Cpo Bmr 2012

Front 1

The legal officer uses what part of
the Manual for Courts–Martial, 1984
in preparing a report chit?
1. Part I
2. Part III
3. Part IV
4. Part VI

Back 1

Part IV

Front 2

The preliminary investigation
officer should conduct an interview
with the accused at which of the
following times?
1. As soon as the report chit is
filled out
2. After examining the real and
documentary evidence
3. After the accused has been
advised of article 31(b) of the
UCMJ and makes a waiver of
rights
4. After advising the accused on
the legal technicalities of the
case

Back 2

3. After the accused has been
advised of article 31(b) of the
UCMJ and makes a waiver of
rights

Front 3

What is the primary regulatory
document of the Navy?
1. Standard Organization and
Regulations of the U.S. Navy
2. Uniform Code of Military Justice
3. Manual for Courts-Martial, 1984
4. U.S. Navy Regulations

Back 3

4. U.S. Navy Regulations

Front 4

Chapter 8 of U.S. Navy Regulations,
1990, applies to which of the
following people?
1. Commanding officers
2 . Prospective commanding officers
3. Petty officers detailed as
officer in charge or command
duty officer
4. All of the above

Back 4

4. All of the above

Front 5

Which of the following chapters of
U.S. Navy Regulations, 1990,
outlines the actions of U.S. naval
forces when in the vicinity of other
armed forces?
1. The Senior Officer Present
2 . Precedence, Authority and
Command
3. Commanders in Chief and Other
Commanders
4. Statutory Authority for United
States Navy Regulations

Back 5

1. The Senior Officer Present

Front 6

Which chapter in U.S. Navy
Regulations, 1990, provides
information on detailing officers
and enlisted persons?
1. The Senior Officer Present
2 . Precedence, Authority and
Command
3. Commanders in Chief and Other
Commanders
4. Statutory Authority for United
States Navy Regulations

Back 6

2 . Precedence, Authority and
Command

Front 7

In which of the following
publications would you find the
definition for unity of command?
1. Standard Organization and
Regulations of the U.S. Navy
2 . U.S. Navy Regulations, 1990
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Uniform Code of Military Justice

Back 7

1. Standard Organization and
Regulations of the U.S. Navy

Front 8

Which, i f any, of the following
chapters in the SORN contain
organizational requirements for
aviation units?
1. Standard unit organization
2. The unit organization
3. Watch organization
4. None of the above

Back 8

1. Standard unit organization

Front 9

Chapter 7 of the SORN covers which
of the following topics?
1. Safety
2. Training
3. Unit Bills
4. Unit directives system

Back 9

1. Safety

Front 10

What chapter in the SORN covers
guidelines for establishing
operational bills?
1. Unit Bills
2. Watch Organization
3. The Unit Organization
4. Standard Unit Organization

Back 10

1. Unit Bills

Front 11

What is the equal right of
jurisdiction called?
1. Jurisprudence jurisdiction
2. Equilateral jurisdiction
3. Concurrent jurisdiction
4. Disparate jurisdiction

Back 11

3. Concurrent jurisdiction

Front 12

Status of Forces Agreements are a
package of which of the following
agreements?
1. Treaties
2 . Protocol agreements
3. Executive agreements
4. All of the above

Back 12

4. All of the above

Front 13

What is the primary purpose of the
Status of Forces Agreements?
1. To define the status of one’s
military forces stationed in
another country
2 . To allow the host country
jurisdiction over foreign
personnel
3. To provide for the common
defense against communist
aggressors
4. To give NATO forces the right to
operate anywhere in Europe

Back 13

1. To define the status of one’s
military forces stationed in
another country

Front 14

You are stationed aboard a ship in a
foreign port. When are you exempt
from prosecution by local
authorities?
1. When you come back aboard after
going on liberty
2 . When ashore on official business
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. Naval personnel enjoy diplomatic
immunity because of SOFA and are
always exempt from prosecution

