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73 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What is hypoxic ischemic brain injury

a. Reduction of cerebral blood flow and oxygenation during the antepartum, peripartum, or postnatal period
2
What are the risk factors for development of hypoxic brain injury

a. Prolonged dystocia, premature placental separation, and need for resuscitation after cesarean section
3
Clinical findings that support hypoxic ischemic injury in a fetus include what

a. Abnormal fetal heart rate, depressed infant, fetal academia
4
Reduction in cerebral blood flow and oxygen delivery causes what

a. Switch to anaerobic metabolism, leading to depletion of high energy phosphate reserves, lactate accumulation; break down of cellular barriers and cytotoxic edema and intracellular calcium accumulation. Eventual prevention of electron passage to cytochrome c oxidase in the phase of hypoxia-> superoxide
5
What role does glutamate play

a. Exictatory neurotransmitter that is released in response to calcium. Important trophic factor for young brain development
6
What are microglia

a. Resident immune cells of the brain believed to be derived from monocytes that become activated under pathological states and believed to play a central role in neonatal hypoxic ischemic injury
7
What modality provides the most information regarding hypoxic ischemic encephalopathy

a. MRI
8
What are the four major categories of neuropathology seen in hypoxic ischemic encephalopathy

a. Selective neuronal necrosis, parasagittal cerebral injury, periventricular leukomalacia, and focal ischemic brain necrosis (stroke)
9
What treatment has shown the most promise in this syndrome

a. Cooling (hypothermia) as it can delay cell death and result in cells surviving versus apoptosis, reduces cellular metabolic demands, attenuate neurons that are excitatory (sometimes just the brain is cooled as 70% of heat comes from the brain in newborn)
10
What are five other alternative therapies that may be beneficial and are being evaluated currently

a. Desferrioxamine (iron chelator and serves as free radical scavenger), erythropoietin as it can be neuroprotective), anticonvulsants, melatonin (free radical scavenger), and xenon (neuroprotective and antagonizes glutamate)
11
FIP results because of infection of what cell

a. Mutant feline coronavirus infection of macrophages
12
What percentage of cats with FIP will develop neurologic signs

a. ¼-1/3 of noneffusive FIP cats will
13
What are the common neurologic deficits that can be seen in cats

a. Dementia, pica, seizures, inappropriate elimination, incontinence, and compulsive licking, ataxia, hyperesthesia, reduced consciousness, caudal paresis, cerebellar-vestibular signs, or cranial nerve deficits (ophthalmic lesions are common and include anterior uveitis, keratic precipitates, anisocoria, retinitis.
14
Anatomically, what do the lesions look like in the CNS

a. Ependymitis, thickening and opacification of the meninges, and ventricular dilation. Pathogenesis through complement activation and deposition of C3 on affected surfaces, DIC, vessel necrosis, and effusion. Antibody production can mediate and even enhance the disease
15
What is the definitive lesion in FIP

a. Pyogranuloma resulting from immune-mediated phenomenon- most commonly affecting the serosal, pleural, meningeal, ependymal, or uveal membranes
16
What is a general rule of thumb regarding injuries to the spinal cord

a. Primary injury is often less damaging than the secondary injury afterwards that develops over 48 hours
17
What are the 3 different therapeutic windows after injury:

a. Biochemical and vascular events, influence of inflammatory cells, and axonal regeneration
18
Acute injury to the spinal cord causes what

a. Systemic and vascular abnormalities that allow for decreased perfusion and necrosis of the injured segment of the spinal cord-> fundamental causes for secondary damage to the spinal cord
19
Decreased perfusion to the spinal cord likely results from what

a. Loss of autoregulation (maintaining systemic blood flow may help mitigate some of this), destruction of the microvasculature, thrombus formation, and vasospasm induced by increased intracellular calcium concentrations , release of vasoactive chemicals (affect grey matter first before white matter)
20
What drugs have been used in human medicine to help improve spinal cord blood flow

a. Calcium channel antagonists, NSAID, free radical scavengers, and opioid antagonists such as naloxone
21
Increases in intracellular calcium concentrations cause what impact to the cells

a. Activation of intracellular proteases, phospholipase A2, impairment of mitochondrial function, spasm of smooth muscle, and binding of phoshpates by calcium depleting energy sources
22
How does free radical production cause secondary damage to the spinal cord

a. Lipid peroxidative damage to membranes. Pretreatment with vitamin E and selenium has been shown to be beneficial but not clinically producible.
23
What steroid has been proposed for its free radical scavenging actions

