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85 Cards in this Set

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  • Back

Choose possible side effects from the use of stimulants for weight loss: (Select ALL that apply.)


Answer


ATremor


BBradycardia


CLow blood pressure


DDifficulty sleeping


ESomnolence

Tremor


Difficulty sleeping

In 2013 new weight loss guidelines were issued. Select a notable issue concerning the new guideline recommendations:


Answer


AA variety of diet types can be used to lose weight; calorie counting is no longer the only recommended method for weight loss.


BCalorie-counting is the only recommended method for weight loss.


CTrained personnel such as "weight loss coaches" and "personal trainers" are useless and should not be encouraged.


DVery low calorie diets should never be recommended.


EBariatric surgery is recommended for adults who are overweight (BMI > 24.9).

AA variety of diet types can be used to lose weight; calorie counting is no longer the only recommended method for weight loss.

Lorcaserin is a newer drug approved for weight loss. Which of the following statements concerning lorcaserin are correct? (Select ALL that apply.)


Answer


AThe brand name is Qysmia.


BLorcaserin is Pregnancy Category X.


CLorcaserin is a serotonin (5-HT2c) receptor agonist.


DThe manufacturer is required to conduct Phase IV monitoring for cardiovascular effects in patients using lorcaserin.


ELorcaserin is a stimulant agent.


BLorcaserin is Pregnancy Category X.


CLorcaserin is a serotonin (5-HT2c) receptor agonist.


DThe manufacturer is required to conduct Phase IV monitoring for cardiovascular effects in patients using lorcaserin.

Complications of being overweight include the following: (Select ALL that apply.)


Answer


ACoronary heart disease


BType 2 diabetes


CIncreased quality of life


DA higher BMI


EIncreased risk of certain types of cancer


ACoronary heart disease


BType 2 diabetes


DA higher BMI


EIncreased risk of certain types of cancer

Which of the following agents are often present in over-the-counter weight loss products? (Select ALL that apply.)


Answer


AGreen tea


BMood relaxant herbals, such as valerian and melatonin


CFiber products, including psyllium


DCaffeine containing products that are under different names, including yerba mate and guarana


EEphedra like products, including bitter orange

AGreen tea


DCaffeine containing products that are under different names, including yerba mate and guarana


EEphedra like products, including bitter orange

If a person has a stable weight and physical activity level, how many days would it take to lose one pound of fat if they decrease their caloric intake by 500 kcal per day?


Answer


AOne week


BTwo weeks


COne month


DOne day


EThree days


AOne week

What is the most common side effect of orlistat therapy?


Answer


AConstipation


BHeadache


CFlatus with discharge, fatty stool


DVomiting


EVitamin deficiencies


CFlatus with discharge, fatty stool

Sheila is a 31 year old white female with asthma, diabetes type 2, hypertension and dyslipidemia. Lab results (taken this morning, fasting): Hemoglobin A1C 6.7%, LDL cholesterol 112 g/dL, triglycerides 168 g/dL and hCG+ Medications:Prevacid 30 mg daily, taken 30 minutes before breakfast ProAir HFA, Symbicort, twice daily as directed metformin 500 mg three times daily and lisinopril 20 mg daily. Sheila is asking for a prescription for the new weight loss drug Belviqthat she read about in a magazine add. Which of the following statements are correct? (Select ALL that apply.)


Answer


ASheila can receive Belviq; she will need to be instructed to stick to a dietary plan.


BSheila can use Belviq but will need to stick to a dietary plan and exercise regimen.


CThe use of Belviq is contraindicated at this time in this patient.


DSheila's medications are unsafe at present and need to be changed.


ESheila should immediately discontinue the use of ProAir HFA.

CThe use of Belviq is contraindicated at this time in this patient.


DSheila's medications are unsafe at present and need to be changed.

A woman walks into the pharmacy and asks the pharmacist which over-the-counter product provides the most weight loss. The patient is 5 foot, 3 inches tall. She weighs about 150 pounds. Choose the correct advice that should be provided to the patient: (Select ALL that apply.)


Answer


AAvoid refined carbohydrates, such as products made with white bread, and avoid products with added sugar; this will help eliminate many unhealthy food choices.


BActivity counts; weight loss is maintained longer and people feel better when they are physically active.


CDiet pills do not provide long-term benefit.


DIncrease your alcohol intake while dieting.


EStart smoking if you do not already.

AAvoid refined carbohydrates, such as products made with white bread, and avoid products with added sugar; this will help eliminate many unhealthy food choices.


BActivity counts; weight loss is maintained longer and people feel better when they are physically active.


CDiet pills do not provide long-term benefit.

Mary is a 44 year-old female. Height 5'7", weight 197 pounds. Her blood pressure taken this morning was 134/78 mmHg. She had lab work done last month which reported an A1C of 8.7% and total cholesterol of 244 g/dL. Maries consumes a primarily carbohydrate-based diet with little vegetable intake because she claims that fresh vegetables "cost a lot of money and are hard to get in Wisconsin in the winter." She has been using over-the-counter weight loss products for years. She loses a little, then puts back on more weight. She went to her physician seeking help. The physician prescribed lorcaserin 10 mg PO ac TID #90, with 11 refills. Maya's other medications include fluoxetine 90 mg Q weekly, tramadol and sumatriptan PRN headaches and atorvastatin 10 mg daily. She refills the prescription for tramadol 1-2 Q 4-6 hours PRN #120 every month. The lorcaserin should not be filled for the following reasons. (SelectALL that apply.)