Back 14

3. Both 1 and 2 above

Front 15

Which of the following privileges
are allowed. under SOFA, by special
consent of the host country?
2-63. Which of the following topics are
generally covered by SOFAs?
1. Freedom of troop movement
2 . Exchange privileges
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. Marriage licenses
2-64. When did countries first recognize
the need to develop Status of Forces
Agreements?
1. Before World War I
2. During peacetime, 1919 to 1939
3. During World War II
4. After countries had recovered
from World War II
2-65. Our Allies want us to remove our
troops from Europe.
1. True
2. False
1. Use of a U.S. driver’s license
2. Waiver of taxes or import duty
on household goods
3. Entering and leaving the country
on military orders
4. All of the above

Back 15

4. All of the above

Front 16

Which of the following topics are
generally covered by SOFAs?
1. Freedom of troop movement
2 . Exchange privileges
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. Marriage licenses

Back 16

3. Both 1 and 2 above

Front 17

When did countries first recognize
the need to develop Status of Forces
Agreements?
1. Before World War I
2. During peacetime, 1919 to 1939
3. During World War II
4. After countries had recovered
from World War II

Back 17

3. During World War II

Front 18

Which, if any, of the following
levels of management contains chief
petty officers?
1. Top
2. Middle
3. Operating
4. None of the above

Back 18

3. Operating

Front 19

planning are chiefs normally
involved?
1. Single–use
2. Standing
3. Strategic
4. Both 2 and 3 above

Back 19

1. Single–use

Front 20

What type of planning involves
activities that will occur in 2 to 5
years?
1. Strategic
2. Standing
3. Procedures
4. Single-use

Back 20

1. Strategic

Front 21

Which of the following plans gives
broad general statements of expected
behavior?
1. Policies
2. Procedures
3. Rules and regulations
4. Organizational objectives

Back 21

1. Policies

Front 22

What type of organizational document
should you use to help avoid crisis
management?
1. The command policies
2. The command procedures
3. The command organizational
objectives
4. The command’s rules and
regulations

Back 22

3. The command organizational
objectives

Front 23

Single-use plans are developed
which of the following plans?
1. Strategic
2. Programs
3. Projects
4. Budgets

Back 23

1. Strategic

Front 24

Which of the following statements
defines the goal setting criteria of
being behavior specific?
1. Specifies the necessary action
to take
2. Provides a time schedule or
deadline for reaching the goal
3. Specifies criteria or check
points for accomplishing the
goal
4. Tests your ability, but has at.
least a 50 percent chance of
being attained

Back 24

1. Specifies the necessary action
to take

Front 25

The goal setting criteria of being
measurable is defined by which of
the following statements?
1. The goal tests your ability, but
has at least a 50 percent chance
of being attained
2 . The goal specifies criteria or
check points for accomplishing
the goal
3. The goal provides a time
schedule or deadline for
reaching the goal
4. The goal specifies the necessary
action to take

Back 25

2 . The goal specifies criteria or
check points for accomplishing
the goal

Front 26

Which of the following statements
defines realistic but challenging
goal setting criteria?
1. Tests your ability, but has at
least a 50 percent chance of
being attained
2 . Specifies criteria or check
points for accomplishing the
goal
3. Provides a time schedule or
deadline for reaching the goal
4. Specifies the necessary action
to take

Back 26

1. Tests your ability, but has at
least a 50 percent chance of
being attained

Front 27

Which of the following statements
defines time-phased goal setting
c r i t e r i a ?
1. Tests your ability, but has at
least a 50 percent chance of
being attained
2. Specifies criteria or check
points for accomplishing the
goal
3. Provides a time schedule or
deadline for reaching the goal
4. Specifies the necessary action
to take

Back 27

3. Provides a time schedule or
deadline for reaching the goal

Front 28

Trying to anticipate problems and
making corrections before problems
occur requires which of the
following types of control?
1. Quality
2 . Feedback
3. Concurrent
4. Feedforward