a. Methylprednisolone as it is a free radical scavenger and has neuroprotective effects but timing of the medication is imperative and at a certain dosage. DMSO had significant side effects so not recommended
24
Why are NMDA antagonists proposed to potentially be beneficial

a. NMDA receptors interact with excitatory amino acids such as glutamate and aspartate and result in cellular swelling
25
Why is naloxone potentially beneficial in spinal cord damage

a. Helps to offset endorphin mediated local ischemia to the injured spinal cord
26
What effects does thyroid releasing hormone have

a. Neurotrophic effects, influences on plasticity, and facilitation of motor neuron firing. Has increased side effects but some of these are mitigated by new generation drugs
27
What are microglial cells

a. Endogenous phagocytic cells of the CNS and can release potentially cytotoxic chemicals such as hydrogen peroxide, nitric oxide, proteinases, and cytokines interleukin I and TNF alpha within minutes after inducing cerebral ischemia
28
What substances are likely to attenuate effects of excitatory amino acids

a. Gangliosides
29
What is not recommended as treatment for improving cerebral perfusion

a. CSF drainage
30
What is syringomyelia

a. Where fluid-filled cavities develop in the spinal cord
31
What is the consensus on how syringomyelia develops

a. Is not a consensus yet, the exact mechanism is still debated and it is unknown whether the syrinx develops because of increased pressure in the subarachnoid space or because increased pressure in the spinal cord. The source of fluid is also debateable and unclear if CSF fluid of ECF fluid
32
What are the most common clinical signs

a. Pain localized to the cervical region, could worsen at night, can seem overly sensitive to touch to the lateral side of the head, neck, shoulder, or sternum. Affected dogs scratch at one area
33
Are signs of the patient matched to the size of the syrinx

a. No but damage to the dorsal horn is a key feature and predictive of more severe pain (where sensory information to the brain comes from, expression of substance P is expressed here too)
34
What other CNS deficits might be seen in affected dogs

a. Thoracic limb weakness and muscle atrophy and pelvic ataxia and weaknes, facial paralysis, and deafness
35
How is syrinogmyelia diagnosed

a. MRI
36
How is syringomyelia treated

a. Not treated in small or asymptomatic patients ; medical management includes pain medications, NSAIDS, medications to reduce CSF production, and corticosteroids
37
When is surgical treatment indicated

a. When medical management does not control pain or when neurologic symptoms worsen or are severe
38
What medications are used to reduce CSF production

a. Proton pump inhibitors (may not be able to use long term), carbonic anhydrase inhibitors such as azetazolamide (increased adverse effects), lastly furosemide
39
What benefits do steroids offer

a. Decrease CSF pressure, modulate pain through substance P
40
What is the most common surgery performed on dogs

a. Suboccipital decompression
41
What are lysosomal storage diseases

a. Deficiency in enzyme (s) within the lysosomal catabolic pathyway
42
What are the main subgroups of lysosomes

a. Glycoproteinoses, oligosaccharidoses, sphingolipidoses, mucopolysaccharidoses, and proteinosis
43
Therapies for lysosomal storage disease are directed at what

a. Single enzyme deficiencies with enzyme replacement, bone marrow transplant, and gene replacement protocols
44
Do these diseases have a gender predilection and do they manifest only at young age

a. No and no
45
What kind of neurological signs may be seen with these disorders

a. Behavioral changes, loss of learned behavior, vacancy, ataxia, proprioceptive deficits, apparent blindness, deafness, seizure activity -> see tremors, ataxia, dysmetria, nystagmus, progression to paresis and paralysis
46
What are some other common signs that might be seen

a. Ocular manifestations, skeletal abnormalities such as deformation of long bones, development of dysostoses multiplex-> if multifocal neurologic disease is seen then lysosomal storage diseases should be among the differential diagnoses
47
What is the most useful diagnosis in these diseases

a. Muscle biopsy; lysosomal enzyme analysis, and molecular genetic testing
48
What is a phenotype:

a. Physical manifestation of a trait (influenced by more than the genetics)
49
What is a genotype

a. Genetic makeup of an individual with respect to the gene being considered (the alleles)
50
What is an allele

a. One of alternate forms of a gene or locus
51
What is segregation

a. Separation of alleles during meiosis which determines which allele is passed to an offspring
52
What is recombination

a. 2 copies of a chromosome may cross over during meiosis which results in exchange of genetic material and a new combination of alleles
53
What is the locus

a. Location of a gene or genes on a chromosome; often used as a vague proxy for gene in gene mapping studies before the specific gene is identified
54
What is the codon

