Cpp Quiz

Front 1

Which of the following is checked on a retina scan?

Back 1

Blood vessels

Front 2

Which of the following is the weakest point in a personnel identi- fication system

Back 2

People

Front 3

Fires involving wood, cloth, paper, or rubber where water is used to quench the fire and cool the material below its ignition tempera- ture are classified as which of the following?

Back 3

Class A

Front 4

When using biometric devices, which of the following is the improper rejection of a valid user?

Back 4

Type I

False rejection rate (FRR)

Front 5

Which of the following are not structural or man-made barriers?

Back 5

Cliffs

Front 6

Which of the following is not a level of security:

a. Minimum security

b. Low-level security

c. High-level security

d. Lack of security

e. Maximum security

Back 6

ANS - Lack of security

Front 7

When using biometric devices, which of the following is the improper acceptance of an unauthorized user?

a. Type II

b. False acceptance rate (FAR)

c. Type I

d. False rejection rate (FRR)

e. Answers a and b

Back 7

ANS - a and b

Front 8

Risk transfer is:

Back 8

ANS - d. Removing the vulnerability or risk to the company for the pro-

tection of an insurance policy

Front 9

Risk reduction is:

Back 9

ANS - a. After identifying vulnerability or risk, implementing counter-

measures to reduce the problem

Front 10

This type of fire involves certain combustible metal, such as mag- nesium, sodium, potassium, and their alloys. A special dry powder that has a special smothering and coating agent should be used and

is not suited for use on other classes of fires.

Back 10

ANS - d. Class D

Front 11

Self-assumption is:

Back 11

ANS- Planning for an eventual loss without the protection of insurance

Front 12

Which of the following is not an energy barrier?

a. Continuous

b. Standby

c. Moveable

d. Immoveable

e. Emergency

Back 12

ANS- Immoveable

Front 13

This type of fire usually involves a class A or B fire but also involves energized electrical equipment. A nonenergized agent is vital. When the agent melts, it forms an oxygen coating over the burning materials to suffocate them. Water and foam should not be used, because they can be conductive

Back 13

ANS - Class C

Front 14

Which of the following are not natural barriers?

a. Mountains

b. Deserts and plains

c. Moats

d. Cliffs

e. Water-covered areas (for example, around Alcatraz prison)

Back 14

ANS - c. Moats

Front 15

Risk avoidance is:

Back 15

ANS - Removing the problem by eliminating the vulnerability or risk

Front 16

The type of fire involving flammable or combustible liquids, gases, and greases, including gasoline, oil, paint, etc., where smothering action is required that interrupts the fuel oxygen of the heat tri- angle is classified as which of the following?

Back 16

ANS - Class B

Front 17

Which of the following are not human barriers?

a. Security guards

b. Patrol units

c. Guard dogs

d. Body guards

e. Military troops

Back 17

ANS - c. Guard dogs

Front 18

Risk can be defined as:

Back 18

ANS - A situation involving exposure to danger

- The possibility that something unpleasant will happen

- A person or thing causing a risk that exposes others to danger or loss

Front 19

One of management’s most valuable tools is:

Back 19

ANS - Security survey

Front 20

specially constructed microphone attached directly to an object

or surface to be protected and that responds only when the pro- tected object or surface is disturbed is known as a:

Back 20

Ans - Contact microphone

Front 21

A visual indicator that shows from which of several zones or build- ings an alarm signal has originated is called a(n):

Back 21

ANS - Annunciator

Front 22

A personal identification method based on the length of each fin- ger of one hand from base to tip and the width of the hand inside the thumb is called the:

Back 22

ANS - Hand geometry identification c.

Front 23

The guard’s primary record of significant events affecting facility protection is called the:

Back 23

ANS - Guard log

Front 24

Which of the following should be a required criterion of post orders?

Back 24

ANS - The order should be written at the lowest level possible.

Front 25

The most important written instructions for the guard force are known as:

Back 25

ANS - Post orders

Front 26

The argument usually used by contract guard representatives as a selling point in their service is:

Back 26

ANS - The reduction in cost

Front 27

One of the main reasons for not arming private security guards is:

Back 27

ANS - The typical business or government facility is not customarily a place where violent crime occurs

Front 28

Usually, in facilities where visitors are to be escorted, this is done by:

Back 28

ANS - Individuals being visited

Front 29

Each guard post that is manned 24 h/day, 7 days a week requires:

Back 29

ANS - Four and a half guards

Front 30

Which of the following is not an authentic characteristic of the guard operation?

a. Guards are costly.visual indicator that displays several zones or buildings from

b. Guards are generally recognized as an essential element in the protection of assets and personnel.

c. Guards are the only element of protection that can be depended upon to give complete security.

d. Guards can also perform as a public relations representative when properly trained.

Back 30

ANS - c. Guards are the only element of protection that can be depended upon to give complete security.