Back 28

4. Feedforward

Front 29

Which of the following types of
control involves making corrections
after an event happens?
1. Feedforward
2. Concurrent
3. Feedback
4. Quality

Back 29

3. Feedback

Front 30

Which of the following types of
control involves making changes as
an event occurs?
1. Quality
2. Feedback
3. Concurrent
4. Feed forward

Back 30

3. Concurrent

Front 31

An inspection of the raw input for
defects is what type of quality
control?
1. Quality circle
2. Zero defects
3. Feedforward
4. Feedback

Back 31

3. Feedforward

Front 32

Which of the following types of
quality control is based on doing
the job right the first time?
1. Quality circle
2. Zero defects
3. Feedforward
4. Feedback

Back 32

2. Zero defects

Front 33

Which of the following types of
control was developed by the Navy
while constructing the Polaris
missile?
1. Plan of action and milestones
2. Critical path method
3. Gantt Chart
4. PERT

Back 33

4. PERT

Front 34

When constructing a PERT network,
what is the fourth step?
1. Control the project
2. Find the critical path
3. Look for ways to improve the
p r o j e c t
4. Define the order needed to
complete the component task

Back 34

2. Find the critical path

Front 35

When you evaluate your control
system to eliminate unnecessary
costs, you are using which of the
following elements of effective
control?
1. Effectiveness
2. Acceptance
3. Timeliness
4. Accuracy

Back 35

1. Effectiveness

Front 36

A major department responsible for
accomplishing the mission of the
command belongs to which of the
following types of organization?
1. Line
2. S t a f f
3. Functional
4. Each of the above

Back 36

1. Line

Front 37

A functional organization is defined
by which of the following
statements?
1. Does not have authority over
line departments
2. Is responsible for accomplishing
the command mission
3. Has authority over all parts of
the command in ensuring its
special function is met
4. Gives advice to line departments

Back 37

3. Has authority over all parts of
the command in ensuring its
special function is met

Front 38

The division of work is explained by
which of the following
organizational concepts?
1. Chain of command
2. Unity of command
3. Span of control
4. Specialization

Back 38

4. Specialization

Front 39

The order of control within an
organization is defined by which of
the following terms?
1. Chain of command
2. Unity of command
3. Span of control
4. Specialization

Back 39

2. Unity of command

Front 40

How many people can one person
effectively supervise?
1. 5
2. 10
3. 12
4. 13

Back 40

1. 5

Front 41

The order of authority within an
organization is explained by which
of the following organizational
concepts?
1. Chain of command
2. Unity of command
3. Span of control
4. Specialization

Back 41

1. Chain of command

Front 42

The use of threats or negative
rewards is the use of which of the
following types of power?
1. Expert
2. Referent
3. Coercive
4. Informational

Back 42

3. Coercive

Front 43

When you influence others through
the use of your specialized
knowledge, you are exercising which
of the following types of power?
1. Expert
2. Referent
3. Coercive
4. Informational

Back 43

1. Expert

Front 44

Which of the following types of
power do you have simply because
people identify with you being a
c h i e f ?
1. Expert
2 . Referent
3. Coercive
4. Informational

Back 44

2 . Referent

Front 45

A leader who believes people must be
coerced, controlled, directed, or
threatened is using which of the
following leadership theories?
1. W
2. X
3. Y
4. Z

Back 45

2. X

Front 46

Immediate compliance to orders,
tight job control, and numerous
detailed reports on jobs are
characteristics of which of the
following leadership styles?
1. Coach
2. Coercer
3. Affiliatior
4. Pacesetter

Back 46

2. Coercer

Front 47

Which of the following definitions
identifies the authoritarian style
of leadership?
1. Negative feedback is given and
name calling is frequent
2 . Motivation is generated through
threats of discipline or
punishment
3. Rewards are given for personal
characteristics and punishment
is rare
4. Clear direction is given with no
doubt about who makes the final
decisions

