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264 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
cutaneous receptors that respond to pressure (2)

slow or fast adapting?

nerve type?
Ruffini , Merkel discs

slow

a-beta
cutaneous receptors that respond to touch and vibration?

slow or fast adapting?
nerve type?
Pacinian, Meissner


fast
A-beta
which are in the deep dermis?
ruffini and pacinian
which is in superficial dermis, esp finger pads?
meissner
which is in the epidermis?
merkel discs
muscle spindles--

1a goes to: ____ and _____ adapting
II goes to: ____ and _____ adapting
chain and bag ; fast
chain only, slow
dynamic gamma bias increases the sensitivity of the ___
bag only
1b = _______ =______ adapting
GTO ; slow
1a's are sensitive to _______ (phasic) & ______(tonic)
II's are sensitive to ______ (tonic)
velocity & length
length only
when are the spindles silent?
contraction
when are the GTOs silent?
stretch
which joint receptor senses--

stretch @ extreme ROM?
compression/hydrostatic changes?
pressure @ extreme ROM?
noxious stimuli?
ruffini I
pacinian II
golgi III
free IV
4 distinct types of sensation?
pain, fine touch, temperature, proprioception
what is a dermatome?
area of skin inn by one dorsal root (cell bodies and their axons)
what is a bundle of axons with the same origin and a common termination?
tract
for crude awareness, info must make it to the:
thalamus
for full awareness, must make it to the ____
cortex
3 types of sensory pathways
conscious relay
divergent
unconscious
a- alpha neurons, proprioceptive neurons: __ & ___
a-beta neurons, discriminative touch: ____
1a & 1b
II
what tract at group 1 & group II in?
DC/ML
what tract are a-delta and C fibers in?
spinothalamic
1st order neuron of DC/ML enters ______ to ______tract and acends the spinal cord to the ______, where it synpses on the 2nd order neuron then crosses midline and ascends to the ____ thru the ________ in the ____ medulla
medial to Lissauer's
medulla

VPL, medial lemniscus, upper
fasciulus gracilis in the spinal cord = info from ____
faciculus cuneatus in the SC = info from _____
legs- medial
arms - lateral
thalamocortical afferents travel through the ______ to get to the ______, which is located where?
internal capsule
primary somatosensory cortex
post-central gyrus
primary sensory cortex = area's ___&___&_____
3A/3b, 2, 1
info from 3a,3b,1 integrated by ____, resulting in your ability to perform _______
2
astereognosia
does area 2 cross body parts?
no
which area crosses body parts to help you build a representation of your whole body?
5
which area integrates info from your environment?
7
areas 5 & 7 are " _____" areas
parietal association
damage to the R or L areas 5 & 7 produces severe neglect?
R damage - L neglect
where does information from the face join in for the DC/ML?
pons
where does the antero-lateral 2nd order neuron decussate?
level of the spinal cord
fast pain - _____ fibers

slow pain-______ fibers
a-delta
1st order AL fibers enter _____tract and synapse in (2) places
lissauers

substantia gelatinosa (I & II)
body of the dorsal horn (III &IV)
diverging pathways include _____pain
slow
what fibers synpase on clark's nucleus or the nucleus dorsalis?
leg fibers entering from lumbar/sacaral segments
is there some mixing of info in the somatosensory pathways?
yes
what is perception?
interpretation of sensation
what system are the internal arcuate fibers a part of?
DC/ML - midline crossing in medulla before they turn into medial lemniscus
AL system- name of structure in which the fibers cross midline?
anterior white commissure
if a person has a lesion in the VPL nucleus, what aspects of pain will be known to the person?
inability to localize, but emotional aspects remain
which pathway is associated ONLY with pain
spinolimbic
the periaqueductal gray is a part of what system?
descending pain control
what 2 brain structures might be removed to make pain less bothersome even though the intensity would be the same?
anterior cingulate gyrus and posterior insula
what lobe are motor planning areas in?
frontal
where are "control circuits" for movement?
cerebellum and BG
Is a cranial n a UMN or LMN? where do the cranial nn originate?
LMN, brainstem
what is an alpha motor neuron and the mm fibers it innervates?
motor unit
what determines if a mm is slow twitch or fast twitch?
neuron that inn. it
slow or fast have smaller diameter?
slow
what happens when a motor neuron is activated?
release ACh
what prinicple says recruitment happens from smaller to larger alpha motor neurons
henneman's size principle
why are slow twitch usually activated first?
smaller cell bodies depolarize first
for very precise control, do you want a large motor unit or a small motor unit?
small
GTOs and mm spindles modulate _____
alpha output
during most movements do the alpha and gamma motor neurons fire simultaneously?
yes, this is called alpha-gamma coactivation and allows the body to provide proprioceptive info at all times
reflex must have a ___ & _______ component
sensory & motor
what is group of cell bodies in the spinal cord whose axons project to a single mm?
motor neuron pool
what mm do the following motor neuron pool inn-

