blood flow to a capillary bed because of their high concentration of smooth muscle

Front 94

active hyperemia

Back 94

this phenomenon occurs when tissues manifest an increased blood flow when their metabolic activity increased (great example-blood flow to a working skeletal muscle)

Front 95

cardiac output

Back 95

this is the volume of blood being pumped out of the heart in the time interval of one minute; measured in L/min

Front 96

stroke volume

Back 96

this is the volume of blood pumped from one ventricle of the heart with each beat, measured in mL/beat

Front 97

5.0-5.5

Back 97

normal level of CO at rest

Front 98

heart rate

Back 98

this measure is the number of beats that the heart performs in a minute

Front 99

Frank Starling

Back 99

this relationship states that the greater the volume of blood that enters the heart during diastole (end diastolic volume), the greater the volume of blood ejected from the heart during systole (stroke volume)

Front 100

end diastolic volume and stroke volume

Back 100

these are the two variables that are compared in the Frank Starling relationship of the heart

Front 101

contractility

Back 101

this is the performance of the heart at any given preload or afterload

Front 102

preload

Back 102

this is the stretch on the myocardium due to the filling of the ventricles; optimum actin and myosin overlap occur here

Front 103

afterload

Back 103

this is how hard the heart has to contract to push the blood out of the ventricles (the arterial pressures against which the ventricles pump)

Front 104

ejection fraction

Back 104

this is a measure of heart contractility; it is the fraction of blood pumped out of the ventricles with each heart beat; it is defined as the ratio of the stroke volume to the end diastolic volume

Front 105

50-75%

Back 105

normal ejection fraction

Front 106

inotropic effect

Back 106

this is any stimulus that increases calcium concentration in the cytosol, which increases contractility

Front 107

chronotropic effect

Back 107

this is an effect that may change the heart rate by affecting the nerves controlling the heart, or by changing the rhythm produced at the SA node (positive increases HR, negative decreases HR)

Front 108

dromotropic effect

Back 108

this is an effect that affects the conduction speed in the AV node, and subsequently the rate of electrical impulses in the heart (positive-increase in speed of conduction, negative-decrease in speed of conduction)

Front 109

cardiac glycosides

Back 109

these substances bind with the Na K ATPase pump, slowing the Na Ca2+ exchanger, which keeps Ca2+ levels elevated in the cytosol, producing a positive inotropic effect

Front 110

lub

Back 110

this sound in the heart is produced when the AV valves close

Front 111

dub

Back 111

this sound in the heart is produced when the semilunar valves close

Front 112

greater

Back 112

the AV valves open when the pressure in the atria is __ than the pressure in the ventricles

Front 113

lower

Back 113

the AV valves close when the pressure in the atria is __ than the pressure in the ventricles

Front 114

greater

Back 114

the SL valves open when the pressure in the ventricles is __ than the pressure in the vessels

Front 115

lower

Back 115

the SL valves close when the pressure in the ventricles is __ than the pressure in the vessels

Front 116

systole

Back 116

the period of ventricular contraction and blood ejection

Front 117

diastole

Back 117

the period of ventricular relaxation and blood filling

Front 118

isovolumetric venticular contraction

Back 118

this occurs when the ventricles are contracting but all valves in the heart are closed, so no blood can be ejected; this greatly raises the ventricular blood pressure

Front 119

ventricular ejection

Back 119

this period of systole occurs when the pressure in the ventricles exceeds the pressure in the aorta and pulmonary trunk, causing the semilunar valves to open; blood is forced into the aorta and pulmonary trunk as the contracting ventricular muscle fibers shorten

Front 120

isovolumetric ventricular relaxation

Back 120

this occurs during diastole when the ventricles relax and the aortic and pulmonary valves close, and the AV valves are also closed; therefore, there is no blood entering or leaving the ventricles

Front 121

ventricular filling

Back 121

this occurs when the AV valves open, and blood flows in from the atria; atrial contraction occurs at the end of this

Front 122

end diastolic volume

Back 122

the volume of blood that is in the ventricle at the end of ventricular diastole

Front 123

capillary hydrostatic pressure (Pc)

Back 123

this is the pressure that is most important in determining filtration out of the capillary;it is the pressure of the fluid within the capillary that pushes the fluid outward

Front 124

interstitial colloid osmotic forces (Pi IF)

Back 124

these are the forces that the proteins in the interstitial fluid exert, drawing water towards them, out of the capillary (favors filtration)

Front 125

interstitial hydrostatic pressure (PIF)

Back 125

this is the hydrostatic pressure of the fluid outside the capillary; usually equal to 0; favors absorption

Front 126

capillary osmotic forces (Pi C)

Back 126

these are the osmotic force due to the plasma protein concentration within the capillaries; the proteins will pull fluid toward them into the cell; favors absorption