Front 31

Lighting units of four general types are used for protective lighting systems. Which of the following is not used:

a. Continuous

b. Intermittent

c. Standby

d. Moveable

Back 31

ANS - b. Intermittent

Front 32

The process used by the security manager in establishing priorities of protection of assets is known as?

Back 32

ANS - Vulnerability study

Front 33

The degree of protection desired in any installation is predicated upon an analysis of the following two factors:

Back 33

ANS - Criticality and vulnerability

Front 34

Which of the following is true regarding CCTV?

a. CCTVs reduce the amount of security personnel assigned to monitor entrances and exits.

b. CCTVs are effective for control of personnel at entrances.

c. CCTVs can be used as a psychological deterrent.

d. CCTVs are equipped with pan/tilt/zoom and digital recording features.

e. Both a and b.

f. All of the above.

Back 34

ANS - f. All of the above.

Front 35

An alarm system that is monitored by security personnel under the control of the owner of the establishment being protected is known as a(n):

Back 35

ANS - Proprietary alarm

Front 36

An alarm system that uses a sound- or light-generating device, such as a bell or strobe lights, located on the exterior wall of the protective area to call attention to a violation is known as a(n):

Back 36

ANS- Local alarm

Front 37

The type of sensor that is not influenced by exterior noise, reacts only to movement within a protected area, and can also be adjusted to the movement of air caused by a fire to activate the alarm is known as a(n):

Back 37

ANS- Ultrasonic sensor

Front 38

The sound wave sensor is commonly referred to as a(n):

Back 38

ANS - Ultrasonic detector

Front 39

The kind of sensor that is based on the Doppler principle, named after the Austrian scientist who originated the concept, is a(n):

Back 39

ANS- Microwave sensor

Front 40

Which of the following does not pertain to the foil-type sensor? a. The cost of installation is cheap.

b. The cost of the sensor is cheap.

c. It acts as a psychological deterrent.

d. It is subject to false alarms because of breaks.

e. Small cracks in the tape, or foil, will disable it.

Back 40

ANS- a. The cost of installation is cheap.

Front 41

The type of sensor that is designed to place a current-carrying conductor between an intruder and an area to be protected is known as a(n):

Back 41

ANS - Electromechanical sensor

Front 42

Foil used as a detector on a glass window to signal a surreptitious or forcible entry is an example of a(n):

Back 42

ANS - Electromechanical sensor

Front 43

The sensor that is used when light air turbulence, vibration, or motion is present outside the room is a(n):

Back 43

ANS - Acoustic detector

Front 44

The sensor that is used when air turbulence is present in the room being protected and when there are no potential false- alarm sources outside the room and in the field of the detector is a(n):

Back 44

ANS - Microwave motion detector

Front 45

UL standards for the resistance to picking to align tumblers should be at least:

Back 45

ANS - 10 min

Front 46

The best-known performance standard for guidance on the criteria of effective locking systems is published by:

Back 46

ANS - Underwriters Laboratories

Front 47

The most widely used lock in the United States today for exterior building doors and interior room doors is:

Back 47

ANS - The pin-tumbler lock

Front 48

The lock that is mostly used today for cabinets, lockers, and safe- deposit boxes is:

Back 48

ANS - The lever lock

Front 49

Which of the following locks has been in use the longest and has no security value?

Back 49

ANS - The warded lock

Front 50

The most widely used security device is:

Back 50

ANS - A lock-and-key device

Front 51

The type of glass that is often used for both safety and security purposes because it is three to five times stronger than regular glass and five times as resistant to heat is:

Back 51

ANS - Tempered glass

Front 52

What type of glass would be better for a storefront in terms of resistance to breakage, resistance to heat or extreme cold, and resistance to overall deterioration?

Back 52

ANS - Acrylic material

Front 53

Bullet-resistant glass is made of:

Back 53

ANS- Laminated glass

Front 54

Two sheets of ordinary glass bonded to an intervening layer of plastic material that is used in street-level windows and displays that need extra security is known as:

Back 54

ANS - Laminated glass

Front 55

Which of the following is considered to be the most resistant to a blast explosion?

Back 55

ANS - Thick reinforced concrete walls

Front 56

The weakest area in a window is usually:

Back 56

ANS - The sash

Front 57

Which of the following is not true regarding the use of security doors as barriers?

a. Locking hardware is an important aspect of door security.

b. The doorframe may be a weak point if not properly installed.

c. Door hinges may add to the weakness of a door if not properly installed.

d. The door is usually stronger than the surface into which it is set.

Back 57

ANS - d. The door is usually stronger than the surface into which it is set.

Front 58

Which one of the following is true regarding structural barriers?

a. Structural barriers serve as psychological deterrents.

b. The objective of barriers is to cause as much delay as possible .

c. A series of barriers is usually used in any effective physical protection plan.

d. A series of concentric barriers should separate the area to be protected.

e. Even with good planning, most structural barriers do not pre- vent penetration by humans.

f. All of the above.