medial:
lateral:
anterior:
posterior:
axial & proximal
distal
extensors
flexors
motor control term describing coordinated activation of mm groups
mm synergies
where are CPGs located?
lumbar cord
is a CPG adaptable?
yes
do you need one CPG or 2 CPGs for locomotion?
cycles of 2 CPGs
decision to walk activates _____ , which activates ______, which activates ____
Mesencephalic region, descending motor pathways to the lumbar cord, CPGs
does normal walking need supraspinal control?
yes!
intrinsic oscillation in spinal interneurons generates the ______ ; spinal networks used for flexor withdrawal and reciprocal inhibition _____ the rhythm (pattern generator)
rhythm (rhythmn generator)

distribute
how to influence CPGs?
sensory input
can learning occur at a spinal cord level?
yes--
example: preserved stumbling corrective responses in transected cats
deep tendon reflex is an example of a ________
monosynaptic stretch reflex aka a Ia phasic stretch reflex
what happens at the same time at the monosynaptic stretch reflex?
reciprocal inhibition of the antagonist via disynaptic inhibition thru Ia-IN
disynaptic (tonic) stretch reflexes are modulated by group ___s
II
when is the only time a tonic stretch reflex would be noticed clinically?
following UMN lesion
monosynaptic reflex is excitatory to ____ & ___
homonymous motoneurons and synergists
why is disynaptic stretch reflex noticed in UMN lesion?
descending input no longer inhibiting the tonic reflex
the effect of GTO autogenic inhibition via disynaptic inhibition Ib-IN is to....
allow mm to relax at rest
WB GTO is _____

NWB GTO is ____
excitatory

inhibitory
flexor withdrawal with crossed extension results from ____ activation
a delta
which joint receptors appear to inihibit mm around a jt, esp in the presence of inflammation?
golgi-mazzoni
why perform stretching slowly?
less likely to cause a stretch reflex
to facilitate a mm that is already contracting, use a ______ to increase contraction through _______
quick stretch ; autogenic facilitation
what mechanism is used for contract-relax stretching
GTO
what reflex is monosynaptic and elicited by electrically exciting a m?

hint: used diagnostically
H-reflex
can spinal cord reflexes be generated by MS or cutaneous receptors?
yes
cutaneous stimulation: facilitory to mm under stimulated area via group _____ disynaptic interneurons
II
name the neurotransmitter assoc with each system:

raphespinal
cerulospinal
serotonin
noradrenaline
once corticospinal axons leave pyramidal cells, they travel first through _______, then form the _____ in the midbrain and pons, then come together as the ______ in the _______. where do almost all decussate?
posterior limb of the internal capsule ; cerebral peduncles, pyramids in the medulla ;

in the lower medulla
think hula hooping and push-ups--this system prepares the body to do these activities
medial corticospinal
this tract has strong projections to shape the hand (wrist extensors) but not to the fingers
rubrospinal
which 2 tracts are activated when anxiety is high and decrease motor performance because they are nonspecific
raphespinal and cerulospinal
is polio an UMN or LMN lesion?
LMN
what is it called when a single motor unit twitches?
LMN or UMN?
fasciculation
LMN
what are brief, contractions of a m or group of mm -- ex hiccups

EX of a disease
myoclonus

HD
what are brief contractions of mm fibers that are always pathologic and cannot be seen without EMG

LMN or UMN?
fibrillations

almost always LMN
when would flaccidity be seen in an UMN lesion?
acutely
velocity-dependent resistance and hyperreflexia
spasticity
non velocity dependent resistance
rigidity
rigidity that occurs if a severe lesion in the midbrain occurs
decerebrate
rigidity with severe lesion above the midbrain
decorticate
typically, in an UMN, ______ but not _____ of mm occurs. however, ________ occurs that is independent of work done
paresis but not paralysis

fatigue
babinski and hoffman's indicate _____ damage

both are associated with an abnormal _____ pattern in response to an innoculous stimulus
corticospinal

flexion
is sustained clonus always pathologic?
yes
clasped knife response is assoc with UMN or LMN lesion? which type of afferents are responsbile?
UMN
type II
ASHWORTH SCALE