Back 47

4. Clear direction is given with no
doubt about who makes the final
decisions

Front 48

Leaders who would rather do the job
themselves, set high standards,
expect self–direction, and have
trouble delegating authority,
exercise which of the following
leadership styles?
1. A f f i l i a t o r
2. Pacesetter
3. Democratic
4. Coach

Back 48

2. Pacesetter

Front 49

A democratic leadership style would
be particularly harmful in a drill
or battle condition for which of the
following reasons?
1. It requires time for meetings
2. The leader lacks control of the
group
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. It takes authority away from
subordinates

Back 49

3. Both 1 and 2 above

Front 50

What leadership style is well suited
to a counselor but would have a
negative effect on a work center
operating on a tight schedule?
1. Authoritarian
2. A f f i l i a t o r
3. Democratic
4. Coach

Back 50

2. A f f i l i a t o r

Front 51

When you prepare your work center
for inspection by incorporating
preparation for inspection into the
daily routine, you are demonstrating
which of the following management
s k i l l s ?
1. Concern for standards
2 . Concern for efficiency
3. Planning and organizing
4. Supervising for effective
performance

Back 51

3. Planning and organizing

Front 52

You would exhibit the leadership
skill commitment to the command's
mission by taking which of the
following actions?
1. Seeing yourself as a leader
2. Making yourself available to
answer questions
3. Using threats or your authority
to influence others
4. Acting with the best interest of
the command in mind

Back 52

4. Acting with the best interest of
the command in mind

Front 53

Which of the following statements
describes the action you should take
in developing others?
1. Use the proper setting and
timing for optimum impact
2. See yourself as someone who
makes things happen
3. Provide constructive feedback to
subordinates
4. See yourself as a leader

Back 53

3. Provide constructive feedback to
subordinates

Front 54

Which of the following personal
characteristics is defined as
confronting issues directly and
insisting others recognize your
place in the chain of command?
1. Concern for achievement
2 . Analytical problem solving
3. Persistence
4. Assertiveness

Back 54

4. Assertiveness

Front 55

Which of the following personal
characteristics is defined as being
a self–starter, seeing problems, and
taking action to correct the
problems without being told?
1. Interpersonal awareness
2. Assertiveness
3. Persistence
4. I n i t i a t i v e

Back 55

4. I n i t i a t i v e

Front 56

Which of the following is a benefit
of Total Quality Management?
1. Increased pride of workmanship
among individual workers
2 . Improved sustainability caused
by extended time between
equipment failures
3. Streamlined maintenance and
production processes
4. Each of the above

Back 56

4. Each of the above

Front 57

Preparing and submitting a budget
request is what form of planning?
1. Long-range
2 . Medium-range
3. Short-range
4. Micro

Back 57

1. Long-range

Front 58

Who develops the budget resolution
each year?
1. The President
2. Congress
3. The General Accounting Office
4. The Office of Management and
Budget

Back 58

2. Congress

Front 59

When purchasing a ship, the Navy
uses what type of budgeting to
figure the cost?
1. Incremental
2 . Zero-based
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. Additional

Back 59

2 . Zero-based

Front 60

Supply facilities established to
support public works departments or
ground electronics shops are called
1. stock control branches
2. s e l f - s e r v i c e s t o r e s
3. shop stores
4. rapid communication and delivery

Back 60

3. shop stores

Front 61

Which of the following supply
establishments is responsible for
expediting material from outside
sources?
1. Rapid communication and delivery
systems
2. Retail issue organizations
3. Material division
4. Receipt control branch

Back 61

4. Receipt control branch

Front 62

You could figure the three-month
usage rate for fast-moving items by
using which of the following
formulas?
1. Multiplying last month’s usage
by 2.
2. Dividing last month’s usage by 2
3. Multiplying last month’s usage
by 3
4. Dividing last month’s usage by 3

Back 62

3. Multiplying last month’s usage
by 3

Front 63

What officer assigns the force
activity designator?
1. Supply officer
2. Department head
3. Fleet commander
4. Commanding officer