Back 58

ANS - f. All of the above.

Front 59

A system using inaudible sound waves to detect the presence of an intruder or other disturbance is known as a(n):

Back 59

ANS - Ultrasonic motion detection system

Front 60

system whereby the alarm signal is heard only in the immediate vicinity of the protected area is known as a:

Back 60

ANS - Local alarm system

Front 61

The control of traffic through entrances and exits of a protected area is referred to as:

Back 61

ANS - Access control

Front 62

The roof of a vault should be at least:

Back 62

ANS- 6 in. thick

Front 63

The interior height of a vault should not exceed:

Back 63

ANS - 12 ft.

Front 64

The maximum safe period of fire-resistant vaults is:

Back 64

ANS - 6 h

Front 65

Electronic data and material can begin to deteriorate at:

Back 65

ANS - 150°F

Front 66

The temperature that paper may be destroyed at is:

Back 66

ANS - 350°F

Front 67

Which of the following methods of attacking newer-model safes is considered to be impractical? a. Peel

b. Punch

c. Burn

d. Manipulation

e. Explosion

Back 67

ANS - d. Manipulation

Front 68

Fire-resistant safes must pass which of the following tests?

a. Explosion

b. Impact

c. Fire exposure

d. All of the above

Back 68

ANS - d. All of the above

Front 69

Vaults are designed to meet most fire protection standards that are specified by the:

Back 69

ANS - National Fire Protection Association

Front 70

The UL symbol “TRTL” indicates:

Back 70

ANS - That the safe is resistant to both torches and tools

Front 71

Which of the following is not correct with regard to safes?

a. Money safes do not have accredited fire resistance.

b. UL classification labels are removed from all safes exposed to fires.

c. Record safes are designed to resist fires only.

d. Quality equipment should be purchased only from reputable dealers.

e.Insulation in record safes more than 30 years old may negate fire-resistant qualities.

f.None of the above.

Back 71

ANS - f.None of the above.

Front 72

A 50% insurance discount is generally allowed to protect a safe if:

Back 72

ANS - The premises are open 24 h/day

Front 73

The weakness of the burning bar as a burglary tool is that:

Back 73

ANS - It produces a large volume of smoke

Front 74

Which of the following methods has not been used in recent years to crack open record and money safes?

a. Punching

b. Core drilling

c. Using a fluoroscope

d. Torching

e. Using a laser beam

Back 74

ANS- e. Using a laser beam

Front 75

An experienced safecracker will ordinarily use which of the fol-lowing methods?

a. Trying the maintenance standard combination

b. Trying the day combination

c. Trying the handle

d. All of the above

Back 75

ANS - d. All of the above

Front 76

Most theft is committed by:

Back 76

ANS - Amateurs

Front 77

Security vaults differ from safes in that:

Back 77

ANS - They are permanently affixed to the building

Front 78

Money safes are classified by both Underwriters Laboratories and:

Back 78

ANS - The Insurance Services Office

Front 79

A relock” on a vault door will automatically prevent the bolt mechanism from operating when:

Back 79

ANS- There is an attack on the door or the combination lock

Front 80

Which of the following is not generally true regarding money safes?

a. Those manufactured prior to 1960 have round doors.

b. They provide good protection against fire.

c. They always have wheels.

d. Today, money safes have square doors.

e. Both b and c.

f. All of the above.

Back 80

ANS- e. Both b and c.

Front 81

Safes that are UL classified must be anchored to the floor or must weigh at least:

Back 81

ANS - 750 lb

Front 82

Which of the following would be a UL computer media storage classification?

Back 82

ANS- 150-4

Front 83

The acceptable vault construction of insulated doors has a minimum reinforced concrete wall, floor, and ceiling of:

Back 83

ANS - 6ft

Front 84

Underwriters Laboratories does independent testing on security containers that simulate a major fire where the heat builds up gradually to:

Back 84

ANS- 2000°F

Front 85

Which of the following is not an approved UL safe classification?

a. 350-1

b. 350-2

c. 350-3

d. 350-4

Back 85

ANS- c. 350-3

Front 86

In meeting minimal federal specifications, government security containers must be equipped with a combination lock capable of resisting manipulation and radiological attack for:

Back 86

ANS- 20 man-hours

Front 87

In meeting minimal federal specifications, noninsulated security containers must satisfactorily pass a drop test of:

Back 87

ANS- 30ft

Front 88

In meeting federal specifications, insulated units must have the following fire-resistant minimum ratings:

Back 88

ANS- Class 350: 1 h

Front 89

Which of the following is more of a probable disadvantage in the use of sentry dogs?

a. A dog is more effective than a human during inclement weather.

b. A dog has a keen sense of smell.

c. A dog provides a strong psychological deterrent.

d. The type of dog best suited for security work is naturally dangerous.

e. A dog can detect and apprehend intruders.

Back 89

ANS- d. The type of dog best suited for security work is naturally dangerous.