0
1
1+
2
3
4
0- no increase in tone
1- slight increase, catch @ end range
1+-slight increase, catch and minimal resistance through less than 1/2 to end
2- increase through ROM but easily moved
3- considerable increase in tone, passive movement is difficult
4- rigid in flexion or ext
MS is LMN or UMN?
UMN lesions cause fatigue!
visceral information from cranial nerves VII, IX, X sent to the ______ of the _____
solitary nucleus of the medulla
in the ANS system, preganglionics release:
ACh
sympathetic preganglionics are at what levels of the SC?
T1-L2
adrenergic means what (2) transmittersbind to them
NE and epinephrine
alpha blockers decrease BP via
vasodilation
beta 2 agonists prevent:
airway constriction
beta-1 blockers decrease (2)
HR and contractility
pupil dilation occurs via ______ and constriction occurs via ______
sympathetic
parasympathetic
horner's syndrome occur when _______ innervation to the head is disrupted
sympathetic
SS of horner's syndrome? (4)
drooping eyelid
pupil constriction
skin vasodilation
absence of sweating
what can cause horners?
stellate ganglion block
vasovagal attack causes syncope d/t (2)
decreased HR and vasodilation
are corticobulbar fibers LMNs or UMNs?
UMNs
does the olfactory n go through the thalamus?
no
VISION

where does decussation occur?
optic chiasm
should the jaw jerk reflex be apparent or absent in a normal person?
absent

if present, indicates UMN lesion of trigeminal n
salivation and crying are produced by the same n responsible for the expressions you make. name the CN
facial
hemi-facial paralysis = _____ n.
facial n
lower facial weakness on the contralateral side assoc with ______ lesion
corticobulbar lesion
main parasympathetic output comes from ____
vagus
test CN IX and X via____
gag reflex
which CN is important for breathing control in high SCI
XI
if the L hypglossal n is damaged, which way will the tongue deviate?
L
which CNs are mixed?
V VII IX X
what m does the trochlear n innervate and so what actions does it cause
superior oblique
rotates eye medial and down
if the eye is deviated medially and horizontal gaze deficits are present, suspect what CN?
ABDUCENS
suspect what CN if the pt states trouble reading and looking downstairs?
trochlear n
where does explicit learning occur?
medial temporal lobes
4 examples of places where implicit learning occurs?
cerebellum, BG, SMA, PMA
3 stages of motor learning
cognitive, associative, autonomous
are nociceptors present in the brain?
no
are a-delta fibers myelinated?
yes--this is what makes them "fast"
are c fibers myelinated?
no-- this is what makes them "slow"
speed of axons--
1.LMN (1a and 1b)
2. a-beta
3. a delta
4. c
1. 60-80 m/s
2. 30-40m/s
3. 15 m/s
4. 1 m/s
definition: increased sensitivity to painful stimuli
hyperalgesia
definitions: reduced or absent sensitivity to painful stimuli
analgesia
definition: stimuli that would normally not be painful activated nociceptors or activated pain pathways when it should not
allodynia
activated nociceptors release substances into tissues that tend to increae sensitivity to nociception- aka a _____ feedback loop ; name (3)

which one is more local and which 2 mediate central pathways?
positive

histamine, glutamate, substance P

histamine
glutament & substance P
which irritant is released from mast cells d/t substance P?
histamine
as a LT consequence of cell breakdown, ______ degrades special extracellular proteins and ________degrades lipids
bradykinins

prostaglandins
what do ruptured cells release which leads to nociceptor activation in the first place?
K+ and ATP
how does substance P cause edema?
increases permeability of venuoles
substance P acts directly and indirectly?
yes

direct- increase sensitivity of nociceptors
indirect: makes mast cells release histamine and causes edema
is the pain system specific or non-specific?
non-specific
intense over-activation of any sensory receptor can feel like pain?
yes
counterirritant mechanism: mechanoreceptors synapse on interneurons that release __________ onto ______fibers to reduce transmission
enkephalin