Answer


AThe dose schedule is incorrect.


BHer weight does not qualify her for the use of this agent.


CShe could experience coordination problems, trouble thinking clearly, hallucinations and changes in her blood pressure.


DHer medical conditions exclude the use of lorcaserin.


ELorcaserin is contraindicated in a patient with migraines.

AThe dose schedule is incorrect.


CShe could experience coordination problems, trouble thinking clearly, hallucinations and changes in her blood pressure.

Qsymia is a weight loss drug approved in 2012. What are the components of Qysmia?


Answer


APhentermine and fenfluramine


BPhentermine and topiramate


CPhentermine and lorcaserin


DPhentermine and diethylpropion


EPhentermine and pseudoephedrine

BPhentermine and topiramate

Which of the following are contraindications to the use of Qsymia? (Select ALL that apply.)


Answer


AGlaucoma


BPregnancy and lactation


CMonoamine oxidase inhibitor use within the previous 14 days.


DMorbid obesity, designated by a BMI > 40


EHyperthyroidism

AGlaucoma


BPregnancy and lactation


CMonoamine oxidase inhibitor use within the previous 14 days.


EHyperthyroidism

A patient gave the pharmacist a prescription for Xenical 120 mg #90, take one with each meal containing fat. Which of the following is an appropriate generic substitution for Xenical?


Answer


APhentermine


BOrlistat


CAlli


DDiethylpropion


EDextroamphetamine

Orlistat

What is the scheduled (DEA) category of Qsymia?


Answer


AC II


BC III


CC IV


DC V


EThis drug is not controlled.

C IV

A patient beginning lorcaserin should be counseled on the following likely side effects: (Select ALL that apply.)


Answer


AHeadache


BDizziness


CFatigue


DHyperhidrosis


EDry mouth


AHeadache


BDizziness


CFatigue


EDry mouth

Counseling points for the use of prescription orlistat therapy should include the following: (Select ALL that apply.)


Answer


AThis medication must be used with a reduced-calorie diet, exercise, and behavior modification program.


BThe brand name for this medicine is Alli.


CIf you use medicine for a low thyroid you must take the orlistat at least one hour after taking the thyroid medicine.


DTake a multivitamin that contains A, D, E and K at a different time of day than the orlistat (such as at bedtime).


EIn order to absorb this medicine your meal must contain at least 30 grams of fat.

AThis medication must be used with a reduced-calorie diet, exercise, and behavior modification program.


DTake a multivitamin that contains A, D, E and K at a different time of day than the orlistat (such as at bedtime).

Choose the safest and most practical use of prescription stimulant agents for weight loss?


Answer


AUse only short-term, in addition to changes in diet and increased physical activity & only for patients with higher BMIs.


BUseful in patients who will not engage in a regular diet and physical activity program.


CUseful in patients with cardiovascular disease who require fast weight loss.


DUseful long-term to help maintain weight loss in patients who cannot decrease caloric intake by other means.


EUseful in patients who have less than ten pounds to lose.


AUse only short-term, in addition to changes in diet and increased physical activity & only for patients with higher BMIs.

Which of the following goal hemoglobin levels is correct for treatment of anemia associated with sickle cell disease?


Answer


ANo higher than 8 g/dL


BNo higher than 9 g/dL


CNo higher than 10 g/dL


DNo higher than 11 g/dL


ENo higher than 12 g/dL

CNo higher than 10 g/dL

Folic acid supplementation is generally required with the following conditions: (Select ALL that apply.)


Answer


AAlcoholics at risk for Wernicke's encephalopathy.


BSickle cell disease


CFemales of child-bearing age who do not regularly consume folic acid fortified foods (or in any with questionable intake).


DScurvy


EMacrocytic anemia caused by vitamin B9 deficiency

BSickle cell disease


CFemales of child-bearing age who do not regularly consume folic acid fortified foods (or in any with questionable intake).


EMacrocytic anemia caused by vitamin B9 deficiency

Which of the following statements concerning deferoxamine is correct?


Answer


AThe brand name is Exjade.


BIt is the primary antidote for iron overdose.


CIt is administered as oral tablets.


DIt improves hearing.


EIt has low risk of hypersensitivity reactions.

BIt is the primary antidote for iron overdose.

A pharmacist has a prescription for deferasirox. What is the correct brand name for this iron chelation agent?


Answer


AExjade


BExtrent


CExacto


DIron-Off


ELoFerrous

Exjade

Which of the following best describe the mechanism of action of hydroxyurea when used as part of the treatment plan in sickle cell disease?


Answer


AHydroxyurea blocks painful impulses from traveling to the CNS.


BHydroxyurea stimulates production of erythropoetin.


CHydroxyurea stimulates production of fetal hemoglobin.


DHydroxyurea stimulates production of endogenous endorphins, which limit pain sensations.


EHydroxyurea helps neutralize urine, which preserves renal function.