Front 90

A sentry dog normally does not perform as well at:

a. Radar sites

b. Warehouses

c. Gasoline storage areas

d. Ammunition storage areas

e. Offices containing classified materials

Back 90

ANS- c. Gasoline storage areas

Front 91

An inventory of key systems should be conducted at least

Back 91

ANS- Annually

Front 92

Which of the following is not true with regard to door latches?

a. A dead-bolt latch is easy to install and can be used on almost any door.

b. Chain latches are highly recommended as effective security measures.

c. A dead-bolt latch is very expensive.

d. A dead-bolt latch increases the security posture of the facility.

e. Both b and c.

f. Both a and d.

Back 92

ANS- e. Both b and c

Front 93

Which lock is generally used on automobiles, desks, and cabinets?

Back 93

ANS- wafer

Front 94

The number of combinations possible with a lock that has 40 numbers and a 3-number combination is?

Back 94

ANS- 64,000

Front 95

Of the following locks, which type is generally considered to have the poorest security value? a. An interchangeable core system

b. Conventional combination locks

c. Key locks

d. Manipulation-resistant combination locks

Back 95

ANS- c. Key locks

Front 96

Which of the following is not true with regard to lock-and-key systems?

a. The locking system should be supplemented with other security devices.

b. Most key locks can be picked by an expert in a few minutes.

c. A high-quality pickproof lock is considered a positive bar to entry.

d. The lock is the most accepted and widely used security device of the basic safeguards in protecting installations.

e. Locks, regardless of quality or cost, should be considered as delay devices only.

Back 96

ANS- c. A high-quality pickproof lock is considered a positive bar to entry.

Front 97

The principle of the pin-tumbler lock can be traced back histori- cally to:

Back 97

ANS- Egyptians more than 4000 years ago

Front 98

An alarm system whereby the central station is owned by and located within the installation being protected is known as a(n):

Back 98

ANS- Proprietary system

Front 99

An alarm system that is monitored by an outside company to provide electric protective services in which they provide the appropriate actions is known as a(n):

Back 99

ANS- Central station system

Front 100

An alarm system in which the installation-owned system is a direct extension of the police or fire alarm system is known as a(n):

Back 100

ANS- Auxiliary system

Front 101

The intrusion detection system that is used on safes, walls, and openings in an effort to establish an electrostatic field around an object to be protected is known as a(n)

Back 101

ANS- Capacitance detection system

Front 102

The intrusion detection system in which a pattern of radio waves is transmitted and partially reflected back to the antenna is known as a(n):

Back 102

ANS- Microwave detection system

Front 103

What agency should be consulted before installing protective lighting adjacent to navigable waters?

Back 103

ANS- The US Coast Guard

Front 104

The US Army illumination intensity minimums for lighting the perimeter of a restricted area is:

Back 104

ANS- 0.40 foot-candle

Front 105

Water approaches that extend to 100 ft. from the pier should be illuminated to at least:

Back 105

ANS- 0.5 foot-candle

Front 106

What is the most common protective lighting system, which consists of a series of fixed luminaries arranged to flood a given area during the hours of darkness with overlapping cones of light?

Back 106

ANS- Continuous lighting

Front 107

Piers and docks located on an installation should be safeguarded by illuminating both water approaches and the pier area. Decks on open piers should be illuminated to at least:

Back 107

ANS- 1.0 foot-candle

Front 108

Lighting units of four general types are used for protective lighting. Which of the following is not used?

a. Emergency

b. Movable

c. Standby

d. Intermittent

e. Continuous

Back 108

ANS- d. Intermittent

Front 109

Which of the following principles of protective lighting is not correct?

a. Lighting should be used with other measures, such as fixed security posts, fences, etc., and not used alone.

b. A large amount of light should be focused on security patrol routes.

c. Adequate, even light should be used on bordering areas.

d. There should be a high brightness contrast between an intruder and the background.

e. Glaring lights should be directed at the eyes of an intruder.

Back 109

ANS- b. A large amount of light should be focused on security patrol routes.

Front 110

Measured horizontally 6 in. above ground level and at least 30 ft. outside the exclusion area to barrier, the perimeter band of lighting must provide a minimum intensity of:

Back 110

ANS- 0.2 foot-candle

Front 111

Q .Which of the following characteristics of protective lighting is incorrect?

a. It may be unnecessary where the perimeter fence is protected by a central alarm system.

b. It usually requires less intensity than working light.

c. It may also provide personal protection by reducing advantages of concealment.

d. It should only be used as a psychological deterrent.

e. Such lighting is expensive to maintain.

Back 111

ANS- e. Such lighting is expensive to maintain.

Front 112

Manhole covers ― in. or more in diameter should be secured to prevent unauthorized openings.