Front 127

lymphatic

Back 127

these vessels carry interstitial fluid to the cardiovascular system (there is 4 L of interstitial fluid that leaks out of the capillaries that is not absorbed back each day)

Front 128

edema

Back 128

the accumulation of large amounts of interstitial fluid in the tissue

Front 129

vasopressin/ADH

Back 129

this chemical messenger is secreted by the posterior ptuitary gland and acts on renal tubule cells to increase water reabsorption, thereby decreasing urine output

Front 130

aldosterone

Back 130

this hormone reacts on renal tubule cells to increase reabsorption of sodium, ultimately increasing total body water

Front 131

atrial natriuretic peptide

Back 131

this chemical messenger is secreted by the atria in response to elevated pressures; it acts to decrease reabsorption of sodium, which in turn decreases total body water

Front 132

mean arterial pressure

Back 132

this is the pressure driving blood into the tissues averaged over the entire cardiac cycle (BP in the arteries averaged over time)

Front 133

pulse pressure

Back 133

this is the difference between systolic and diastolic pressure

Front 134

baroreceptor reflex

Back 134

this reflex is a fast acting mechanism that has a role in maintaining arterial pressures, regulating it on a beat to beat basis

Front 135

vasomotor center in the medulla

Back 135

this is the integrating center for the baroreceptor reflex

Front 136

hypertension

Back 136

this is defined as chronic elevated blood pressure

Front 137

hyperkalemia

Back 137

this is an increase in K+ concentration in the ECF; first causes tachycardia, which will end in cardiac arrest and death (very lethal); inability to set the resting membrane potential due to a loss of the concentration gradient

Front 138

hypercalcemia

Back 138

this is an increase in Ca2+ concentration above normal in the ECF; this causes increased contractions and arrest in systole, hypertension, and signs of heart block

Front 139

hyponatremia

Back 139

this is a decrease of Na+ concentration below normal in the ECF; this leads to Ca2+ accumulation within the cell, which leads to hypotension, tachycardia, and vasomotor collapse; occurs when overhydrating

Front 140

phospholamban

Back 140

this molecule inhibits the SERCA pumps on the sarcoplasmic reticulum

Front 141

afferent

Back 141

these neurons in the PNS transmit sensory information to the CNS

Front 142

efferent

Back 142

these neurons in the PNS transmit motor information to peripheral targets

Front 143

somatic motor system

Back 143

this system includes the motor neurons and axons arising from the brain and spinal cord; they innervate skeletal muscles of the head, neck, trunk, pelvis, and limbs

Front 144

gamma motor neurons

Back 144

these neurons of the somatic nervous system innervate the intrafusal muscle fibers

Front 145

alpha motor neurons

Back 145

these neurons of the somatic nervous system innervate extrafusal muscle fibers

Front 146

somatic nervous system and autonomic/visceral nervous system

Back 146

these are the two efferent divisions of the peripheral nervous system

Front 147

autonomic

Back 147

this nervous system is the motor system that innervates cardiac, smooth muscle, glands, adipose and lymph tissue;

Front 148

preganglionic

Back 148

these ANS neurons are myelinated and are cholinergic

Front 149

postganglionic

Back 149

these ANS neurons are unmyelinated and are typically either cholinergic or noradrenergic

Front 150

III, IV, IX, X

Back 150

these are the cranial nerves associated with the parasympathetic division of the ANS

Front 151

parasympathetic

Back 151

this is the division of the ANS that is "rest and digest", works to maintain homeostasis

Front 152

sympathetic

Back 152

this is the division of the ANS that is "fight or flight"; stimulates the adrenal medulla to release circulating catecholamines

Front 153

myosin light chain phosphatase

Back 153

this enzyme dephosphorylates myosin and causes cessation of the crossbridge cycle in smooth muscle

Front 154

alpha 1

Back 154

the most prominent sympathetic receptor in vascular smooth muscle is __ __, which causes constriction

Front 155

beta 2

Back 155

the most prominent receptor in bronchial smooth muscle is __ __, which causes relaxation/dilation

Front 156

sphincters

Back 156

these areas of the body have a high level of contraction with intermittent relaxation

Front 157

GI tract

Back 157

this area of the body has a phasic change of tone/tension

Front 158

blood vessels, airways

Back 158

these areas of the body are normally pretty high in their tone, but they sometimes relax

Front 159

esophagus, bladder

Back 159

these areas of the body are at a high level of relaxation with occasional contraction

Front 160

hyperplasia

Back 160

this type of cell growth in smooth muscle is often associated with pathology (i.e. atherosclerosis)

Front 161

Ca2+

Back 161

this ion channel blocker can be used to block smooth muscle contraction

Front 162

cardiovascular

Back 162

the primary function of this system is to deliver oxygen, nutrients, and chemical messengers to the respiring cells

Front 163

the product of the maximal heart rate and maximal stroke volume

Back 163

the maximum performance of the cardiovascular system (cardiac output) is defined by what product?