CHydroxyurea stimulates production of fetal hemoglobin.

Which of the following statements concerning sickle cell disease are correct? (Select ALL that apply.)


Answer


APainful vaso-occlusive crises occur when sickle-shaped cells get stuck in narrow vessels, preventing blood flow to the subsequent tissue.


BThe common organism causing infections in infants children with sickle cell disease is P. aeruginosa.


CInfections are common in infants, children and young adults with sickle cell disease.


DSickle cell disease is caused by a genetic defect of a single base substitution on the chromosome that codes for the beta chain that forms part of hemoglobin.


EHemoglobin carries oxygen in red blood cells.

APainful vaso-occlusive crises occur when sickle-shaped cells get stuck in narrow vessels, preventing blood flow to the subsequent tissue.


CInfections are common in infants, children and young adults with sickle cell disease.


DSickle cell disease is caused by a genetic defect of a single base substitution on the chromosome that codes for the beta chain that forms part of hemoglobin.


EHemoglobin carries oxygen in red blood cells.

What is the primary cause of iron overload in patients with sickle cell disease?


Answer


AIncreased gut absorption


BChronic transfusions of healthy red blood cells.


CChronic use of erythropoietin.


DChronic use of hydroxyurea.


EChronic use of beta lactam antibiotics.

BChronic transfusions of healthy red blood cells

Select the correct statement concerning the dosing for folic acid in sickle cell disease:


Answer


AThe dose of folic acid in children with chronic hemolytic anemia is 1 mg/day, up to 1 year of age, with higher requirements as the child grows older.


BChildren with sickle cell disease do not generally require folic acid supplementation.


CFolic acid supplementation must be given by injection.


DThe dose of folic acid in children with chronic hemolytic anemia is 0.1 mg/day, up to 1 year of age, with higher requirements as the child grows older.


EThe dose of folic acid in children with chronic hemolytic anemia is 0.1 mg/day, up to 1 year of age, with lower requirements as the child grows older.

DThe dose of folic acid in children with chronic hemolytic anemia is 0.1 mg/day, up to 1 year of age, with higher requirements as the child grows older.

A patient using hydroxyurea complains that her stools are "loose and watery." Choose the correct statements. (SelectALL that apply.)


Answer


AHydroxyurea can cause loose stools, or diarrhea.


BHydroxyurea can cause constipation.


CHydroxyurea has no effect on stools in most patients.


DPatients on hydroxyurea usually require loperamide, taken daily, up to 8 tablets/day.


EHydroxyurea causes the stool to appear lighter, or clay-colored.

AHydroxyurea can cause loose stools, or diarrhea.


BHydroxyurea can cause constipation.

A female pharmacist is attempting pregnancy. She has a child with sickle cell disease. She is careful to use the following precaution:


Answer


AShe uses gloves when handling the hydroxyurea tablets, and washes her hands afterwards; hydroxyurea is pregnancy category A.


BShe uses gloves when handling the hydroxyurea tablets, and washes her hands afterwards; hydroxyurea is pregnancy category D.


CHydroxyurea poses no risk to an unborn child; after all, it is given to children.


DHydroxyurea is beneficial to the unborn child because it stimulates production of fetal hemoglobin.


EHydroxyurea is not supposed to be given to children with sickle cell disease; she should contact the prescriber.


BShe uses gloves when handling the hydroxyurea tablets, and washes her hands afterwards; hydroxyurea is pregnancy category D.

What is the primary cause of sickle cell anemia (anemia associated with sickle cell disease)?


Answer


AShorter life span of the red blood cells


BLack of erythropoietin


CLack of iron


DRenal disease


EOver-use of transfusions

AShorter life span of the red blood cells

Which of the following are benefits with using deferasirox versus the older deferoxamine therapy for iron chelation? (Select ALL that apply.)


Answer


ADeferasirox is an oral medication and deferoxamine is an injection.


BDeferasirox is easier to tolerate than deferoxamine.


CDeferasirox can be used with severe renal impairment while deferoxamine cannot.


DDeferasirox has less interactions with other medications in the gut (GI tract) than deferoxamine.


EDeferasirox is less time consuming to administer.

ADeferasirox is an oral medication and deferoxamine is an injection.


BDeferasirox is easier to tolerate than deferoxamine.


EDeferasirox is less time consuming to administer.

Children with sickle cell disease have been cured with the following treatment modality:


Answer


ASpleen and pancreas transplant


BRemicade infusions


CCyclophosphamide and possibly other anti-inflammatory/chemotherapeutic agents


DBone marrow transplant


EKidney transplant

DBone marrow transplant

Which of the following products cannot be taken concurrently with Exjade? (Select ALL that apply.)


Answer


AMaalox


BMilk


CFruit juice


DOscal


EYogurt

AMaalox


BMilk


DOscal


EYogurt

Select the correct counseling sequence for a patient receiving Exjade:


Answer


AOpen the capsule. Sprinkle into a small amount (spoonful) of applesauce or fruit juice. Swallow without chewing.


BIf the capsule cannot be swallowed whole, sprinkle into a small amount (4 ounces) of water and drink. Follow with another glass of water in the same cup to get any drug that has stuck to the cup.