Back 112

ANS- 10

Front 113

As a general rule, between the perimeter barrier and structures within the protected area, except when a building is a part of the perimeter barrier, there should be a clear zone of at least:

Back 113

ANS- 50ft

Front 114

Between the perimeter barrier and exterior structures should be a clear zone covering:

Back 114

ANS- 20ft

Front 115

Unavoidable drainage ditches, culverts, vents, ducts, and other openings should be protected by securely fastened welded-bar grills when they have a cross-sectional area greater than:

Back 115

ANS- 96 in.2

Front 116

How many inches apart should strands of barbed wire or tape used as a top guard on a fence be spaced?

Back 116

ANS- 6

Front 117

A top guard must consist of:

Back 117

ANS- Three strands of barbed wire or tape

Front 118

Top-guard supporting arms should be permanently affixed to the top of the fence posts to increase the overall height of the fence by at least:

Back 118

ANS- 1 ft

Front 119

The distance between barbed strands in a barbed-wire fence should not exceed:

Back 119

ANS- 6 in.

Front 120

A standard barbed-wire, twisted, double-strand fence has how many point barbs spaced an equal distance apart.

Back 120

ANS- 4

Front 121

The federal specification regarding standard barbed-wire fencing that is twisted and double-strand is that it should be:

Back 121

ANS- 12 gauge

Front 122

Excluding the top guard, standard barbed-wire fencing that is intended to prevent human trespassing should not be less than:

Back 122

ANS- 7 ft. high

Front 123

In a chain-link fence with mesh openings for general security purposes, the openings should be no larger than:

Back 123

ANS- 2 in.

Front 124

Excluding the top guard, a chain-link fence for general security purposes should be:

Back 124

ANS- 9 gauge

Front 125

What type of fencing is generally used for protection of limited and exclusion areas?

Back 125

ANS- Chain link

Front 126

A restricted area containing a security interest or other sensitive matter, in which uncontrolled movement can permit access to the security interest or sensitive matter but within which access may be prevented by security escort and other internal restrictions and controls, is called a(n)

Back 126

ANS- Limited area

Front 127

Which of the following is not a known advantage of the establishment of restricted areas?

a. They provide an increase in security without slowdown in operation.

b. They provide increased security through buffer zones.

c. They allow for varying degrees of security as required.

d. They improve overall security.

e. They make it possible to have security compatible with operational requirements.

Back 127

ANS- a. They provide an increase in security without slowdown in operation.

Front 128

The designation and establishment of “restricted areas” according to army regulations is performed by the:

Back 128

ANS- Military commander of the installation or facility

Front 129

The practice of having at least two authorized persons, each capable of detecting incorrect or unauthorized procedures with respect to the task being performed, present during any operation that affords access to a sensitive area is referred to as the:

Back 129

ANS- Two-man rule

Front 130

The use of a simple code word or phrase during a normal conversation to alert other security personnel that an authorized person has been forced to vouch for an unauthorized individual is termed:

Back 130

ANS- Duress code

Front 131

Which of the following is not true in regard to establishing and identifying personnel to control movement?

a. The identification card should be designed as simply as possible.

b. Detailed instructions should be disseminated as to where,when, and how badges should be worn.

c. Procedures should be designed to show employees what to do when an identification card or badge is lost.

d. The identification card or badge should be designed in a relatively complicated manner to avoid duplication.

e. Prerequisites for reissue should be devised and disseminated.

Back 131

ANS- d. The identification card or badge should be designed in a relatively complicated manner to avoid duplication.

Front 132

The most vulnerable link in any identification system is:

Back 132

ANS- Perfunctory performance of duty

Front 133

Which of the following is not correct regarding a security education program?

a. Many people are naive and trusting.

b. All installation personnel must be made aware of the constant threat of breaches of security.

c. Structural aids to security are valueless without active support of all personnel.

d. Security consciousness is an inherent state of mind.

Back 133

ANS- d. Security consciousness is an inherent state of mind.

Front 134

From a security perspective, what is the first factor to be considered in facility construction?

Back 134

ANS- The building site itself

Front 135

What is a key consideration in a risk analysis or risk assessment process?

a. Vulnerability to attack

b. Probability of attack

c. Cost

d. Impact to the business if loss occurs

e. Both a and b

f. All of the above

Back 135

ANS- f. All of the above

Front 136

A critical on-site examination and analysis of a facility to ascertain the present security status and to identify deficiencies or excesses in determining the protection needed to make recommendations to improve overall security is the definition of a(n):

Back 136

ANS- Security survey

Front 137

The degree of protection desired in any installation is predicated on an analysis of which of the following?

Back 137

ANS- Criticality and vulnerability

Front 138

What process does a security manager use in establishing priori- ties in the protection of assets?