Back 63

3. Fleet commander

Front 64

Who is responsible for assigning the
correct urgency–of–need designator
to a material request?
1. Material officer
2. Executive officer
3. Department head
4. Supply officer

Back 64

3. Department head

Front 65

An authorized coordinated shipboard
allowance list reactor part would
have which of the following urgency
of need designators assigned?
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D

Back 65

2. B

Front 66

Who is responsible for inspecting
items purchased from a commercial
source prior to payment being made?
1. Division chief
2. Supply officer
3. Division officer
4. Department head

Back 66

2. Supply officer

Front 67

What person must sign the copy of
the purchase document stamped
“received, inspected, and accepted”?
1. Division officer
2. Department head
3. Division chief
4. Supply officer

Back 67

2. Department head

Front 68

What is the purpose of using dunnage
under material being stowed on deck?
1. To protect against excessive
shock
2. To provide more economical use
of space
3. To protect against moisture
4. To aid in handling

Back 68

3. To protect against moisture

Front 69

Which of the following persons
is/are authorized to convert
nonsignature-required items to
signature-required items?
1. The actual custodian
2 . The type commander only
3. The commanding officer only
4. The commanding officer and the
type commander

Back 69

4. The commanding officer and the
type commander

Front 70

Counseling is an important
r e s p o n s i b i l i t y . Which of the
following statements best describes
the most important aspect of
supervisor counseling?
1. To provide guidance to your
average performer
2 . To provide support to a person
having problems
3. To provide professional guidance
to a superior performer
4. To provide professional
assistance to a personal problem

Back 70

2 . To provide support to a person
having problems

Front 71

Counseling is divided into which of
the following types?
1. Situational and conditional
2 . Directive and nondirective
3. Military and paramilitary
4. Personal and clandestine

Back 71

2 . Directive and nondirective

Front 72

The process of listening to a
person’s problems, then encouraging
and motivating that person to solve
them, accomplishes which of the
following counseling functions?
1. Reorientation
2 . Reassurance
3. Advice
4. Both 2 and 3 above

Back 72

1. Reorientation
2 . Reassurance

Front 73

Trying to change the person rather
than dealing with the immediate
problem is an example of which of
the following types of counseling?
1. Nondirective
2. Professional
3. Military
4. Directive

Back 73

1. Nondirective

Front 74

The primary purpose of the military
briefing is to accomplish which of
the following functions?
1. To teach
2. To inform
3. To entertain
4. To allow the person presenting
the brief to express his or her
opinion

Back 74

2. To inform

Front 75

Which of the following persons is in
the best position to notice if the
SORM needs updating?
1. The commanding officer
2. The executive officer
3. The department head
4. The leading chief petty officer

Back 75

4. The leading chief petty officer

Front 76

Which of the following organizations
offers the only supplemental
insurance endorsed by the Navy?
1. American Red Cross
2. Navy Mutual Aid Society
3. Navy League
4. Navy Relief Society

Back 76

2. Navy Mutual Aid Society

Front 77

When, if ever, are you allowed MALT
payments?
1. When you use government
transportation
2. When you travel by privately
owed vehicle during a PCS move
3. When you travel by privately
owned vehicle while on TAD
orders
4. Never

Back 77

2. When you travel by privately
owed vehicle during a PCS move

Front 78

Which of the following people must
have a formalized dependent care
plan?
1. Single military parents
2. Married military couples who
are parents
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. An unmarried chief with no
dependents

Back 78

2. Married military couples who
are parents

Front 79

Single military parents should have
which of the following documents on
file to identify custodians for
their dependents?
1. Navy Single Sponsor, OPNAV Form
1740.4
2. Dental Care Form, OPNAV 1180
3. Dependent Care Certificate,
OPNAV 1740/1
4. Custodian Assignment Form,
OPNAV 1180/1