CExjade tablets are taken whole, or ground and mixed with a small amount of applesauce or pudding.


DDrop into apple juice, orange juice, or water. Stir until the mixture is even. Drink all of it, including washing down any that is stuck to the cup.


EExjade comes only as a suspension that is mixed with fruit juice or water; do not mix with dairy products.

DDrop into apple juice, orange juice, or water. Stir until the mixture is even. Drink all of it, including washing down any that is stuck to the cup.

Hydroxyurea is difficult for patients to tolerate. Which of the following side effects are common with the use of this drug? (Select ALL that apply.)


Answer


ABone marrow suppression


BIncreased appetite/weight gain


CAnorexia, nausea


DSedation


EHyperpigmentation, scaling skin, rash


ABone marrow suppression


CAnorexia, nausea


EHyperpigmentation, scaling skin, rash

Which of the following statements concerning sickle cell disease are correct? (Select ALL that apply.)


Answer


AThe cell nucleus in white blood cells is misshapen into a concave, sickle shape.


BThe hemoglobin in red blood cells is misshapen into a concave, sickle shape.


CSickle cell disease is an acquired disorder.


DSickle cell disease is a genetic disorder.


ESickle cell disease affects 1 of every 500 black Americans.

BThe hemoglobin in red blood cells is misshapen into a concave, sickle shape.


DSickle cell disease is a genetic disorder.


ESickle cell disease affects 1 of every 500 black Americans.

A pharmacist has received a prescription for hydroxyurea. She is out of the generic and will substitute a brand product (at no additional cost to the patient). Which of the following products contain hydroxyurea? (Select ALL that apply.)


Answer


AHydrea


BHydrangia


CDroxy


DHydralazine


EDroxia


AHydrea


EDroxia

Which of the following products simulates a "hand-to-mouth" movement and can be useful for patients who wish to repeat a hand-to-mouth habit?


Answer


ANicotine gum


BNicotine patch


CNicotine inhaler


DNicotine nasal spray


EBupropion

CNicotine inhaler

TC is a 37 year old male who has a significant smoking history. He is determined to quit smoking. Which one of the following are part of the "5 A's" model for treating tobacco use and dependence? (Select ALL that apply.)


Answer


AAsk about tobacco use


BAdvise to quit


CAssess willingness to quit


DAttempt to intervene


EAssist in quit attempt

AAsk about tobacco use


BAdvise to quit


CAssess willingness to quit


EAssist in quit attempt

Beth has been a pack-a-day smoker for over twenty years. Smoking has put her at additional risk for the following health conditions: (Select ALL that apply.)


Answer


AMultiple types of cancers


BHeart disease


CCOPD


DComplications if she were to become pregnant


EStroke

AMultiple types of cancers


BHeart disease


CCOPD


DComplications if she were to become pregnant


EStroke

Chantix requires dose adjustment for which of the following conditions?


Answer


AHepatic dysfunction


BRenal dysfunction


CGeriatric patients


DPsychiatric conditions


ENone of the above


BRenal dysfunction

Laura will use bupropion for smoking cessation. Which of the following statements concerning bupropion are correct? (Select ALL that apply.)


Answer


APatients should not stop smoking until 1 week after starting bupropion.


BIf you cannot swallow the tablets it is acceptable to crush them, or cut in half into smaller pieces.


CDo not use if you have a seizure disorder.


DDo not use if there is any chance you could become pregnant.


EDo not use if you have either anorexia or bipolar disorder.

APatients should not stop smoking until 1 week after starting bupropion.


CDo not use if you have a seizure disorder.


EDo not use if you have either anorexia or bipolar disorder.

Which of the following agents would be useful for a patient who needs to treat both depression and a smoking addiction? (Select ALL that apply.)


Answer


AZyban


BElavil


CChantix


DBuproban


EZyprexa


AZyban


DBuproban

Which of the following agents have a black box warning regarding an increased risk of suicidal ideation/thinking? (Select ALL that apply.)


Answer


ANicotine patches


BVarenicline


CBupropion


DNicotine lozenges


ENicotine gum

BVarenicline


CBupropion

Which of the following products is available as an over-the-counter formulation? (Select ALL that apply.)


Answer


ANicotine gum


BNicotine lozenge


CNicotine patch


DNicotine inhaler


ENicotine nasal spray


ANicotine gum


BNicotine lozenge


CNicotine patch

Bert, who smokes an average of 8 cigarettes per day for the last year, is interested in smoking cessation. He's interested in using the patch. What dose would you recommend for him?


Answer


AUse 21mg/24hr patch for 6 weeks, then the 14mg/24hr patch for 4 weeks, then 7mg/24hr patch for 4 weeks


BUse 21mg/24hr patch for 6 weeks, then the 14mg/24hr patch for 2 weeks, then 7mg/24hr patch for 2 weeks


CUse 14mg/24hr patch for 6 weeks, then 7mg/24hr patch for 4 weeks


DUse 14mg/24hr patch for 6 weeks, then 7mg/24hr patch for 2 weeks


EUse 7mg/24hr patch for 6 weeks


DUse 14mg/24hr patch for 6 weeks, then 7mg/24hr patch for 2 weeks

Choose the correct counseling statements for Nicotrol inhaler: (Select ALL that apply.)


