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99 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What is an autacoid?

What are the major ones with which we are concerned?
An autacoid is a locally acting hormone.

We are concerned with eicosanoids (thromboxanes, prostaglandins, leukotrienes) and platelet activating factor (PAF).
How are eicosanoids stored?
They are not stored- they are produced and released as needed.
Where is prostacyclin synthesized?

Where is thromboxane synthesized?
Prostacyclin is produced in endothelial cells.

Thromboxane is produced by platelets.
What drug might be used to suppress COX-2 expression?

What enzyme must it inhibit to do this?
Glucocorticoids (ie: dexamethasone) suppress COX-2 expression by inhibiting phospholipase A2.
What drugs inhibit all three COXes?
Aspirin irreversibly inhibits COXes, and other NSAIDS reversibly inhibit.
What response is COX-2 involved in?

What selective antagonists inhibit COX-2 action?
COX-2 is involved in the local inflammatory response, but not in the GI tract or kidney.

It is selectively antagonized by Celecoxib and Rofecoxib.
Name a COX-3 selective antagonist.

What effects does this have or not have?
Acetaminophen is a COX-3 inhibitor. It blocks pain and fever, but has no effect on platelets or inflammation.
What drug blocks 5-LOX? What three conditions did this successfully treat in trials?
Zileuton blocks 5-LOX. It treats ulcerative colitis, asthma, and allergic rhinitis.
What is the signaling function of PGD2 and PGI2?
PGD2 and PGI2 activate adenylate cyclase.
What is the signaling function of PGE?
PGE either activates or inhibits adenylate cyclase.
What is the signaling function of PGF2, TXA2, and LTD4?
PGF2, TXA2, and LTD4 all activate PLC and increase cytosolic calcium.
List how each of the following acts on the cardiovascular system: PGE1/2, PGI2, PGF2α, TXA2, LT.
PGE1/2: vasodilation

PGI2: vasodilation

PGF2α: vasoconstriction of pulmonary arteries and veins

TXA2: vasoconstriction of pulmonary arteries and veins

LT: endothelial contraction leading to lower blood volume by exudation (1000X histamine potency)
List how each of the following acts on the blood: PGE1, PGI2, TXA2, LTB4.
PGE1: inhibits platelet aggregation

PGI2: inhibits platelet aggregation

TXA2: induces platelet aggregation (action can be blocked by aspirin inhibition of COX)

LTB4: chemotactic agent for PMNS, eosinophils and monocytes
List how each of the following acts on the renal system: PGE1, PGI2, PGEs
PGE1 stimulates diuresis.

PGI2 stimulates secretion of renin.

All PGEs inhibit water reabsorption by antidiuretic hormone.
List how each of the following acts on the GI tract: PGE1/2, PGF2α, PGI2, PGFs, LT.
PGE1/2 contract longitudinal muscles and inhibit gastric acid secretion but promote mucus secretion, as well as stimulating water movement into the intestinal lumen. PGE2 relaxes circular muscle.

PGF2α contracts circular muscles and stimulates water movement into the intestinal lumen.

LT contract gastrointestinal smooth muscle.

PGI2 inhibits gastric acid secretion.
List how each of the following acts on bronchial smooth muscle: PGE1/2, PGI2, PGF2α, TXA2, LTC4, LTD4.
PGE1/2 relax bronchial smooth muscle.

PGI2 relaxes bronchial smooth muscle.

PGF2α contracts bronchial smooth muscle.

TXA2 contracts bronchial smooth muscle.

LTC4 and LTD4 are extremely potent bronchoconstrictors and also induce bronchial edema.
List how each of the following acts on the uterus: PGE1/2, PGF2α, TXA2, PGI2.
PGE1/2 contract uterine muscle. PGE2 may cause abortion.

PGF2α contracts uterine muscle and may cause abortion.

TXA2 contracts uterine muscle.

PGI2 relaxes the uterus.
List how each of the following acts on the CNS: PGE1/2, PGD2, PGI2, LTB4.
PGE1/2 increase body temperature (prevented by aspirin) and sensitize afferent nerves to noxious stimuli.

PGD2 induces natural sleep.

PGI2 sensitizes afferent nerves to noxious stimuli.

LTB4 produces hyperalgesia.
Name four non-selective COX1-2 inhibitors.