Back 79

3. Dependent Care Certificate,
OPNAV 1740/1

Front 80

The term DUSTWUN applies to which
of the following categories of
personnel?
1. Unaccounted for––duty status–
whereabouts unknown
2. Accounted for––duty status–
whereabouts unknown
3. Reported missing
4. Reported dead

Back 80

1. Unaccounted for––duty status–
whereabouts unknown

Front 81

Which of the following personnel
may serve as a CACO?
1. An ensign with 1 year of active
duty
2. A chief petty officer
3. A first class petty officer
4. Each of the above

Back 81

2. A chief petty officer

Front 82

About what percent of military
members experience financial
difficulty during their career?
1. 10 percent
2. 30 percent
3. 50 percent
4. 75 percent

Back 82

3. 50 percent

Front 83

The major goal(s) of the Overseas
Duty Support Program include which
of the following objectives?
1. Providing free long distance
telephone service
2 . Supplying information through
publications, video tapes, and
personal assistance
3. Providing cross-training in
counter–cultural relations
4. Each of the above

Back 83

4. Each of the above

Front 84

The Overseas Transfer Information
Service will accept collect phone
calls from within CONUS.
1. True
2. False

Back 84

1. True

Front 85

Which of the following Chief of
Naval Operations initiated Core
Values to strengthen and reinforce
the existing Pride and
Professionalism programs?
1. Admiral Thomas B. Hayward
2. Admiral James D. Watkins
3. Admiral Carlisle A.H. Trost
4. Admiral Frank B. Kelso II

Back 85

3. Admiral Carlisle A.H. Trost

Front 86

Which of the following Chief of
Naval Operations initiated the
Personal Excellence Program to
emphasize Navy involvement in the
civilian community?
1. Admiral Thomas B. Hayward
2 . Admiral James D. Watkins
3. Admiral Carlisle A.H. Trost
4. Admiral Frank B. Kelso II

Back 86

2 . Admiral James D. Watkins

Front 87

Which of the following Chief of
Naval Operations initiated a
program to reemphasize and
reenforce the past traditions and
values of the Navy?
1. Admiral Thomas B. Hayward
2. Admiral James D. Watkins
3. Admiral Carlisle A.H. Trost
4. Admiral Frank B. Kelso II

Back 87

1. Admiral Thomas B. Hayward

Front 88

When the DOD Hot Line is used to
report fraud, waste, abuse, or
mismanagement, how long does the
command have to investigate and
take corrective action unless
NAVINSGEN allows more time?
1. 30 days
2. 60 days
3. 120 days
4. 180 days

Back 88

2. 60 days

Front 89

NIS only investigates crimes that
carry a maximum penalty of 1 year
or a $500 fine.
1. True
2. False

Back 89

1. True

Front 90

Military supervisors who interfere
with a congressional investigation,
before or after the fact, may be
charged under the Uniform Code of
Military Justice, article 92(a).
1. True
2. False

Back 90

1. True

Front 91

Who maintains the ship’s master
watch, quarter, and station bill?
1. The watch bill coordinator
2. The security officer
3. The senior watch officer
4. The commanding officer

Back 91

3. The senior watch officer

Front 92

When in drill and formation, an
interval is normally what distance?
1. 24 inches for women, 30 inches
for men
2. The space between the chest of
one person and the back of the
person ahead
3. One arm’s length from shoulder
to shoulder
4. 40 inches between ranks

Back 92

3. One arm’s length from shoulder
to shoulder

Front 93

When presenting your division for
inspection, you should position
yourself so the inspecting party
approaches from which, if any, of
the following directions?
1. From the right
2. From the left
3. From directly in front of the
division
4. None of the above

Back 93

1. From the right

Front 94

BMC Jane B. Doe is holding
divisional quarters and the
division is at ease. At the
conclusion of quarters, what
command(s) should be given?
1. “Attention” then “Fall Out”
2. “Attention” then "Dismissed"
3. “Dismissed”
4. “Fall out”

Back 94

2. “Attention” then "Dismissed"