Answer


AFrequent, continuous puffing for 20 minutes is advised with each cartridge.


BOnce a cartridge is opened, it is only good for 2 days.


CClean the mouthpiece by sterilizing it in a dishwasher.


DIn hot weather, keep the device in a refrigerator.


EIn cold weather, store the cartridge in an inside pocket or other warm area.

AFrequent, continuous puffing for 20 minutes is advised with each cartridge.


EIn cold weather, store the cartridge in an inside pocket or other warm area.

HG is a 17 year old female who is interested in smoking cessation. She asks about starting on OTC nicotine gum. What advice should the pharmacist offer?


Answer


AEncourage her to start behavioral counseling first.


BEncourage her to start behavioral counseling and the OTC nicotine gum at the same time (to improve success rate).


CEncourage her to start behavioral counseling, OTC nicotine gum and bupropion at the same time (to improve success rate).


DEncourage her to start behavioral counseling, OTC nicotine gum and varenicline at the same time (to improve success rate).


EShe is a good candidate for the nicotine gum.


AEncourage her to start behavioral counseling first.

Which of the following smoking-cessation nicotine products comes as a transdermal patch?


Answer


ACommit


BNicotrol inhaler


CNicotrol NS


DNicorette


ENicoDerm

ENicoDerm

Benjamin is a 50 year male who has stopped smoking since starting the nicotine patch two weeks ago but now complains of insomnia. What advice should the pharmacist offer?


Answer


AInform him that insomnia is a temporary side effect and will go away with time.


BAdvise him to wear the patch during waking hours (for 16 hours, instead of 24 hours).


CAdvise him to cut the patch in half and wear each portion for 12 hours (to decrease amount of drug in his system).


DAdvise him to place the patches further away from his head such as his legs.


EInform him that this is not an expected side effect; this is due to normal smoking withdrawal.

BAdvise him to wear the patch during waking hours (for 16 hours, instead of 24 hours).

Which of the following smoking-cessation products should be avoided in those that drive or operate heavy machinery such as pilots, truck drivers?


Answer


AHabitrol


BNicotrol inhaler


CChantix


DNicorette


ENicoderm

CChantix

Which of the following smoking cessation therapies works by reducing nicotine craving by blocking reuptake of dopamine and reducing withdrawal symptoms by blocking norepinephrine reuptake?


Answer


ABupropion


BNicotine replacement therapy


CVarenicline


DFluoxetine


EDuloxetine

ABupropion

Max smokes 1.5 to 2 packs of cigarettes per day. What strength of gum should he use at the initiation of nicotine replacement therapy?


Answer


A8 mg gum pieces


B6 mg gum pieces


C4 mg gum pieces


D3 mg gum pieces


E1 mg gum pieces

C4 mg gum pieces

Max smokes so often that he smells like an ash-tray. His family has been begging him to quit and Max finally seems ready to apply himself seriously to this effort. He has agreed to use the gum as he thinks he must have something in his mouth to replace the cigarette. Which of the following counseling statements concerning the nicotine gum are correct? (Select ALL that apply.)


Answer


AChew slowly until a "peppery" or "flavored" taste emerges, then "park" the gum between the cheek and gum.


BTo increase the chances of his quit attempt, Max should combine the gum with varenicline.


CIt is acceptable to eat and drink other foods and liquids during this time, if desired.


DUse a piece of gum every 1-2 hours.


EContinue to "chew" and "park" for about 30 minutes or until the taste dissipates

AChew slowly until a "peppery" or "flavored" taste emerges, then "park" the gum between the cheek and gum.


BTo increase the chances of his quit attempt, Max should combine the gum with varenicline.


CIt is acceptable to eat and drink other foods and liquids during this time, if desired.


DUse a piece of gum every 1-2 hours.


EContinue to "chew" and "park" for about 30 minutes or until the taste dissipates


AChew slowly until a "peppery" or "flavored" taste emerges, then "park" the gum between the cheek and gum.


DUse a piece of gum every 1-2 hours.


EContinue to "chew" and "park" for about 30 minutes or until the taste dissipates

Which kills more people annually?


Answer


ASmoking


BAIDS


CSuicides and drug overdose


DFires


ECar accidents and homicides

ASmoking

What are the most common side effects of bupropion therapy?


Answer


AInsomnia and dry mouth


BRash and itching


CSedation and lethargy


DWeight gain and increased blood glucose


EAnxiety and depression


AInsomnia and dry mouth

Max is starting smoking cessation and is going to use the 4 mg gum. How much should he use initially?


Answer


AAt least 1 piece of gum every 1-2 hours during the start of therapy (for the 1st 6 weeks)


BAt least 1 piece of gum every 30 minutes during the start of therapy (for the 1st 6 weeks)


CAt least 1 piece of gum every 2-4 hours during the start of therapy (for the 1st 6 weeks)


DAt least 10 pieces of gum every 30 minutes every 1-2 hours during the start of therapy (for the 1st 6 weeks)


EAt least 2 pieces of gum every 1-2 hours during the start of therapy (for the 1st 6 weeks)

AAt least 1 piece of gum every 1-2 hours during the start of therapy (for the 1st 6 weeks)

Which of the following statements are true regarding varenicline use for smoking cessation? (Select ALL that apply.)