Cfibers
main center for pain modulation?
PAG
where to inputs to the PAG come from?
ascending pathways, hypothalamus, limbic
output of the PAG tend to increase of inhibit pain transmission?
inhibit
nucleus raphe magnus releases _____ into the ______ to reduce pain transmission
serotonin into the SC
are opiate receptors located peripherally or centrally?
both
name 2 endogenous opiates (aka endorphins)
dynorphin
metenkephalin
5 Mechanisms of Chronic Pain (con't on next slide)
1. injured nn fire spontaneously and erratically
2. injured nn release irritants that activate unmyelinated nn (pain)
3. 2nd & 3rd order keep firing even tho 1st order isn't
1. ectopic foci
2. ephatic transmission
3. central sensitization
con't from previous slide

4. pathways adapt and alter such that pain is an inevitable part of the pathway
5. impaired ability for central structures to play their normal role
4. structural reorganization
5. altered top-down
4 ways to avoid chronic pain
1. prevent prolonged or intense pain
2. encourage normal sensorimotor behavior
3. holistic care
4. wean as quick as possible to let natural system take over!
medial reticulospinal tract motor outputs:
excites ipsilateral _____
and contralateral______
flexors
extensors
which tract do you utilize to make a deliberate shift of your head/eyes?
tectospinal

**coordination of gaze
which tract does your body utilize to make an automatic adjustment?
medial vestibulospinal
why do some corticospinal fibers terminate in the dorsal horn?
help with control of reflexes
are all corticospinal fibers generated in the primary motor cortex?
no!
also in PMA, SMA, CMA
which tract targets excitation of "anti-gravity" mm aka extensors?
lateral vestibulospinal
most corticospinal outputs are targeted on (2)
1. interneurons near motoneurons
2. motoneurons for distal control (monosynaptic corticomotoneuronal connections)
which layer of the cortex do corticospinal fibers originate?
layer 5
after leaving the pyramids, the corticospinal tract travels in the ______
lateral funniculus
motor learning requires 3 things
objective, practice, FB
best way to cue proximal mm?
visualize a task that would naturally engage the mm
pyramidal cell layers deal with_____

granule cell layers deal with ____
output

input
flow of visual information--

what is the function of the dorsal stream vs the ventral stream?
dorsal- where it is ; directly used in motor planning

ventral- what it is ; forms context that drives manipulation
where is area 4 and what is in it?
precentral gyrus - M1
describe the 2 parts of area 6 and their functions/where they are
SMA- medial superior frontal gyrus- internally guided

PM-lateral- externally guided
what does the cingulate motor area contribute?
motivational and emotional aspects
2 tracts that emanate from M1
corticospinal and corticobulbar
can intensive trng change location and amount of cortex from which movement of a given body part can be elicited by e-stim?
yes-this is called cortical plasticity
which lamina is the primary motor pool?
IX
when is M1 active?
during performance
are any M1 cells active during planning?
few
PM or SMA more active with mental rehearsal?
SMA
what structure and 2 areas is PMA assoc. strongly with?
cerebellum ; 5&7
PMA links _____ with______
anticipatory postural responses into skilled performance
is motor speech in PMA or SMA?
SMA
SMA is heavily involved in _______ coordination and interconnected with the ______
bimanual
BG
pre-SMA vs SMA?
selection and strategy vs plannin and performance
mental rehearsal activates ______ ONLY
SMA
6 cortical outputs
1. SC via corticospinal tracts
2. brainstem
3. BG
4. cerebellum via pontine nuclei
5. thalamus
6. other cortical areas
corticobulbar pathways connected with the inferior olivary nucleus are used for _______ and motor learning
error detection
which output area of the cortical efferents helps with...

selection and switching among motor patterns?
makes a copy of the intended plans and actions?
focuses attention on relevant inputs?
BG
cerebellum
thalamus
which area projects strongly to the SMA and weakly to the PMA?

which area projects strongly to the PMA and weakly to the SMA?
5 - internally guided (across body parts)

7- externally guided (extrapersonal space)
which areas are considered the "somatosensory cortex" ?
5-7
where are bodies of the dorsal horn located?
III-VI
where is the intermediate zone?
VII
where is the substantia gelatinosa? what is processed here?
II, pain
how many motor pools per mm?
1
where is the motor pool for the phrenic n?
lamina IX of C4
voluntary BB control in what nucleus?
onuf's nucleus
anterior spinal nerve arises from _____a and supplies ______
vertebral a.