Describe their four major physiological actions.
Aspirin/acetylsalicylic acid
Indomethacin
Ibuprofen
Naproxen

Anti-inflammatory, anti-pyretic, analgesic, anti-platelet aggregation.
What is a common adverse effect of NSAIDS?
Gastric irritation and bleeding
What are two important drug interactions of NSAIDS?
1. NSAIDS potentiate the effects of anticoagulants with their non-platelet aggregation effects.
2. They may reduce the effects of diuretics and anti-hypertensive agents.

They also may affect other drugs because they bind to plasma proteins.
In what condition are COX-2 selective inhibitors indicated?

What is a significant adverse effect?
Selective COX-2 inhibitors are indicated for arthritis.

They may elevate MI risk by 2-5X, because COX-1 production of thromboxane may proceed, uninhibited.
Name a LOX inhibitor.

In what conditions is it useful?
Zileuton is a LOX inhibitor.

It is useful in allergic reaction and asthma because it is a bronchodilator.
Name a LT receptor antagonist.

In what condition is it useful?
Zafirlucast is a LT receptor antagonist.

It is useful in treating asthma because it is a bronchodilator.
Name two PGE1 analogs, their uses, and their side effects.
1. Alprostadil: vasodilator, inhibits platelet aggregation, used to maintain patency of ductus arteriosus in certain congenital heart conditions, treats erectile dysfunction. Side effects include bradycardia, hypotension, fever, ductal fragility, pain, and priapism.
2. Misoprostol: prevents gastric ulcers. Side effects include abdominal pain and diarrhea. Contraindicated in pregnancy.
Name a PGE2 analog, its uses, and its side effects.
Dinoprostone: facilitates labor/ induces abortion by promoting uterine contractions. Side effects include vomiting, diarrhea, fever, and bronchoconstriction (paradoxical).
Name a PGF2α analog and its uses.
Latanoprost: reduces intraocular pressure, used to treat glaucoma.
Name a PGI2 analog, its uses, and its side effects.
Epoprostenol/treprostinil (longer half-life): lowers vascular pressure, used to treat pulmonary hypertension. Side effects include nausea, headache, hypotension, flushing.
Name four cell types that produce PAF.
1. Mast cells
2. Blood cells (eosinophils, neutrophils, platelets, monocytes)
3. Renal medullary cells
4. Endothelial cells
Does PAF act intra- or extracellularly?
Both
What is the cellular signaling mechanism of PAF?
PAF stimulates GPCRs to activate PLC/D/A2.
Describe the effects of PAF on the cardiovascular system.
PAF causes vasodilation, increased vascular permeability (venular endothelial cell contraction), platelet aggregation and is a chemotactic factor for WBCs. It also causes PMNs to aggregate, release LTs, and generate superoxide.
Describe the effects of PAF on smooth muscle.
PAF stimulates almost all smooth muscle to contract. It is also a potent ulcerogenic substance.
Describe the role of PAF in reproduction.

Name an antagonist of its action.
PAF may play a role in ovulation, implantation, and parturition.

Ginkgolide B is an antagonist.
Describe the role of PAF in inflammation and allergic response.
PAF increases vascular permeability, infiltration of PMNs, edema, and causes hyperalgesia.
Where is histamine stored?
Histamine is stored in mast cells of skin, bronchial mucosa, intestinal mucosa. It is also stored in CSF and basophils of blood.
Name the components of the histamine synthesis and metabolism pathways.
Histamine is synthesized from histidine by L-histidine decarboxylase.

It is metabolized by histamine-N-methyl transferase and MAO-B. Small amounts of histamine may also be deaminated by diamine oxidase (DAO). Inactive metabolites are excreted in the urine.
Name three physiologic functions of histamine.
1. Allergic and inflammatory mediator
2. Gastric acid secretion
3. Neurotransmitter/neuromodulator
What happens in cells as a result of PLC activation?
PLC activation leads to histamine release, ATP release, and activation of PLA which leads to production of PAF, PGD2, LTD4, and kinins. Release of these substances results in bronchoconstriction, hypotension, increased capillary permeability, and edema.
What inhibits the degranulation of mast cells in the lung?
Cromolyn sodium inhibits degranulation of mast cells in the lung.
Name five therapeutic agents that induce histamine release.
1. Organic bases
2. Tubocurarine
3. Succinylcholine
4. Morphine (not fentanyl)
5. Vancomycin
What protein receptor family do all histamine receptors belong to?
GPCR
Describe the major functions of each histamine receptor.