Back 138

ANS- Security survey and Risk analysis or assessment

Front 139

For persons in responsible and sensitive positions, financial and lifestyle reinvestigations should be conducted every:

Back 139

ANS- 18 months

Front 140

In which of the following situations in proprietary security are polygraphs most often used?

a.Periodic tests of all employees to establish their conduct if they are a necessity of the job due to government regulations

b. Specific questions to determine the causes of specific incidents

c. Preemployment examinations if required or approved by law

e. All of the above

Back 140

ANS- e. All of the above

Front 141

Q. An exit interview is a valuable tool for which of the following reasons?

a. It gives the employee an opportunity to list grievances

b. Management often learns of problems not previously known.

c. It helps to reduce loss when a checklist is used to have company property returned.

d. It is used to remind departing employees of a legal obligation to protect trade secrets or confidential records.

e. All of the above

Back 141

ANS- e. All of the above

Front 142

The polygraph measures the following stress indicators except:

a. Quickened pulse

b. Raised blood pressure

c. Rate of speech

d. Shallow respiration

e. Lowered galvanic skin resistance

Back 142

ANS- c. Rate of speech

Front 143

Preemployment polygraph tests are limited to which of the following?

a. National defense positions

b. Law enforcement positions

c. Positions with banks, savings, loans, or armored transportation

d. Federal positions involving law enforcement, national defense, and other relevant positions of trust

e. All of the above

Back 143

ANS- e. All of the above

Front 144

Which of the following is permitted by an employer in regard to the screening process?

a. Ask if the applicant is a US citizen.

b. Inquire about racial background.

c. Require a photo with the application.

d. Inquire regarding the applicant’s religion.

e. Ask questions about organizational affiliations whereby race, religion, or national origin data can be obtained.

Back 144

ANS- a. Ask if the applicant is a US citizen.

Front 145

A complete background investigation usually covers which of the following steps?

a. A personal history statement (PHS)

b. Evaluation of the PHS

c. A national agency check

d. A full field investigation

e. All of the above

Back 145

ANS- e. All of the above

Front 146

Which of the following is not permitted by an employer in regard to the screening process?

a. Ask if the applicant is a US citizen.

b. Have the applicant write his or her name and address on the application form.

c. Require a photo with the application.

d. Explain duty hours required in job.

e. Inquire about educational and training background.

Back 146

ANS- c. Require a photo with the application.

Front 147

Personnel investigations usually involve which of the following techniques?

a. Backgrounding

b. Positive vetting

c. Polygraphing

d. Profiling

e. All of the above

Back 147

ANS- e. All of the above

Front 148

The persons who find integrity tests offensive are:

Back 148

ANS- Twice as likely to admit to criminal or drug abuse behavior

Front 149

Which of the following is not true with regard to a résumé?

a. It does not provide the information that the company requires.

b. It is never accepted in lieu of a completed application form.

c. It is always accepted and is reviewed as part of the investigation.

d. It is an acceptable form of information for a professionalposition.

Back 149

ANS- d. It is an acceptable form of information for a professionalposition.

Front 150

Any investigation that includes unfavorable information or results in an adverse employment decision should be:

Back 150

ANS- Retained in file for a minimum of 3 years

Front 151

The frequency of a reinvestigation of the “financial lifestyle” inquiry should generally be:

Back 151

ANS- Every 18 months

Front 152

When conducting an interview during a background investigation, the investigator should advise the party being interviewed that the applicant/employee is:

Back 152

ANS- Being investigated in connection with a position of trust

Front 153

Under federal law, the use of the polygraph for preemployment is permissible, except in which industry?

Back 153

ANS- Alcohol manufacturing

Front 154

When interviewing an applicant for employment, the interviewer may ask which questions:

a. Have you ever been arrested?

b. How old are you?

c. Are you married?

d. Can you meet the attendance requirements of this job?

Back 154

ANS- d.Can you meet the attendance requirements of this job?

Front 155

Which is not a strategy for managing violence in the workplace?

a. Establish a committee to plan violence prevention.

b. Consider OSHA guidelines to curb workplace violence.

c. Have professionally trained and armed security officers.

d. Establish policies and procedures and communicate the problems of threats and violence to all employees.

Back 155

ANS- c. Have professionally trained and armed security officers.

Front 156

Which of the following laws would not serve as a legal guide in the hiring of personnel?

a. Civil Rights Act

b. Age Discrimination in Employment Act

c. Lanham Act

d. Americans with Disabilities Act

Back 156

ANS- c. Lanham Act

Front 157

An important task that faces every organization is the hiring of personnel. The purpose of applicant screening is:

Back 157

ANS- To identify the most appropriate person

Front 158

The concept that an individual should be aware of the security program and persuaded that the program is relevant to his or her own behavior is known as:

Back 158

ANS- Security awareness

Front 159

Of all security processes, the most critical is:

Back 159

ANS- Personnel

Front 160

A major concern of a company, above all else, should be:

Back 160

ANS- The care and well-being of its employees

Front 161

Employees’ attitudes are directly affected by:

Back 161

ANS- Personal problems that originate within and outside the company

Front 162

Employees, for the most part, are:

Back 162

ANS- Conscientious, honest individuals who have the company’s best interests at heart

Front 163

Personnel security problems are caused by:

a. Dishonesty

b. Disloyalty

c. Disinterest of employees

d. Low morale

f. All of the above

Back 163

ANS- f. All of the above

Front 164

One thousand shopping tests across the nation showed that in a 10-year period, cash register thefts had increased by what percentage?