Answer


AVarenicline requires a MedGuide.


BVarenicline should not be used in combination with nicotine replacement therapy.


CVarenicline is contraindicated in patients with cardiovascular disease.


DVarenicline has reduced dosing in severe renal insufficiency (CrCl less than 30 mL/min).


EVarenicline should be started 1 week prior to quit date.


AVarenicline requires a MedGuide.


BVarenicline should not be used in combination with nicotine replacement therapy.


DVarenicline has reduced dosing in severe renal insufficiency (CrCl less than 30 mL/min).


EVarenicline should be started 1 week prior to quit date.

Max's doctor has advised him to use the nicotine patch with the gum. Why did the doctor offer this advice to use a combination of nicotine products? (Select ALL that apply.)


Answer


AHigher chance of success


BLess tachycardia


CLess nighttime insomnia


DHe should not have. This is terrible advice.


EThe gum may be useful to control breakthrough cravings that occur with the patch.

AHigher chance of success


EThe gum may be useful to control breakthrough cravings that occur with the patch.


What are the most common side effects of varenicline therapy?


Answer


ADry mouth and dry/blurry vision


BRash and itching


CSedation and dizziness


DNausea and insomnia/abnormal dreams


EHypotension/hypertension


DNausea and insomnia/abnormal dreams

Berryl is pregnant and wants to quit smoking. Which of the following agents is Pregnancy Category C?


Answer


ABupropion SR


BNicotine patch


CNicotine inhaler


DNicotine nasal spray


EMethotrexate

ABupropion SR

A patient asks the pharmacist for advice on using the Commit lozenge. She states that she doesn't feel much benefit after using one. The pharmacist asks how the patient uses the lozenge, and the patient replies she chews it and swallows it. Which of the following counseling statements for the lozenge are correct? (Select ALL that apply.)


Answer


AThe lozenges should be used in combination with Chantix.


BA prescription will be required if the patient wishes to use this beyond 2 weeks.


CUse 1 lozenge every 1-2 hours during the first 6 weeks of treatment.


DDo not eat or drink anything other than water for 15 minutes before or after the lozenge.


EDissolve the lozenge in the mouth; do not chew.


CUse 1 lozenge every 1-2 hours during the first 6 weeks of treatment.


DDo not eat or drink anything other than water for 15 minutes before or after the lozenge.


EDissolve the lozenge in the mouth; do not chew.

Which of the following smoking-cessation nicotine products comes as an oral lozenge that releases nicotine slowly as it dissolves in the mouth?


Answer


ACommit


BNicotrol inhaler


CNicotrol NS


DThrive


ENicoDerm


ACommit

Chantix has a black-box warning for this serious, possible adverse effect:


Answer


APancreatitis


BGallstones


CAcute renal failure with oliguria


DSerious psychiatric events, including depression & suicide


ELiver failure

DSerious psychiatric events, including depression & suicide

Beth wishes to quit smoking. She has tried using gum in the past. She has never participated in any type of support program. Choose the correct statement(s). (Select ALL that apply.)


Answer


ACounseling and medication are more effective when used together.


BThere is a strong correlation between counseling intensity and quitting success.


CVarenicline is the one agent that does not require behavioral support; it is a strong agent and works for most patients without the additional support.


DMany patients fail with nicotine gum or lozenges because they do not use enough.


EThere are state and federal support programs available to help Beth.


ACounseling and medication are more effective when used together.


BThere is a strong correlation between counseling intensity and quitting success.


DMany patients fail with nicotine gum or lozenges because they do not use enough.


EThere are state and federal support programs available to help Beth.

Frank is prescribed Chantix for smoking cessation. What is the generic name of Chantix?


Answer


ABupropion


BVarenicline


CNicotine replacement therapy


DSmokeless cigarettes


EVardenafil

BVarenicline

Which of the following statements concerning smoking and drug levels are correct? (Select ALL that apply.)


Answer


AIf a patient suddenly stops smoking it is expected that the theophylline concentration would increase.


BIf a patient suddenly stops smoking it is expected that the olanzapine concentration would increase.


CIf a patient suddenly stops smoking it is expected that the olanzapine concentration would decrease.


DIf a patient suddenly stops smoking it is expected that the theophylline concentration would stay the same.


EIf a patient suddenly stops smoking it is expected that the clozapine concentration would increase


AIf a patient suddenly stops smoking it is expected that the theophylline concentration would increase.


BIf a patient suddenly stops smoking it is expected that the olanzapine concentration would increase.


EIf a patient suddenly stops smoking it is expected that the clozapine concentration would increase

Which of the following drugs cannot be used in patients with severe renal impairment? (Select ALL that apply.)


Answer


AAlendronate


BMetformin


CTadalafil


DCeftriaxone


EMeperidine

AAlendronate


BMetformin


CTadalafil


EMeperidine

A pharmacist is asked by a medical resident to explain to him about the different types of dialysis. Which of the following statements concerning dialysis are correct? (Select ALL that apply.)


Answer


AThe most common causes of chronic kidney disease (CKD) are IgA nephropathy and lupus-induced renal disease.