Name any known antagonists.
H1: increased phosphoinositol hydrolysis. Antagonists: pyrilamine (first generation antihistamines) and second-generation antihistamines

H2: increased cAMP. Antagonists inhibit gastric acid secretion.

H3: Presynaptic feedback inhibition of histamine, norepinephrine, serotonin, acetylcholine release, decreased intracellular Ca. Antagonist: thioperamide (not clinically approved)
What happens to the cardiovascular system with injection of histamine?
Decreased BP, flushed face (vasodilaton), EDRF/NO release (H1-mediated)

Smooth muscle relaxation, increased heart rate (H2-mediated)
What happens to the GI tract with histamine release?

Through which histamine receptor is this mediated?
Histamine causes contraction of smooth muscle, increasing GI motility and potentially causing diarrhea. This is mediated by the H1 receptor.

H2 receptor stimulation results in increased gastric acid secretion via increased cAMP and intracellular Ca.
What is the effect of histamine on the bronchial smooth muscle?

Which receptor?
H1 receptor stimulation causes bronchoconstriction.
What is the effect of histamine on the uterus?

Which receptor?
Histamine causes contraction of the uterus via the H1 receptor, and a pregnant woman in anaphylaxis may abort.
What is the effect of histamine on nerve endings?

Which receptor?
Histamine causes pain and itching via the H1 receptor.
What histamine receptor works with H1 to cause the triple response?
H1 is involved in mediation of all parts of the triple response, and is aided by H2 in producing the red flare.
What is the major physiological antagonist of histamine receptors?
Epinephrine
What drug is used to prevent mast cell degranulation in asthma patients?
Nedocromil
Name the six groups of H1 receptor antagonists and the prototypical drug for each group.
1. Ethanolamines: Diphenhydramine
2. Ethylenediamines: Pyrilamine
3. Piperazine: Cetirizine
4. Alkylamines: Chlorpheniramine
5. Phenothiazines: Promethazine
6. Piperidines: Cyproheptadine, loratadine, fexofenadine
Name the seven major off-target effects of H1 receptor antagonists.
1. Sedation
2. Antiemetic
3. Anti-Parkinson's
4. Peripheral antimuscarinic
5. alpha-adrenoreceptor blocking
6. Serotonin blocking
7. Local anesthetic
Name the five major clinical uses of H1 receptor antagonists.
1. Anti-allergy
2. Sedation
3. Anti-Parkinson's
4. Motion sickness/vestibular disturbances
5. Nausea and vomiting of pregnancy
Name the four H2 receptor antagonists.
1. Cimetidine (Tagamet)
2. Ranitidine (Zantac)
3. Famotidine (Pepcid)
4. Nizantidine (Axid)
Which H2 receptor antagonist has a bioavailability of 90% rather than 50%?

Which two are renally excreted?
Nizantidine has 90% bioavailability.

Cimetidine and ranitidine are renally excreted.
What is the physiological effect of H2 antagonists?
All four block acid secretion by histamine, gastrin, ACh, and vagal stimulation. In addition, nizantidine increases GI motility/decreases gastric empying time.
What three conditions are H2 antagonists used to treat?
1. Peptic duodenal/gastric ulcers
2. Gastroesophageal reflux
3. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome (gastrin-secreting mast cell tumors)
Which H2 antagonist inhibits CYT?
Cimetidine inhibits CYT.
5-HT is another name for what?
5-HT is another name for serotonin.
From what amino acid is serotonin/5-HT synthesized?

What two enzymes are required to get from this amino acid to serotonin?
Tryptophan.

Tryptophan hydroxylase and L-amino acid decarboxylase.
What enzyme metabolizes serotonin?

Which isoform prefers serotonin? What does the other isoform prefer?

Name an inhibitor of each isoform.
Serotonin is metabolized by monoamine oxidase.

MAO-A prefers serotonin, while MAO-B prefers histamine.