Back 164

ANS- 86

Front 165

In the United States, employee thefts are:

Back 165

ANS- Greater than the problem of crime in the streets

Front 166

The first skill the manager or supervisor must learn is:

Back 166

ANS- The ability to listen

Front 167

Nondirectional counseling of upset employees:

Back 167

ANS- Involves primarily being a good listener

Front 168

Directional counseling of upset employees:

Back 168

ANS- Is not usually desirable

Front 169

Employee complaints often arise from:

Back 169

ANS- A form of substitution for expressing their fears and frustrations concerning their personal lives

Front 170

The most effective deterrent to shoplifting is:

Back 170

ANS- Well-trained personnel

Front 171

Overrings should not be corrected by undercharging on other items because this:

Back 171

ANS- Is probably the easiest method of theft by employees

Front 172

Which of the following should the manager or supervisor immediately approve by signature:

Back 172

ANS- All voids and overrings over a certain amount

Front 173

Stores that rely on stapling packages shut with the register tape folded over the top of the bag do this:

Back 173

ANS- On the assumption that employees will not help each other

Front 174

An impelling type of leadership tends to reduce employee dishon- esty because:

Back 174

ANS- It reduces employee frustration

Front 175

Frustration and aggression may be caused by:

Back 175

ANS- The supervisor’s lack of consideration in dealing with his or her employees or by unrealistic company policies

Front 176

An employee should be questioned:

Back 176

ANS- Behind a closed door

Front 177

Many experts agree that the most important deterrent to internal theft is:

Back 177

ANS- Fear of discovery

Front 178

A psychopath can often pass a polygraph test with a clean record because of the following characteristic:

Back 178

ANS- An abnormal lack of fear

Front 179

Individuals who find integrity tests offensive are:

Back 179

ANS- Twice as likely to admit to criminal activity or drug abuse

Front 180

Of those acquitted or dismissed by the courts for theft, over _________% were rearrested within 30 months.

Back 180

ANS- 80

Front 181

The theft triangle consists of the following components:

Back 181

ANS- Motivation, opportunity, and rationalization (desire)

Front 182

Scientists at Yale University (1939) concluded that frustration almost always results in some aggressive reaction, the most important point being:

Back 182

ANS- A substitute satisfaction, in which the employee “gets even” by stealing from the company

Front 183

A study by scientists at Yale University (1939) found that theft resulted from?

Back 183

ANS- Aggression, frustration, and low anticipation of being caught

Front 184

An employer may not question an applicant about:

Back 184

ANS- An arrest for a crime against property

Front 185

An employer may reject an applicant on the basis of:

Back 185

ANS- A conviction for a crime against property

Front 186

The single most important safeguard for preventing internal theft is probably:

Back 186

ANS- Upgrading the screening of new employees

Front 187

Store inventory shortages are mainly caused by:

Back 187

ANS- Shoplifting losses

-Employee theft

-Paperwork errors

Front 188

According to estimates, about one-third of all business failures are caused by:

Back 188

ANS- Theft from employees

Front 189

Dishonest employees cost employers __________ as much as all the nations’ burglaries, car thefts, and bank holdups combined.

Back 189

ANS- Twice

Front 190

Which of the following should not be a policy in considering applicants for hire?

a. Similar problems in numerous areas, such as bad credit, absenteeism, and numerous short-term jobs.

b. A problem in one area of interest should be enough to disqualify an applicant for hire.

c. If obviously overqualified, find out why applicant is willing to accept the current job.

Back 190

ANS- b. A problem in one area of interest should be enough to disqualify an applicant for hire.

Front 191

Which of the following may be a clue on the employment form for considering refusal to hire?

a. Gaps in employment history

b. Long list of jobs over a relatively short period

c. A significant reduction in salary at a recent job

d. 3 to 6 months spent in the military

e. All of the above

Back 191

ANS- e. All of the above

Front 192

Inquiring about an applicant’s age and date of birth on a preem- ployment form may be prohibited by:

Back 192

ANS- The Age Discrimination in Employment Act

Front 193

Of the following questions, what cannot be asked of an applicant because of federal laws?

a. Whether an applicant is married, divorced, separated, widowed, or single

b. Whether an applicant owns or rents a residence

c. Whether an applicant has ever been arrested

d. Whether an applicant’s wages have ever been garnished

e. All of the above

Back 193

A- e. All of the above

Front 194

The basic principle of personnel security is:

Back 194

ANS- That attitudes and honesty of rank-and-file employees are key

Front 195

A Burns security survey covering 847 banks found that the most important single step toward improved crime prevention was:

Back 195

ANS- Training of bank employees

Front 196

The quality of service rendered by security personnel is deter-mined by which of the following?

a. Personnel selection process

b. Training

c. Wages

d. Supervision

e. All of the above

Back 196

ANS- e. All of the above

Front 197

Which of the following is not a requirement for handling preem- ployment interviews?

a. Interviews must be voluntary.

b. Interviews must be unbiased.

c. For an interview to be effective, it should be conducted with a witness or a friend of the applicant present.

d. The interviewer should not give out information.

e. Complete and accurate notes should be taken.