a. 3 nucleotide code for an amino acid or the initiation or stop of the protein translation
55
What is the variant

a. Variation in the DNA sequence of an individual from the reference sequence. Could be disease causing mutation or it could be neutral
56
What is a single neucleotide polymorphism

a. Variants where only a single nucleotide is substituted, most common type of variant
57
What is a frame shift

a. Deletion or insertion of any number of nucleotides not divisible by 3 shifting the reading frames of the codon which follow. In turn, changes the subsequent amino acid sequence and location of the stop codon
58
What are missense mutations

a. Change a codon so that a different amino acid is specified , alters protein structure
59
What is a nonsense mutation

a. Changes amino acid specifying codon to a premature stop codon resulting in a truncated nonfunctional protein
60
What is a phenocopy

a. A phenotype that is very similar to the trait under investigation but has a different cause. Sometimes it is from an acquired disease that imitates the signs of a hereditary disease
61
What is the explanation for a homozygous mutant allele being present but the animal is not effected

a. Because incomplete penetrance
62
Should all heterozygous breeding animals be taken out of a breeding pool when detected by DNA tests

a. No, should just use discretion in breeding those animals however
63
What are the common signs of canine meningitis

a. Cervical pain and rigidity are common in meningitis, hyperesthesia manifested by reluctance to walk, arched spine, and resistance to passive manipulation of the head, neck, and limbs. Vomiting and nausea from increased ICP
64
What is steroid responsive suppurative meningitis

a. Most common form of meningitis diagnosed in most veterinary hospitals, most often in large dogs less than 2 yrs of age -> fever, cervical rigidity, and vertebral pain. Diagnosed with CSF showing increased protein and neutrophilic pleocytosis, waxing and waning course. Rapidly responds to steroids. Proposed immune etiopathogenesis
65
How does vasculitis manifest as meningitis

a. Severe necrotizing vasculitis of the CNS is recognized in Beagles, Bernese Mountain Dogs, German Short-haired pointers. Young dogs are more commonly affected -> classical signs of fever, cervical rigidity, and spinal pain are seen. Progression to more severe signs if no therapy is instituted sucha s paralysis, blindness, and seizures. Treatment with steroids is effective in some dogs. Necropsy will show leptomeningitis with severe arteritis. Vasculitis syndromes are commonly caused by immune complex deposition
66
What is pyogranulomatous meningoencephalomyelitis

a. Acute rapidly progressive disorder in mature pointers. Despite therapy, many dogs are euthanized (antibiotic therapy will help but does not stop progression. Steroids have not been tried in this disease)
67
What is granulomatous meningoencephalomyelitis

a. Progressive granulomatous disease of the CNS has been recognized primarily in young dogs of small breeds such as poodles and terriers. There are focal, disseminated, and ocular forms which can often occur together. Has a rapid onset and 25% of cases progress to death in a week in the disseminated case. CSF shows pleocytosis consisting of lymphocytes, monocytes, and occasional plasma cells. Most cases progress despite treatment with steroids and prognosis for permenant recovery is poor. Lesions predominate in white matter
68
Bacterial meningitis can result from what sources

a. Local extension of local tissues such as eyes, ears, sinuses, nasal passages, or areas of osteomyelitis. Hematogenous spread from endocarditis, prostatitis, metritix, discospondylitis, Pyoderma, and pneumonia
69
What bacteria are implicated in bacterial meningitis

a. Staph aureus, staph epidermis, pasturella multocida, actinomyces, and nocardia
70
How are clinical signs different in these dogs vs. other cause for meningitis

a. Often very sick and can have shock, hypotension, DIC, predominant CSF with neutrophilic pleocytosis. Blood cultures are best way to diagnose but not always positive
71
What antibiotics get good penetration in the CSF

a. Chloramphenicol (bacteriostatic), trimethoprim, sulfonamides, and metronidazole. Ampicillin likely gets in the CSF when there is inflammation
72
What biochemical changes might be evident in a dog with distemper meningitis

a. CBC with lymphopenia, distemper inclusions in circulating lymphocytes, lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF
73
What other infectious disease processes are known to cause meningitis

a. Toxoplasmosis, parvovirus, acanthamoeba castellani, Cryptococcus neoformans, Aspergillosis , blastomycosis, Histoplasmosis, coccidioides immitis, RMSF, ehrlichia canis, dirofilaria immitis, toxocara canis, angiostrongylus cantonensis, ancylostoma caninum, Cuterebra, and prototheca