Clorgyline inhibits MAO-A.
Selegiline inhibits MAO-B.
Describe the G coupling of 5-HT1 receptors and their physiological effects.
5-HT1 receptors are coupled to Gi/Go, which means they are negatively coupled to adenylate cyclase.
Subtypes 1B and 1D produce cranial vessel constriction.
Subtype 1F prevents dural extravasation of inflammatory peptides, preventing migraine headaches.
Describe the G coupling of 5-HT2 receptors and their physiological effects.
5-HT2 receptors are coupled to Gq and activate PLC and inositol triphosphate.
Subtype 2A functions in platelet aggregation, contraction of smooth muscle, and neuronal excitation.
Describe the physiological effects of 5-HT7 receptors.
5-HT7 receptors cause endothelium-independent relaxation of cranial vasculature and migraine headaches.
Where is serotonin/5-HT stored?
Serotoinin/5-HT is stored in enterochromaffin cells in the GI tract.
Describe the effects of different 5-HT receptors on the cardiovascular system.
5-HT1B and 2A receptors cause direct vasoconstriction of arteries and veins.

5-HT2B stimulation causes indirect vasodilation, EDRF release, and stimulation of 5-HT7 receptors.
Subendocardial fibroplasia (damage to valves and electrical conduction) can result from chronic high serotonin levels.
Describe the effects of different 5-HT receptors on smooth muscle.
5-HT2A,C cause smooth muscle contraction and bronchoconstriction (in carcinoid syndrome patients).
5-HT7 causes vascular muscle relaxation.
Describe the effects of different 5-HT receptors on the GI tract.
Six of the 5-HT receptors are involved directly or indirectly in motility.
5-HT3 plays a role in emesis.
What is fenfluramine?

Name a similar drug.
Fenfluramine is an appetite suppressant, but was recently banned because of cardiotoxicity.

Methylenedioxymethamphetamine (MDMA)- ecstasy
What are selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) used for? Name one.
SSRIs are used to treat depression and OCD. Fluoxetine/Prozac is a common SSRI.
Name two 5-HT receptor agonists and the receptors that they agonize. What is their function?
1. Sumatriptan: Agonizes 5-HT1B,D,F. Treats acute migraine by causing vasoconstriction of intracranial blood vessels and preventing dural extravasation.

2. Tegaserod: 5-HT4 partial agonist. Stimulates peristalsis and gastric emptying. Until 2007 used to treat IBS. Withdrawn 4/07 because of increased MI, angina, and stroke in CV patients.
Name three 5-HT receptor antagonists and the receptors that they antagonize. What is their function?
1. Ondansetron: Antagonizes 5-HT3. Treats chemotherapy-induced nausea and emesis.

2. Methysergide: 5-HT2A,B,C antagonist. Prophylactic migraine treatment. Chronic treatment may result in inflammatory fibrosis.

3. Cyproheptadine: 5-HT2A antagonist and H1 blocker. Antimuscarinic and antidepressant. Used to treat post-gastrectomy dumping syndrome.
What is a kinin? Include factors that stimulate synthesis and physiologic actions.
A kinin is a locally acting peptide autacoid. Kinins are synthesized in response to tissue damage, allergic reactions, and acute and chronic inflammation. They case pain, vasodilation, increased vascular permeability, and synthesis of prostaglandins.
What are the three major kinins?
1. Bradykinin
2. Kallidin (Lysyl-bradykinin)
3. Methionyl-lysylbradykinin
Describe the basic synthesis and metabolism of kinins.
Kinins are synthesized as low or high molecular weight precursors called kininogens. Kininogens are cleaved to kinins by kallikreins (serine proteases), which exist as prekallikreins until they are activated. Bradykinin is made from high MW kininogen and lysyl-bradykinin is made from low MW kininogen.

Kinins are metabolized by kininase I and II (angiotensin converting enzyme and dipeptidyl carboxypeptidase).
Name the two kinin receptors and describe their functions.
B1: Upregulated during inflammation. Responsible for most kinin effects during inflammation.