Back 197

ANS- c. For an interview to be effective, it should be conducted with a witness or a friend of the applicant present.

Front 198

Background investigations of an applicant should:

a. Be based on the application and an interview record form

b. Be done by a carefully screened investigator

c. Be conducted without any prior contact from the applicant by the investigator

d. All of the above

Back 198

ANS- d. All of the above

Front 199

What are the advantages of having an outside organization perform background screening on your employees?

a. Company personnel are spared potential embarrassments as well as liability claims.

b. Depending on the number of checks, the costs will be lower.

c. Screening will be done by trained staff with extensive sources of information.

d. Screenings will be unbiased with no corrupt motivation.

e. All of the above.

Back 199

ANS- e. All of the above.

Front 200

According to a 1979 survey by the American Society for Industrial Security, the number of organizations in the United States offering security courses is greater than:

Back 200

ANS- 180

Front 201

The main hurdle to overcome for personality tests is the requirement of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 that such a test not be discriminatory against protected minorities. This rule used as a test is known as the:

Back 201

ANS- 80% rule

Front 202

A personality test that uses the MMPI evaluation and states that it is specially designed for police and security applicants is:

Back 202

ANS- The Caldwell Report

Front 203

An example of an honesty test given by firms to determine dishonest employees is:

Back 203

ANS- The Reid survey

Front 204

Which of the following is not an example of an intelligence test?

a. Manual placement test

b. Stanford-Binet IQ test

c. Armed Forces General Classification Test

d. Henman-Nelson IQ test

Back 204

ANS- a. Manual placement test

Front 205

Security awareness is motivated by what technique?

a. Integration into line operations

b. Formal security briefings

c. Use of written material

d. All of the above

Back 205

ANS- d. All of the above

Front 206

The theory that the human organism is motivated by an ascending series of needs and that once the lower needs have been satisfied, they will be supplanted by the higher needs as motives for behavior is known as:

Back 206

ANS- Maslow’s “hierarchy of prepotency”

Front 207

The attitude or state of mind through which individuals are conscious of the existence of the security program and are persuaded that it is relevant to their own behavior is a concept known as:

Back 207

ANS- Security awareness

Front 208

The most critical component of all security processes is:

Back 208

ANS- Personnel

Front 209

A comprehensive personnel security program should include:

a. Adequate job specifications and performance standards

b. Truth verification standards

c. Appropriate selection and recruitment criteria

e. All of the above

Back 209

ANS- e. All of the above

Front 210

The standard of employment of military and government person- nel was established by which executive order?

Back 210

ANS- 1045

Front 211

The real meaning of the governmental policy in personnel secu- rity is:

Back 211

ANS- keep those considered to be “risky” from obtaining jobs

Front 212

When an individual is eligible to have access to classified information, this is called:

Back 212

ANS- A security clearance

Front 213

Which of the following security clearances is not used by the government?

a. Top secret

b. Secret

c. Confidential

d. Restricted

e. Q clearance

Back 213

ANS- d. Restricted

Front 214

What agency is responsible for processing requests for security clearances?

Back 214

ANS- The Department of Defense

Front 215

Individuals who are not US citizens, or are immigrants, are not eligible for security clearances except under reciprocal clearance involving:

Back 215

ANS- Canada and the United Kingdom

Front 216

Which is a type of personnel security investigation?

Back 216

ANS- National Agency Check &

Background investigation

Front 217

An investigation that consists of checking the records of appropriate federal agencies for information bearing on the loyalty and suitability of a person under investigation is known as a(n):

Back 217

ANS- National Agency Check

Front 218

A background investigation for a security clearance consists of: a. Checking college attendance, if attended

b. Verifying service in the armed forces

c. Interviewing character references

e. All of the above

Back 218

ANS- e. All of the above

Front 219

During a security clearance background investigation, verification of naturalization will primarily be done by:

Back 219

ANS- Checking records of appropriate US district courts

Front 220

The Act passed to require that consumer reporting agencies adopt reasonable procedures for meeting the needs of commerce for consumer credit is commonly known as:

Back 220

ANS- The Fair Credit Reporting Act

Front 221

During a security clearance background investigation, when travel outside the United States is detected, which of the following should be checked?

a. FBI records

b. CIA records

c. Immigration records

d. Customs records

f. None of the above

Back 221

ANS- f. None of the above