BHemodialysis done at a center is typically a once-a-week process.


CDialysis takes the place of the kidneys: it removes waste products, and electrolytes and water by filtering the blood.


DPharmacists can make a tremendous inpact by having patients check their blood pressure at the store and informing them if the values are healthy; patients should know their goal blood pressure value.


EIn hemodialysis the patient's blood leaves their body and is pumped through a machine, where the dialyzer works by the processes of diffusion and convection.


CDialysis takes the place of the kidneys: it removes waste products, and electrolytes and water by filtering the blood.


DPharmacists can make a tremendous inpact by having patients check their blood pressure at the store and informing them if the values are healthy; patients should know their goal blood pressure value.


EIn hemodialysis the patient's blood leaves their body and is pumped through a machine, where the dialyzer works by the processes of diffusion and convection.

A patient is being dispensed a phosphate binder. When are phosphate binders taken?


Answer


AIn the morning, half an hour before breakfast.


BIn the evening, at bedtime.


CWith meals and snacks; they work by binding phosphate in the gut and need to be in the gut when the food is in the gut, or they are not useful.


DBetween meals and snacks, they work by binding phosphate in the serum and are not well-absorbed if food is taken concurrently.


EWith meals and snacks, they work by binding phosphate in the serum and are not well-absorbed without food taken concurrently.


CWith meals and snacks; they work by binding phosphate in the gut and need to be in the gut when the food is in the gut, or they are not useful.

Many drugs must be "dose-adjusted" with renal impairment. Which of the following agents must have the doses reduced with impaired renal function? (Select ALL that apply.)


Answer


AAllopurinol


BAmantadine


CDigoxin


DIndomethacin


EEstradiol

AAllopurinol


BAmantadine


CDigoxin

Tom has end stage renal disease and uses many medications, including Renagel. What is the indication for Renagel?


Answer


AIt increases calcium absorption.


BIt increases vitamin D absorption.


CIt lowers serum phosphate levels.


DIt lowers serum vitamin D levels.


EIt lowers serum sodium levels.

CIt lowers serum phosphate levels.

Many drugs must be "dose-adjusted" with renal impairment. Which of the following agents must have the doses reduced with impaired renal function? (Select ALL that apply.)


Answer


ANafcillin


BMost statins


COxacillin


DMetoclopramide


ETigecycline

BMost statins


DMetoclopramide

A pharmacist is asked by a medical resident what factors cause a drug to be removed during hemodialysis. The resident is attempting to write post-dialysis orders for a patient under his care. Which of the following statements concerning drug removal are correct? (Select ALL that apply.)


Answer


ALarger drugs are cleared more easily with a high-flux membrane, which have a larger pore size.


BHighly protein bound drugs are easily removed by dialysis, versus drugs with little protein binding, as the dialyzer pulls proteins into the membrane.


CThe larger the volume of distribution (Vd) the larger the effect of drug clearance by dialysis; drugs with a larger Vd are cleared more easily than drugs with a smaller Vd.


DSmaller molecular compounds (smaller drugs) are more easily cleared by dialysis.


EThe dialysis has substantial effect on the clearance of drugs that are largely cleared by the liver.

ALarger drugs are cleared more easily with a high-flux membrane, which have a larger pore size.


DSmaller molecular compounds (smaller drugs) are more easily cleared by dialysis.

Sandra has lupus-related renal disease. Her serum creatinine today is 2.7 g/dL and the potassium is 6.2 mEq/L. In order to reduce the potassium the physician has prescribed sodium polystyrene sulfonate (SPS). Choose the correct statement concerning sodium polystyrene sulfonate:


Answer


AThe brand name is Gabitril.


BThis drug is a cation exchange resin that binds potassium in the gut.


CThis drug may stabilize cardiac tissue to reduce arrhythmia risk.


DThe potassium should be lowered to 3.2 mEq/L.


ESPS increases appetite.

BThis drug is a cation exchange resin that binds potassium in the gut.

Tom has end stage renal disease and uses many medications, including Renagel. Previously he was using PhosLo. What is a possible reason that Tom needed to stop using PhosLo?


Answer


ACost; Renagel is less expensive than PhosLo


BHigher calcium levels


CLower calcium levels


DHyperphosphatemia


ELower efficacy


BHigher calcium levels

Sandra has lupus-related renal disease. Her most recent serum creatinine was 2.7 mg/dL. In order to try and save her remaining renal function, the nephrologist prescribed irbesartan 320 mg daily. Sandra presents to the clinic today with a potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L. The hyperkalemia could cause the following clinical concerns: (Select ALL that apply.)


Answer


AMuscle weakness


BBradycardia


CChest pain


DArrhythmias


EParesthesias


AMuscle weakness


BBradycardia


CChest pain


DArrhythmias


EParesthesias

Sam has a creatinine clearance of 38 mL/min. Which of the following statements are accurate concerning this degree of renal impairment? (Select ALL that apply.)


Answer


AThis is classified as severe renal insufficiency.


BThis is defined as Stage 3 CKD.


CThe patient may need to have the erythropoetin level checked if anemic.


DACE inhibitors or Angiotensin Receptor Blockers should be initiated if there are no contraindications to use.