B2: Constitutively expressed in most tissues. High affinity for bradykinin. Coupled to G-protein and activates PLA2 and PLC.
Describe the effects of kinins on the cardiovascular system.
Kinins cause vasodiation in arterial vascular beds both directly and indirectly through NO and PGE2 and PGI2 synthesis. Kinins also vasoconstrict veins via synthesis of PGF2α. These two actions result in edema.
Describe the effects of kinins on inflammation.
Kinins cause edema and bronchospasm in asthmatics.
Describe how the two kinin receptors mediate pain.
B2 receptors mediate acute pain, while B1 receptors mediate pain of chronic inflammation.
Describe the action of kinins in neonates.
In neonates, kinins promote dilation of the pulmonary artery, closure of the ductus arteriosus, and constriction of the umbilical arteries.
Describe the clinical uses of kinins.
At this point, there are no directly approved uses of kinins themselves, but ACE inhibitors block kininase II, kinin levels become elevated and the kinins have hypotensive action.
What is the physiologic function of angiotensin II?
Angiotensin II is a vasoconstrictor.
Where are the components of the angiotensin synthesis pathway produced?
Angiotensinogen, the angiotensin precursor, is synthesized in the liver. Renin, which converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I, is produced in the kidney. ACE, which converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II, is produced in endothelial cells.
Name three factors that increase angiotensinogen concentration.
1. Corticosteroids
2. Thyroid hormones
3. Estrogen
What are the two rate-limiting factors in angiotensin II production?
1. Renin secretion
2. Levels of circulating angiotensinogen
How is angiotensin II metabolized?
Angiotensin II is rapidly removed from the blood by several proteases like angiotensinase.
Through which receptor is the majority of angiotensin II action mediated? What kind of recepotr is it and what does it activate?
The majority of angiotensin II activity is mediated through the AT1 receptor. AT1 is a GPCR that generates IP2 and diacylglycerol, resulting ultimately in smooth muscle contraction.
Describe the effect of angiotensin II on the cardiovascular system.
Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor, with the vasoconstriction mostly mediated by vascular smooth muscle contraction. It also resets the baroreceptor reflex to a higher threshold, preventing bradycardia. It potentiates sympathetic signal transmission by increasing norepinephrine release and reducing reuptake.
Describe the effects of angiotensin II on the adrenal cortex, kidneys, and CNS.
Angiotensin II stimulates biosynthesis of aldosterone and glucocorticoids. It causes renal vasoconstriction, sodium reabsorption, and vasopressin release. It also stimulates thirst.
Name some clinically useful drugs that are involved in the renin-angiotensin system.
Renin inhibitors suppress angiotensin production and lower blood pressure, but they are still in clinical trials. ACE inhibitors (captopril, enalapril) prevent the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and inhibit the catabolism of bradykinin, lowering blood pressure. However, pulmonary edema and cough are frequent side effects. Third, non-peptide angiotensin II antagonists (losartan, valsartan) have the same effect as ACE inhibitors, but without the side effects.
What is NO?
NO is a ubiquitous, short-lived vasodilator. It is also known as endothelium-derived relaxing factor (EDRF).
Describe the synthesis and metabolism of NO.
NO is synthesized by one of three nitric oxide synthase (NOS) isoforms. NOS converts 1-arginine to 1-citrulline and NO, using NADPH, FAD, and tetrahydrobiopterin as cofactors.

NO can also be spontaneously synthesized by donor molecules like nitroprusside and nitroglycerine.

NO is inactivated by heme and superoxide, therefore antioxidants increase its potency.
What is the cellular effect that NO has?
NO activates guanylyl cyclase, which promotes formation of cGMP, which activates PKG.
What are the effects of NO on the cardiovascular system?
NO is important for the maintenance of vascular tone. Inhibitors of NO increase vascular tone and arterial pressure, as well as potentiate the action of vasopressor drugs. NO induction of cGMP relaxes vascular smooth muscle.
In addition, NO blocks oxidation of LDL (prevent foam cell formation) and inhibits platelet aggregation.
What three conditions decrease levels of NO?
1. Diabetes
2. Atherosclerosis
3. Cardiac ischemia
What are the effects of NO on the CNS?
NO acts as a diffusible second messenger that facilitates the release of neurotransmitters like glutamate. It assists in developmental, learning, and memory functions. It also assists in erection and subsequent activation of cGMP causes relaxation.
Describe the effect of sildenafil (Viagra) on the action of NO.
Sildenafil inhibits the phosphodiesterase that normally breaks down cGMP, which for many restores erectile function.
Describe the effect of NOS inhibitors on inflammation.
NOS inhibitors reduce edema and vascular permeability in acute inflammation and may have a protective effect in chronic arthritis.