Front 164

aerobic

Back 164

stroke volume can be modified and increased with regular participation in aerobic exercise, making the cardiovascular system adaptable and able to be tuned to meet the environment of the body's cells

Front 165

SA node

Back 165

this are of the conduction system sets the highest order of rhythmicity in the heart

Front 166

beta

Back 166

these are the major type of adrenergic receptors on the cardiac muscle cells

Front 167

alpha

Back 167

these are the major type of adrenergic receptors in the coronary vasculature

Front 168

neurohormonal remodeling

Back 168

this phenomenon occurs when there is pathologic hypertrophy in the heart; it is enlarged, but weak and has a high density of connective tissue

Front 169

fast sodium channel activation gates

Back 169

these sodium channel gates are opened as membrane potential becomes less negative

Front 170

phase 4 (resting/diastole)

Back 170

the potassium channels in cardiac muscle open during what phase of the cardiac cycle?

Front 171

T-type

Back 171

these type of calcium channels are important in the pacemaker potential in cardiac muscle

Front 172

systemic

Back 172

the right atria receives low oxygenated blood from which circulation?

Front 173

pulmonary

Back 173

the left atria receives high oxygen blood from which circulation?

Front 174

sodium

Back 174

the refractoriness of the heart is largely determine by the __ ion current/__ ion activation and inactivation gates

Front 175

absolute

Back 175

this type of refractory period is when an action potential cannot be triggered because the membrane is not in an excitable state

Front 176

relative

Back 176

this refractory period is when an AP can be initiated, but only in a superthreshold period

Front 177

fibrillation

Back 177

this condition of the heart is sometimes compared to a "bag of worms" because of the quivering contractions that are taking place

Front 178

hyperthermia

Back 178

this is elevated temperature, and it raises the heart rate

Front 179

hypothermia

Back 179

this is decreased temperature, and it lowers the heart rate

Front 180

isoelectric line

Back 180

the baseline voltage of the electrocardiogram

Front 181

ST

Back 181

the __ segment of the EKG should lie on the isoelectric line; if it does not, it could indicate a myocardial infarction

Front 182

70-80

Back 182

if the SA node is the pacemaker, the HR is normally how many bpms?

Front 183

40-60

Back 183

if the AV node is the pacemaker for the heart, the HR would be how many bpms?

Front 184

15-40

Back 184

if the purkinje fibers were the pacemaker for the heart, the HR would be how many bpms?

Front 185

sick sinous syndrome

Back 185

this occurs when the SA node doesn't work and the AV node has to pace the ventricles because it's the next highest order of pacemaker

Front 186

pouiseille's law

Back 186

this law states that blood flow is dependent upon fluid viscosity, vessel length, the vessel's radius, and the pressure difference between the ends of the vessel

Front 187

ACh-muscarinic, NO

Back 187

this neurotransmitter binding to __ receptors causes synthesis of this molecule, causing vasodilation

Front 188

flow autoregulation

Back 188

this is the ability of a tissue bed or organ to maintain blood flow over a wide range of changes in arterial pressures

Front 189

starling's hypothesis

Back 189

this hypothesis relating to capillary hemodynamics states that the next flux across the capillary is equal to the filtration forces minus the absorption forces

Front 190

Cranial nerves III, VII, IV, X, and sacral nerves S2-S4

Back 190

these are the nerves that the parasympathetic nervous system are derived from

Front 191

T1-L2, L3

Back 191

these are the nerves that the sympathetic nervous system are derived from

Front 192

systole

Back 192

during __, the AV valves are closed and the pulmonary and aortic valves are open

Front 193

diastole

Back 193

during __, the pulmonary and aortic valves are closed and the AV valves are open

Front 194

change in pressure (mmHg) over the blood flow (mL/sec)

Back 194

the resistance to flow is equal to:

Front 195

blood flow (mL/sec)/cross sectional area cm2

Back 195

the velocity of blood flow in cm/sec is equal to:

Front 196

vasodilation

Back 196

Beta2 adrenergic receptors promote __ when not masked by alpha1 adrenergic receptors

Front 197

NO, vasodilation

Back 197

when acetylcholine binds with muscarinic receptors, it causes synthesis of what important molecule, and what reaction does it produce?

Front 198

vasoconstriction

Back 198

alpha adrenergic stimulation, which is the most important determination of basal tone in vessels, promotes __ of the vessels

Front 199

vasoconstrictors

Back 199

AngiotensinII, ADH (vasopressin), and endothelin are all powerful __ of the vessels

Front 200

renin

Back 200

this is the enzyme that is secreted by the renal cells that stimulates the conversion of angiotensinogen into angiotensin 1

Front 201

converting enzyme

Back 201

this is the enzyme that converts angiotensin 1 into angiotensin 2

Front 202

cardiac output x total peripheral resistance

Back 202

the blood pressure is equal to: