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203 Cards in this Set

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Define Offence

an illegal action

Define Charge

claim that the person committed an offence

Why is criminal law different from tort law?

Criminal law deals with crimes, while tort deals with issues between individuals.

Define crime

act that is considered wrong against society

Define tort

act that is considered wrong against individual

What's the difference between assault and battery?

Assault is a charge while battery is a tort.

Define Crown Prosecutor
lawyer hired by the provincial government to prosecute people who have been charged with an offence(s).

Crown Prosecutor is also referred to as:

The Crown


The Prosecutor


The Agent of the Attorney General

How and when is a criminal file opened?
File is opened at CP office when a charge is laid by the Calgary Police Service or the RCMP

Because files are organized by court dates what can you do?

Ensure that your correspondence with the prosecutor's office includes the next court date, time, and location along with including the last of these.

List two types of Crown Prosecutors:

Provincial Crown Prosecutor


Federal Crown Presecutor

Who do Provincial Crown Prosecutors work for?

Alberta Justice

What cases do Provincial Crown Prosecutors handle?

All charges in Youth Justice Court


Criminal Code charges in both the Provincial Court and Queen's Bench levels of adult court


Quasi-Criminal charges against adults

Define Quasi-Criminal Charges:
a summary offence clients do not leave with criminal records if convicted, mens rea does not need to be proved
Federal Crown Prosecutors work for this office:
Public Prosecution Service of Canada
PPSC

What cases do Federal Crown Prosecutors handle?

criminal charges against adults in both provincial and Queen's Bench court

What are some federal acts FCP use?

Controlled Drugs and Substances Act


Immigration Act


Income Tax Act


Customs and Excise Act

Do federal prosecutors work for the federal government?

No, criminal cases are not heard in federal court.

Define Defence Counsel:

lawyer retained to defend a person who is charged with an offence

What are the ethical obligations for defence lawyers?

1. obtain proper instructions from the client at each step before the proceeding


2. not to mislead the court


3. not to allow the client or anyone else to commit perjury

What are the two levels of Justices of the Peace in Alberta?

Full time JPs who are lawyers and are commonly called Hearing Officers or Traffic Commissioners if sitting in Traffic Court



Senior Government Clerks

What powers do Alberta Justices of the Peace NOT have?

They cannot hear cases nor make decisions in court

What powers do Alberta JP's have?

hear bail applications (judicial interim release applications made out-of-court to decide whether to release or detain an accused)


receive Informations


issue subpoenas


issue search warrants


administer oaths or affirmations or take declarations


adjourn cases where a judge of the PC or a Traffic Commissioner is not present




What are some things a legal assistant will be doing when working on criminal cases?
opening, organizing files, correspondence, handle financial matters - deposit, maintenance, receipt of trust funds, schedule some trial dates, prepare trial binders, etc.

What's the difference working in litigation v. criminal as a legal assistant?

less paperwork in criminal, clients are nicer, need to work well with little to no supervision, handle mature subject matter, schedule trial dates, etc

Why is there overlap between the federal and provincial system in criminal law?

Criminal law and procedure are federal responsibilities while the power to create courts to enforce criminal law and to enforce provincial legislation is the provincial responsibility


This means offences are never prosecuted through federal court but federal governments determine whether or not an offence is a crime.

Define "dual procedure" (hybrid)

offences that may be serious in some situations and less in others

If a charge does not state what type of offence it is then what offence is it?

Summary

Define Crown's Election

Prosecutor decides whether to proceed by indictment or summary procedure in court for dual procedure offences.

Who decides the offence in dual procedure offences? What is this decision called?

Prosecutor


Crown's Election

Where do you appeal summary conviction trials?

Court of Queen's Bench

What is usually the limitation period for summary conviction offences?

Six-month period unless charge changes that. After the limitation period you are statute-barred.

Summary Conviction offences usually include these type of offences:

quasi-criminal offences

Define Quasi-Criminal Offences

a provincial offence included within summary offences - the important difference is that if convicted you will NOT have a criminal record unlike smaller summary convictions such as carrying less than 30 grams of marijuana.

Most criminal offences are these type of offences:

Dual Procedure

Define endorsement:
handwritten notes on the Information made by the Court Clerk and sets out what happened at each court appearance.
what happened
Each indictable offence has a maximum punishment of a period of incarceration which can be:
2, 5, 10, 14 years or life in custody.
5

Indictable offences are always appealed at this court regardless of what court the original case was heard:

Court of Appeal

What is the limitation period for most indictable offences?

there is no limitation period

List three types of Indictable Offences:
absolute jurisdiction of the provincial court
indictable election offences
exclusive jurisdiction of the Court of Queen's Bench
absolute election exclusive

Define Absolute Jurisdiction of the Provincial Court:

553 offences which means your client has no choice (or election) as to the mode of trial as it is a less serious indictable offence

Define mode of trial:
type of trial, including in which level of court the trial is held and whether or not a jury hears the case
3 type

Define Exclusive Jurisdiction of the Court of Queen's Bench

469 offences which are the most serious of indictable offences which means it must be tried at Court of Queen's Bench however, the first appearance is always at Provincial Court

Define Indictable Election offence:

Offence that is neither 553 or 469. Your client can choose the mode of trial which means your client has the choice to be tried by a PC Judge, QBJ without a jury or QBJ with a jury.

Define Accused's Election

client's choice to mode of trial

Election refers to two things what are they?

Crown's Election - Summary or Indictment conviction (for dual procedure offence)


and Accused's Election - client's right to mode of trial in indictable election offences

List the four trial courts that hear criminal charges:

PC, traffic division (quasi-criminal)


PC, criminal division (criminal)


PC, youth division (charges in which accused is 12-17)


QB (serious crimes)

Define Traffic Commissioner:

senior lawyer not judge appointed by provincial government to hear cases in traffic court - referred to as Your Worship

In PC what criminal cases do you not hear and how to you refer to the PC Judge?

"Your Honour" and charges within 469 of the Criminal Code

In QB judges are referred to as and this court can have a ____.

my lord/lady mr/madam justice
jury

Define Information
written sworn statement used to start a criminal case in provincial court - usually by police officers
Statement of Claim

Define Informant

person who swears the Information with a Justice of the Peace

Define count

Each charge in an Information

Who can be charged in an Information?

Perpetrator


Party to an offence (aids or abets)


Accessory after the fact

Define aid

assist the perpetrator

Define abet

encourage the perpetrator to commit the offence

Define accessory after the fact

person who receives, comforts, or assists a party to an offence so that the criminal can escape

Define to wit

that is to say

Why must charges in an Information be precisely worded?

The Crown is required to prove every word beyond a reasonable doubt

Every count must contain all of the following:

date on which the offence occurred "on or about"


jurisdiction or place where the offence occurred "at or near"


identity of the accused


name of victim, section and act which your client was charged, details

All criminal charges start with this document which is laid out by an informant before this person

Information Justice of the Peace

If your client is not held in custody list the documents used to compel client to attend court:

Summons


appearance notice


promise to appear


undertaking


recognizance

When is a summons/arrest warrant used?

When new charges are laid to the accused unaware and it's less serious


or there is a risk of them running away due to serious nature of the charge

If the accused is present when the charges are made they will be released on an...

Appearance NOtice

If the accused is arrested then released they may be given on of the following documents:

Promise to Appear - unconditionally released on charges


Undertaking - released on conditions


Re-cog-ni-zance - released on conditions with money

Define Recognizance with no cash deposit

released on conditions with money that must be paid if client does not comply with conditions of release

Define Recognizance with Deposit

released on conditions but must pay money BEFORE being released

Define surety

someone who pays for the accused in a recognizance

Who are the parties in a criminal case?

government represented by a Crown prosecutor who prosecutes the accused for a crime

What is the style of case in a criminal case?

R. v. Accused or Her Majesty the Queen v. Accused

What is the Standard of Proof in a criminal case?

Beyond a reasonable doubt

What is the verdict of a criminal case?

Guilty v. Not Guilty

What is the originating document in a criminal case?

Information

What is the remedy in a criminal case?

Fine paid to the Crown, jail, etc

When does the Charter of Rights and Freedom apply?

When the government is involved which means ALWAYS in criminal.

What does the Canada Evidence Act set out?

Rules of evidence that include admissibility of documents and competence and compellability of witnesses

What does the Canadian Charter of Rights and Freedoms set out?

rights and freedoms that apply to all charges

What does Controlled Drugs and Substances Act set out?

drug offences and some procedures for dealing with drug offences

Corrections and Conditional Release Act sets out what?

Rules for dealing with prisoners, including release of prisoners

What does the Immigration Act set out

regulates admission of people in Canada

What does Income Tax Act regulate

taxation of individuals and businesses and creates criminal offences

What does Youth Criminal Justice Act set out?

procedures for dealing with charges against persons between the ages of 12-18

What is the Alberta legislation dealing with driving regulation called?

Traffic Safety Act

Traffic Safety act creates what time of criminal offence?

quasi-criminal

Where is contempt of court a crime?

Under common law

Define murder

intentionally killing a person

Define First-Degree Murder

planned killing

Define Second-Degree Murder

impulsive, deliberate killing that is not pre-planned

Second-Degree murder is also called

a lesser and included offence to murder

Define manslaughter

death was not intended 236

Dangerous operation of a motor vehicle is usually called

Dangerous Driving

What is the alcohol limit?

driving with more than 80 milligrams of alcohol in 100 millilitres of blood

Define Certificate of Analyst

breathalyzer test administered

How do you obtain a charge on impaired driving?

Prove accused was operating a motor vehicle while displaying physical signs of impairment such as staggering, slurred speech, bloodshot eyes, and perhaps the smell of alcohol or a drug

In terms of theft what must the Crown prove?

value of property involved


client intentionally took property that belongs to someone else


client did this know the property belonged to someone else and that they had no right to take the property

What does it mean if your theft offence is in section 334 a of the criminal code?

it is valued over $5000

What is joyriding?

taking someone's car for a ride without their consent which can be found under section 335 of the Criminal Code



this offence is lesser and included to section 334

What is the difference between robbery and theft?

Robbery is is theft combined with assault

assault and theft are lesser and included offences to robbery

What is breaking and entering?

Usually tort if entering and breaking to look for warm place to sleep.

What must the Crown prove with possession of stolen property?

the possession occurred very close to the time that the property was stolen or that there are other circumstances that would indicate that the accused knew the property was stolen


that the accused had control over the property and that he or she knew what the property was

What is fraud?

lying to get something (writing a bad cheque) split between over/under $5000

What is mischief?

destroying or damaging property

What must a crown prove in terms of possession of a controlled substance?

your client had control of the substance and was aware of what the substance was



*schedule 1 is serious drugs like cocaine


*schedule 4 meh

What is trafficking or possession for the purpose of trafficking?


How must a crown prove this?

selling or giving an illegal drug to another person, crown must prove the drug was actually provided to another person

What requirements/elements must be proven beyond a reasonable doubt for offences?

Actus Reus and Mens Rea

Define Acus Reus

(wrongful act) crown must prove the accused committed the physical actions of the crime

Define Mens Rea

crown must prove the existence of a "guilty mind" (prove crime committed on purpose)

List three different types of mens rea

general intention,


specific intention, and


recklessness or


willful blindess

Most crimes are general intention which means the crown will be required to prove that...

your client committed the crime on purpose (mens rea)

Specific intention offences means the crown has to prove more in terms of mens rea like

there was a general intention or an intention to commit the prohibited act


there was an intention to achieve a certain result


"intention to commit actus reus"

What are examples where specific intention would have to be proved?

-1st, 2nd degree murder


-theft, robbery, breaking and entering


-possession for purpose of trafficking


What are some examples where general intention would have to be proved?

-manslaughter


-dangerous operation of a motor vehicle, impaired driving, joyriding


-assault, sexual assault


-Fraud


-Possession of Controlled Substance

Define Willful Blindness

accused is aware that there was a need to ask questions but chose not to ask any questions because he or she did not want to know the truth

In terms of mens rea what do you have to prove with willful blindness or recklessness offences?

less than a general intention

Define recklessness

similar to willful blindness, where your client's actions are marked departure from the standard of a reasonable person

What are the two things that make quasi-criminal offences different from criminal offences

-if convicted you will not have a record


-crown is not required to prove mens rea

Define strict liability

action or actus reus is proven your client is guilty unless the defence of due diligence is proven by your client on a balance of probabilities


Define due diligence

person acted as a reasonable person would have under an honest but mistaken belief in facts that would have justified the action


"you did everything you could do to prevent actus reus"

Strict liability is only available to this defence, why?

Quasi-criminal offences because it would be a violation of the Charter of Rights and Freedoms to receive a criminal record on a strict liability offence

Define absolute liability

if the actus reus occurred, the person is guilty, even if he or she did everything that could be done to prevent the offence from occurring

What is the limitation period and maximum penalty if you have a summary offence?

6 months, 6 months or $5000

What is the name of the court where trial occurs and where can you appeal in summary offences?

Provincial Court Court of Appeal

What is the maximum sentence for a quasi-criminal offence?

up to six months in jail

If there is a possibility of imprisonment what have the courts decided in terms of absolute liability offences?

it is unconstitutional to have an absolute liability offence

In terms of competency what two questions are raised?

- accused mentally competent to stand trial?


- accused mentally competent at the time of the offence

Define fitness to stand trial:

the issue of whether or not the accused is mentally competent to stand trial


the crown, defence, and judge can raise this issue

In order to be fit to stand trial the accused must be:

capable of understanding the court proceedings and the consequences of the court proceedings


capable of instructing counsel

What is an assessment?

accused consents to remain in custody for 30-60 days to see if they are fit to stand trial

For criminal cases all reports must be filed...

at the prosecutor and the defence counsel and court

What is direct examination

when the lawyer questions his or her own witness

If the accused is deemed not fit for trial what happens?

they will be confined to a facility for treatment - their detention reviewed periodically to determine when they will be fit

What's the difference between withdrawing and staying the charges?

Withdrawing the charges ends the charges while staying the charges halts prosecution of the charges

If the accused is fit to stand trial they can still use the defence of

mental disorder at the time the offence was committed

If you are using the defence of mental disorder the court must decide two things

if the accused suffered from a mental disorder at the time the crime occurred did it make them incapable of appreciating the nature and quality of the act or omission or knowing that it was wrong

What is the legal definition of Defence of Mental Disorder

if court determines that the accused suffered from a mental disorder at the time the offence was committed then they will be found "not criminally responsible on account of mental disorder"

If a party raises the defence of mental disorder they must prove it on...

a balance of probabilities which also means the accused must prove something rather than the Crown

Accused can use any defence that is set out in...

statutes and common law defence

Defences can be complete or limited define these terms

complete defence: leads to your client being found not guilty


limited defence: client will be found not guilty to the original charge but be found guilty to a lesser and included offence

While the accused in a criminal offence must prove on a balance of probabilities for defence of mental disorder all other defences they accused is only required to...

raise sufficient evidence to create a doubt

What are the two limited defences?

voluntary intoxication and provacation

Define voluntary intoxication

accused willingly consumed alcohol or drugs to the point that he or she was not aware of his or her actions

Where does voluntary intoxication originate from

common law

Voluntary Intoxication is a defence that only applies to certain type of offence and the Criminal Code limits this defence: explain

special intention offences


this defence does not apply to offences involving assault or threats

If voluntary intoxication defence applies what will happen to the accused?

found guilty of the lesser and included general intention offence

Define provocation and what type of defence it is

limited defence only available to charge of murder


wrongful act or insult that is sufficient to deprive an ordinary person of self-control


"heat of the moment"

List all 8 complete defences

Automatism


Compulsion


Consent


Duress


Necessity


Self-Defence


Mistake of Law


Mistake of Fact


Define Automatism

accused had no control over his or her bodily movements when he or she committed the crime



common law defence

When can automatism occur?

Sleepwalking, Seizure, Involuntary Intoxication - didn't know they were consuming drug or alcohol

If automatism is an accepted defence what happens to the accused?

They will be found not guilty of their charges

Who can't use this defence?

If accused suffers from mental disorder

Define Compulsion

accused committed a crime because he or she was threatened with death or bodily harm unless he or she committed the crime


crime originates from ccc

Compulsion cannot be used for

defences mentioned under Section 17 of the Criminal Code

Define Duress what type of defence is it?

when an accused participates as a party to an offence such as murder or robbery only because someone threatened to harm either the accused or his or her loved ones and the accused had no safe way of escaping other than to commit the crime


complete and common law defence

How can one be successful by using Duress as a defence?

by proving that the threat your client faced was more serious than the client's actions

If you are using duress with a mental disorder whose job is it to disprove?

Defence not Crown

Due diligence is a defence used in...

strict liability offences

What defence is used for absolute liability offences?

none

Define Necessity and describe where this defence originates, what type of defence is it and what crimes it is not good for

accused committed a crime in a situation of imminent danger so as to prevent a more serious situation


common law and complete defence to be used for any crime

Define consent defence

person who claims to be the victim of the crime in fact freely agreed to what occurred

You cannot use consent defence in what circumstances?

death


sexual assault charge involved somone that is under the age of 14 or victim was in a position of trust

Consent defence is a common law defence seen mostly with

sexual assault or assault cases

Define self-defence

COMPLETE DEFENCE set out in the criminal code there are different rules for the accused depending on who provoked the attack.

What is the rule for the accused if they use self-defence in an unprovoked attack?

a person can use reasonable force to prevent an unprovoked attack even if this leads to injuries or death of another

What is the rule for the accused if they used self-defence in a provoked attack?

accused had reasonable apprehension of death or greivous bodily harm and tried to retreat, but was unable to do so.

Define Mistake of Law defence

not an actual defence but suggests that the accused honestly, but incorrectly, thought that what he or she was doing was legal

Define Mistake of fact defence

this is a complete defence!!!


means accused had an honest but mistaken belief in facts that would make his or her actions innocent (used in sexual assault and theft cases)

Difference between mistake of law and mistake of fact?

mistake of fact is an actual complete defence

What's something to remember with defences?

Accused only needs to raise a doubt not prove their defence

Define entrapment

different from a defence because it means that the police or someone working for the police caused the accused to commit the crime

The accused must prove entrapment on...

a balance of probabilities

If the accused can prove entrapment on a balance of probabilities then the judge will...

permanently end the charges via stay the proceedings

Define stay the proceedings

permanently end the charges

In order for the police to provide a person with the opportunity to commit a crime there must be either

-a reasonable prior suspicion that the person was engaged in this type of crime


-the situation must occur in an area where the type of crime being investigated is a problem

What are some things a judge will look into in an entrapment case other than what the police already have to prove?

whether there were other ways to investigate the crime


whether or not police provided opportunity or were so persuasive the victim committed the crime

Where are the legal rights found in the Charter?

Section 7 - 14

What does Section 7 say in the charter of rights and freedoms?

it protects the right to life, liberty and security of a person - does not protect property

What does Section 8 of the charter state?

guarantees everyone the right to be secure against unreasonable search and seizure (for person and property)

Define search according to the charter

anything done to gather evidence against the accused

List the 7 reasonable ways a search can happen under the charter

search warrant


searched for weapons during arrest


emergency exists thus justifying the search


enforce impaired driving


authorized provincial legislation


informed consent to search


proper wiretap warrant is obtained

Define search warrant

authorization granted by a Justice of the Peace or Judge to peace officers to search for specific items in a place named in the warrant

Define wiretap warrant

authorization granted to the police that allows the police to receive and record telephone calls and other private conversations (only QB can grant this)



if one party knows then PC can grant this

What does Section 9 of the Charter provide?

protects against arbitrary detention or imprisonment

When does detention occur

when an individual is not free to leave even if he or she has not been physically confined

What does Section 10 of the Charter provide?

person has the right to be informed of the reasons for arrest, the right to consult with counsel, and the right to be informed of this right



also right to legal aid counsel, private consultation, anything said will be used against them, can remain silent, etc

Define habeus corpus

crown must show that detention of the accused is lawful

What does Section 11 of the Charter state?

accused's rights relating to criminal proceedings such as the right to be tried within a reasonable time, the right to be presumed innocent until proven guilty, and the right not to be tried for an offence for which your client was previously acquitted or found guilty

Define double jeopardy

right to not be tried for an offence for which your client was previously acquitted or found guilty

In PC the accused should have their trial within...

six to eight months

In QB the accused should have their trial within..

12 months

Section 11 does not apply to

appeals

Define autrefois acquit

a plea for accused that was previously acquitted on similar circumstances but being tried again

Define autrefois convict

a peal for previous conviction

What does Section 12 of the Charter provide

right to not be subjected to cruel and unusual punishment

Define Section 13 of the Charter

accused has the right to not incriminate themself; however if they choose to talk then this is no longer protection

Section 33 is of the Charter is often called the

"notwithstanding" section

If Defence wish to raise a constitutional argument at trial a written notice must be given to who and by what time?

Clerk of the Court and the prosecutor at least 14 days before the scheduled court proceeding

A written notice involving a constitutional argument must set out what things?

-alleged charter violation


-circumstances surrounding violation


-remedy that t he lawyer will be seeking


-brief statement of the legal grounds of the argument

A constitutional notice is usually given how in PC and QB?

PC: letter addressed to the Clerk of Court


QB: A Notice of Motion with supporting Affidavit is filed

Define judicial stay of proceedings

decision by a judge to permanently end charges (breach in charter for client)

If you want evidence excluded your lawyer must prove two things what are they?

that the evidence was obtained in a way that breached the accused's rights and that admission of the evidence would bring the administration of justice in disrepute

The reason to exclude evidence must be proved on what scale?

Balance of Probabilities

Define voir dire

trial within a trial to determine the admissibility of evidence

What are four things the judge considers when deciding if the administration of justice would be in disrepute if evidence was admitted?

whether the Charter breach was serious or minor


whether the Charter breach was deliberate or accidental


whether there was an emergency


whether other investigative techniques are available