ventral white matter and most of the grey matter
posterior a supplies what
dorsal columns and dorsal horns
ASIA A-
complete
ASIA B
sensory preserved, motor lost
ASIA C
motor preserved with more than 1/2 key mm with <3
ASIA D
motor preserved, at least half key mm below injury = 3 or better
ASIA E
sensory and motor = normal
low cervical injury =
C7, C8, T1
upper cervical injury =
C5, C6
HIGH cervical injury (ventilator dependent)
C1,C2,C3,C4
term for when stimulation of visceral afferents provoke excessive activation of the SNS
autonomic dysreflexia
SCI may be unable to sweat where?
below lesion
durings CPGs, presynaptic inhibition occurs @ ______
synaptic terminals of 1a synapses themselves
locomotion results from tonic stimulation of this site in the midbrain
mesencepahlic region
can locomotor training help ameliorate allodynia in SCI patients?
yes
is ACh inhibitory or excitatory in the BG?
inhibitory
habituation occurs via ____
LTD
2 mechanisms for changing synaptic strength
LTP and LTD
when some corticospinal function is spared, the body can learn to adjust the size of stretch reflexes through_____ paradigm
operant conditioning
ballet dancers have small ______
H-reflexes
what cells are depressed by alcohol and result in global ataxia?
purkinje cells
what structure in the brain is assoc with short term memory?
hippocampus
is conduction velocity normal or impaired in demyelinating diseases?
impaired
if corticospinal origins are damaged, what other tracts can assist with functional recovery?
reticulospinal via PMRF projections and rubrospinal via red nucleus projections
deifnition: when a nucleus loses a normal source of input and becomes more sensitive to other inputs
denervation hypersensitivity
collateral sprouting occurs when a ______ neuron dies
presynaptic
regenerative sprouting occurs when a ____neuron dies
post-synaptic
BG helps the ______

cerebellum helps the ______
cortex

entire motor system
BG regulates the "___" of cortical output

Cb is the ____ of cortical output
gain

comparator
where is the pars compacta? what does it produce?
substantia nigra

dopamine
is there any direct input to BG from the periphery?
no
main excitatory input to BG is from _____ and major output is to ______
cerebral cortex
modify pyramidal cells of the cortex
striatum= ____+______
caudate + putamen
where is the substantia nigra located?
midbrain
BG primary input nucleus is the _____

BG primary output nucleus is the _____
striatum

GPi
3 places the BG outputs go:
superior colliculus, layer 5 of the cortex, PPN (think reticular formation)
the pars reticulata is connected with the _______ to control ______
superior colliculus to control eye movement
only excitatory BG nucleus?
STN
what does the STN excite?
GPe
does dopamine presence help maintain normal oscillatory motion or abnormal synchronized motion?
normal oscillatory motion
GABA is inhibitory by______ the cell
hyperpolarizing the cell via (-) influx d/t opening Cl- channels
in HD, the inhibitory action of _____ is blocked
ACh
D1 =

D2 =
excitatory

inhibitory
net effect of the direct loop (D1)
facilitation
net effect of the indirect loop (D2)
inhibition
net effect of the direct loop + DA
facilitation
net effect of the indirect loop + DA
facilitation
which loop in indicated early in HD
indirect loop
direct loop releases (3)
GABA + substance P + dynorphin
indirect loop releases (2)
GABA + enkephalin
balance between ________ (indirect loop + DA) and ________ (indirect loop without DA) is necessary for BG function
thalamic disinhibition

subthalamic disinhibition
vestibulocerebellum in is involved with the _____reflex
VOR
spinocerebellum is in the ___ and ____
vermis and paravermis
nucleus of vermis _______

to _____descending systems for ______
fastigial nucleus

medial for motor execution
paravermis nucleus is ______

to _____systems for ____
interposed (globose and emboliform)

lateral ; motor execution
cerebrocerebellum in _____

nucleus?

to ___ and ____ for ____
lateral hemispheres

dentate nucleus

motor and premotor for motor planning
vestibulocerebellum is in the _______ to _____ nuclei for _____
flocculonodular to vestibular nuclei for balance and eye movements
which tract from Cb associated with efference copy
spinocerebellum
laterality of tracts in Cb?
mostly ipsilateral except the vestibulospinal has some B
Cb cortex processing modulates what?
output of DCN
each purkinje cell has one _______
climbing fiber
climbing fibers arise from the ______ and carry info about ____/_____
inferior olive
errors/timing
what kind of fibers allow for coordination of elements of control?
ex: speed of ball and speed of raquet
parallel fibers
output of climbing fibers?
complex spikes (contribute to LTD)
common cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage?
aneurysm