Front 95

Which of the following people
report directly to the officer of
the deck in port?
1. Executive officer
2. Command duty officer
3. Duty master–at–arms
4. Each of the above

Back 95

3. Duty master–at–arms

Front 96

In carrying out the ship’s daily
routine, who should the in–port
officer of the deck report to?
1. Executive officer
2. Commanding officer
3. Command duty officer
4. Senior watch officer

Back 96

3. Command duty officer

Front 97

Who should the officer of the deck
in port report to for the general
safety and duties of the command?
1. Executive officer
2. Commanding officer
3. Command duty officer
4. Senior watch officer

Back 97

2. Commanding officer

Front 98

The first use of the term “chief
p e t t y o f f i c e r ” was recorded in what
year?
1. 1775
2. 1865
3. 1886
4. 1893

Back 98

1. 1775

Front 99

The term “chief petty officer” was
first used in reference to what
rating?
1. Boatswain’s Mate
2. Master-at-arms
3. Gunner’s Mate
4. Quartermaster

Back 99

Master-at-arms

Front 100

What official document(s) first
listed the rate of chief petty
officer as a separate rate?
1. U.S. Navy Regulation Circular
#41
General Order #409 and U.S.
Navy Regulation Circular #41
3. General Order #409 and U.S.
Navy Regulation Circular #1
4. U.S. Navy Regulation Circular
#1 and General Order #431

Back 100

3. General Order #409 and U.S.
Navy Regulation Circular #1

Front 101

When wearing the combination cap,
what is the correct position of the
rivet on the chin strap?
1. To the left side of the
combination cap
2. To the right side of the
combination cap
3. Centered in the front
4. Centered in the back

Back 101

1. To the left side of the
combination cap

Front 102

The Handbook for the Conduct of
Forces Afloat Safety Investigations
contains a checklist for common
investigations in which of the
following Appendixes?
1. I
2. I I
3. I I I
4. IV

Back 102

2. I I

Front 103

Who is the senior member of the
enlisted safety committee?
1. The command master chief
2 . The commanding officer
3. The executive officer
4. The safety officer

Back 103

4. The safety officer

Front 104

Within the Navy, who has ultimate
responsibility for establishing and
maintaining the Information and
Personnel Security Program?
1. Secretary of Defense
2. Secretary of the Navy
3. Director of Naval Intelligence
4. Commander Naval Security and
Investigative Command

Back 104

2. Secretary of the Navy

Front 105

What Navy office serves as the
liaison between the Departments of
the Navy and the Secretary of the
Defense regarding security matters?
1. Chief of Naval Operations
(OP-09N)
Chief of Naval Operations
2. (OP-062)
3. Director of Naval
Administration
4. Chief of Naval Education and
Training

Back 105

1. Chief of Naval Operations
(OP-09N)

Front 106

Department of the Navy information
and personnel security policies,
procedures, and directives from
higher authority are formulated by
which of the following offices?
1. Chief of Naval Operations
(OP-009)
2. Director, Naval Data Automation
Command
3. Commander, Naval Security and
Investigative Commander
4. Chief of Naval Perso

Back 106

3. Commander, Naval Security and
Investigative Commander

Front 107

Which of the following
organizations provides overall
policy guidance on information and
personnel security?
1. National Security Agency
2 . National Security Council
3. Naval Investigative Service
4. Defense Investigative Service

Back 107

2 . National Security Council

Front 108

Which of the following
organizations is the Department of
the Navy’s sole liaison with the
FBI on matters of internal
security?
1. National Security Agency
2 . National Security Council
3. Naval Investigative Service
4. Defense Investigative Service

Back 108

3. Naval Investigative Service

Front 109

In the organizational chain of
command, the Top Secret control
officer is responsible to what
official for the control of Top
Secret material in the command?
1. The security manager
2. The security officer
3. The executive officer
4. The crypto security officer

Back 109

1. The security manager

Front 110

As a minimum, how often must the
Top Secret control officer
physically inventory the Top Secret
materials in the command?
1. Annually
2. Semiannually
3. Quarterly
4. Monthly

Back 110

1. Annually

Front 111

At the Department of the Navy
level, who is responsible for
providing policy guidance,
educational requirements, and
source support for the security
education program?
1. The Secretary of the Navy
2. The Chief of Naval Operations
(OP-09N)
3. The Director, Navy Program
Planning
4. The Chief of Naval Education
and Training

Back 111

2. The Chief of Naval Operations
(OP-09N)

Front 112

Personnel granted access to
classified information shall be
debriefed when a temporary
separation exceeds what minimum
amount of time?
1. 30 days
2 . 60 days
3. 90 days
4. 120 days

Back 112

2 . 60 days

Front 113

If a preliminary inquiry determines
that classified information has
been compromised, who usually
convenes a JAG Manual
investigation?
1. The command having custody
2 . The office of the Judge
Advocate General
3. The command that first
discovers the compromise
4. The next senior in the
administrative chain of command
that initiates the preliminary
inquiry

Back 113

1. The command having custody

Front 114

A report to the Commander, Naval
Security and Investigative Command
concerning an act of sabotage
should be forwarded using which of
the following types of messages?
1. Classified ROUTINE
2. Classified IMMEDIATE
3. Unclassified IMMEDIATE
4. Unclassified ROUTINE

Back 114

2. Classified IMMEDIATE

Front 115

A member of the Department of the
Navy who has access to classified
material commits suicide. To whom
should you report the incident?
1. The nearest NIS office
2. The nearest FBI office
3. The Chief of Naval Operations
(OP-09N)
4. The Director, Naval
Investigative Command

Back 115

1. The nearest NIS office

Front 116

Who is authorized to declassify and
downgrade all classified
information upon which the
Department of the Navy exercises
final classification authority?
1. The Secretary of the Navy
2. The Chief of Naval Operations
3. The Archivist of the United
States
4. The Director, Naval Historical
Center

Back 116

1. The Secretary of the Navy

Front 117

Which of the following types of
information is exempt from
provisions in effect for a
mandatory declassification review?
1. Cryptologic information
2. Presidential papers
3. Restricted data
4. Intelligence

Back 117

2. Presidential papers

Front 118

How should reproduction equipment
authorized for reproducing
classified material be marked?
1. With the highest level of
classification that may be
reproduced
2. With the name of the
official(s) designated to
approve the reproduction of
classified material
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. With the words “For Security
Personnel Only”

Back 118

3. Both 1 and 2 above

Front 119

Areas within a command requiring
varying degrees of restriction of
access, control of movement, and
type of protection required for
classified material are known by
what collective term?
1. Sanitized areas
2. Sensitive areas
3. Restricted areas
4. Out of bounds areas

Back 119

3. Restricted areas

Front 120

Any weakness or deficiency found in
security storage equipment should
be reported to which of the
following authorities?
1. The Naval Investigative Service
2. The Naval Supply Systems
Command
3. Chief of Naval Operation
(OP-09N)
4. The Defense Contract
Administration

Back 120

3. Chief of Naval Operation
(OP-09N)

Front 121

Records of destruction of Secret
material must be retained for what
minimum period of time?
1. 24 months
2. 30 months
3. 36 months
4. 48 months

Back 121

1. 24 months

Front 122

When a strip shredding machine is
used to shred classified material,
the material should be shredded
into strips that are what maximum
width?
1. 1/64 inch
2. 1/32 inch
3. 3/64 inch
4. 1/16 inch

Back 122

2. 1/32 inch

Front 123

Which of the following methods
is/are NOT recommended for office
use?
1. Disintegrators
2. Pulverizers
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. Shredders

Back 123

3. Both 1 and 2 above

Front 124

When you assign priorities for
emergency destruction of classified
material, what priority should you
assign to the files containing
Confidential technical material?
1. Priority One
2. Priority Two
3. Priority Three
4. Priority Four

Back 124

3. Priority Three