EThe blood pressure should be controlled to less than 110/70 mmHg with this degree of impairment.


BThis is defined as Stage 3 CKD.


CThe patient may need to have the erythropoetin level checked if anemic.


DACE inhibitors or Angiotensin Receptor Blockers should be initiated if there are no contraindications to use.

Which of the following drugs cannot be used in patients with severe renal impairment? (Select ALL that apply.)


Answer


AVoriconazole given IV


BGlyburide


CIbuprofen


DRivaroxaban


ELevothyroxine


AVoriconazole given IV


BGlyburide


CIbuprofen


DRivaroxaban

Which of the following statements concerning hyperphosphatemia in chronic kidney disease (CKD) is correct? (SelectALL that apply.)


Answer


AInitially, controlling dietary phosphate intake is tried and is usually sufficient for several years.


BAluminum-based phosphate binders are strong, but have toxicity and cause constipation.


CCalcium-based agents are cheap, work well and have minimal side effects for most patients.


DThe most expensive agents are the aluminum-free, calcium-free phosphate binders such as Fosrenol.


ESevelamer (Renvela, Renagel) are aluminum-free, calcium-free phosphate binders that have the added benefit of lowering LDL cholesterol.

BAluminum-based phosphate binders are strong, but have toxicity and cause constipation.


DThe most expensive agents are the aluminum-free, calcium-free phosphate binders such as Fosrenol.


ESevelamer (Renvela, Renagel) are aluminum-free, calcium-free phosphate binders that have the added benefit of lowering LDL cholesterol.

Which of the following statements concerning vitamin D supplementation in chronic kidney disease (CKD) are correct? (Select ALL that apply.)


Answer


ACalcitriol (Rocaltrol) is the active form of vitamin D2.


BThe newer vitamin D analogs such as doxercalciferol and paricalcitol are associated with higher degrees of hypercalcemia, which makes them of little use.


CVitamin D3 is ergocalciferol.


DVitamin D supplementation is required in renal disease, but causes increased calcium absorption in the gut, which can be harmful; newer vitamin D analogs such as doxercalciferol are associated with less hypercalcemia.


EVitamin D is not really a "vitamin" since humans can make it in the skin after exposure to ultraviolet light, or, it can be consumed through the diet.


DVitamin D supplementation is required in renal disease, but causes increased calcium absorption in the gut, which can be harmful; newer vitamin D analogs such as doxercalciferol are associated with less hypercalcemia.


EVitamin D is not really a "vitamin" since humans can make it in the skin after exposure to ultraviolet light, or, it can be consumed through the diet.

John has been using pregabalin 150 mg BID for five years. Initially, John's creatinine clearance was estimated at 78 mL/min. His blood pressure has been poorly controlled for the past five years. This has worsened his renal function and the creatinine clearance has declined to 34 mL/min. Choose the correct statement:


Answer


ADizziness and somnolence would decrease.


BDizziness and somnolence would increase.


CThe efficacy of pregabalin would decrease.


DPregabalin does not cause CNS effects.


EPregabalin is not cleared renally.




BDizziness and somnolence would increase.

Which of the following statements concerning treatment of metabolic acidosis associated with chronic kidney disease (CKD) are correct? (Select ALL that apply.)


Answer


AThe kidneys ability to generate bicarb decreases as CKD progresses.


BThe decrease in bicarb can lead to metabolic acidosis.


CAgents to replace bicarb include sodium bicarbonate.


DAgents to replace bicarb include Bicitra.


EProducts such as Bicitra and Citra -2 are constipating.

AThe kidneys ability to generate bicarb decreases as CKD progresses.


BThe decrease in bicarb can lead to metabolic acidosis.


CAgents to replace bicarb include sodium bicarbonate.


DAgents to replace bicarb include Bicitra.

Which of the following agents is not used to lower serum potassium?


Answer


ASodium polystyrene sulfonate


BAlbuterol


CInsulin plus glucose


DCalcium gluconate


EAll of the above are used to lower potassium

DCalcium gluconate

Many drugs must be "dose-adjusted" with renal impairment. Which of the following agents must have the doses reduced with impaired renal function? (Select ALL that apply.)


Answer


AAztreonam


BCeftriaxone


CVancomycin


DLinezolid


EClindamycin


AAztreonam


CVancomycin

There are many drugs that are renally cleared and must have their doses reduced if significant renal impairment is present. Drugs that are renally cleared include: (Select ALL that apply.)


Answer


AEnoxaparin


BGentamicin


CDabigatran


DAmikacin


EFluconazole

AEnoxaparin


BGentamicin


CDabigatran


DAmikacin


EFluconazole

Which of the following statements concerning bone metabolism abnormalities in chronic kidney disease (CKD) is correct?


Answer


AInitially, bone metabolism abnormalities are caused by a rise in calcium.


BHyperphosphatemia causes an increase in the release of parathyroid hormone.


CA benefit of hyperphosphatemia is improved bone health.


DTo counteract the increase in phosphate levels, it is necessary to give injectable phosphate binders.


ETreatment of secondary hyperparathyroidism is aimed at restricting dietary calcium.


BHyperphosphatemia causes an increase in the release of parathyroid hormone.