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137 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Mineral deficiency characterized by alopecia, dermatitis, diarrhea
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zinc
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1g of alcohol equals how many kcal?
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7kcal
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Erlenmeyer flask shaped lesions in the long bones suggest what storage disorder
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Gaucher's disease
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enzyme deficiency in porphyria cutanea tarda
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uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase
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characterized by recurrent abdominal pain, photosensitivity, blistering of the skin in sunlight, and bizarre behavior
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porphyria cutanea tarda
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the MOST common porphyria
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cutanea tarda
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amenorrhea in Anorexia Nervosa is caused by what
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decreased LH
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symptoms of opioid toxicity
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lethargy, obtundation, respiratory depression, pinpoint pupils
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symtpoms of ethanol withdrawal
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tachycardia, diaphoresis, agitation, confusion, disorientation
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endogenous enzyme used to detoxify acetaminophen metabolites
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glutathione
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symptoms include proptosis, swellingof the eyeball, black discoloration of the nasal turbinates, anterior displacement of the eye, filling of the maxillary and ethmoid sinuses; increased risk of occuring in diabetics
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rhinocerebral mucormycosis (nonseptate hyphae)
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typical cause of AIDS lymphoma
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epstein-barr virus
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disease characterized by abnormal platelet adhesion
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von Willebrand disease
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clotting factor decreased in von Willebrand disease
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VIII
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dementia most common in boxers or football players (due to head trauma)
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dementia pugilistica
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Broadmann's areas for Broca's and Wernicke's areas
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44 (Broca's) and 22 (Wernicke's)
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disease characterized by lack of fluency, lack of comprehension, and impaired repetitive speech
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Global aphasia
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characterized by agraphia, acalculia, R-L disorientation, and finger agnosia
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Gerstmann's syndrome
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location of lesion causing Gerstmann's syndrome
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dominant (L) inferior parietal lobule
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MOST common side of hemineglect
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L
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characterized by simultanagnosia, optic taxia, ocular ataxia; caused by bilateral lesions of the dorsolateral parieto-occipital association cortex
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Balint's syndrome
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DOC for ADHD
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methylphenidate
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Form of vascular dementia characterized by diffuse subcortical infarcts associated with chronic HTN cause this form of dementia
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Binswanger's disease
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neurotransmitter(s) affected in Alzheimer's
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Ach
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3 types of vascular dementia
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multi-infarct dementia, Binswanger's disease, cerebral amyloid angiopathy
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treatment of Alzheimer's disease includes these drugs
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rivastigmine, galantamine, donepezil, tacrine
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class of drugs used to treat Alzheimer's disease
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acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (AChE inhibitors)
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anti-muscarinic used in Parkinsons
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benzotropine
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anti-muscarinic used in motion sickness
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scopolamine
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pralidoxime is used to treat what overdose
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organophosphates
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anti-muscarinic used to cause mydriasis and cycloplegia
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cyclopentolate
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2 key structures of the medial temporal lobe
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hippocampal formation and parahippocampal gyrus
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function of medial temporal lobe and medial diencephalic areas
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memory
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cortex of the parahippocampal gyrus which functions in smell and memory; its the main input to the hippocampal formation
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entorhinal cortex
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the perforant pathway of the hippocampal formation, granules cells, mossy fibers of CA3, and Schaffer collateral CA1 connections are all needed for what process
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LTP
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3 major nuclei of the amygdala
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corticomedial, basolateral, and central nuclei
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prevalence of epilepsy in the general population
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1%
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risk of having a single seizure in one's life
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10-15%
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what the difference between clonic and tonic movements
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clonic involves rhythmic jerky movements, and tonic involves sustained (isometric) contractions
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treatment of atypical depression (increased sleep)
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MAOIs
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DOC for OCD
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clomipramine
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anti-seizure drugs that block voltage-gated sodium channels
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phenytoin, carbamazepine, lamotrigine (Na+ and Ca++), zonisamide
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both phenobarbital and benzodiazepines (that are used as anti-epileptics) have a MOA as a GABA agonist... but how do their MOAs differ?
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benzodiazepines increases the FREQUENCY of Cl- channel opening, and phenobarbital increases the DURATION of Cl- channel opening
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anti-seizure drugs that block voltage-gated calcium channels
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ethosuximide, gabapentin, lamotrigine (Na+ and Ca++)
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anti-seizure drug that acts by opening K+ channels
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valproic acid
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DOC for tonic-clonic (grand mal) seizures
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valproic acid, carbamazepine, phenytoin, lamotrigine, topiramate
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DOC for partial seizures
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carbamazepine, lamotrigine, phenytoin
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DOC for absence seizures
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clonazepam, ethosuximide, valproic acid
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DOC for myoclonic seizures
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valproic acid
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DOC for status epilepticus
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diazepam and lorazepam (short term), or phenytoin (long term)
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DOC for status epilepticus in children
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phenobarbital
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class of drugs used when normal measures to treat status epilepticus fail
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general anesthetics
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DOC for trigeminal neuralgia
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carbamazepine
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anti-seizure drugs used in bipolar disorder
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valproic acid, carbamazepine, lamotrigine
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anti-seizure drug that can be used to help treat migraines
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phenytoin and topiramate
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anti-seizure drug that can treat pain of neuropathic origin
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gabapentin
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SE to the fetus when a pregnant mother takes anti-seizure medication
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neural tube defects, craniofacial anomalies, and fetal hydantoin
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life-threatening SEs that lamotrigine and carbamazepine both share
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steven-johnson syndrome and toxic epidermal necrolysis
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embryogenesis gene in the zone of polarizing activity that patterns along the AP axis
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sonic hedgehog
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embryogenesis gene produced at the apical ectodermal ridge that organizes along the dorsal-ventral axis
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Wnt-7
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embryogenesis gene produced at the apical ectodermal ridge that stimulates mitosis
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FGF
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embryogenesis gene involved in segmental organization of the embryo in a craniocaudal direction
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homeobox
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what week does the bilaminar disk form
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week 2
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2 layers that make up the bilaminar disk
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epiblast and hypoblast
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what week does gastrulation, primitive streak formation, notochord development, and neural plate formation occur
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week 3
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when does the neural tube close
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week 4
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when does the heart begin to beat
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around day 21 (week 4 according to first aid)
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when do limb buds form
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week 4
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when can you differentiate between male and female in the fetus
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week 10
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what plate control sensory development
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alar plate (dorsal)
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what plate controls motor development
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basal plate (ventral)
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what does the notochord become in the adult
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nucleus propolsus
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the adenohypophysis (Rathke's pouch), lens of the eye, lining of the oral cavity, sensory organs of the ear, olfactory epithelium, epidermis, and the glands form from what part of the ectoderm
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surface ectoderm
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the brain, retina, and spinal cord for from what part of the ectoderm
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neuroectoderm
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the dorsal root ganglia, cranial nerves, melanocytes, chromaffin cells, C cells, Schwann cells, meninges, skull bones form from what part of the ectoderm
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neural crest
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when is a fetus MOST susceptible to teratogens in the mother
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organogenesis period (weeks 3-8)
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what teratogen is the leading cause of birth defects and mental retardation in the fetus
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alcohol
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teratogen causing CN VIII toxicity
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aminoglycosides
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teratogen causing placental abruption
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cocaine
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teratogen causing clear cell adenocarcinoma
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DES
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teratogen causing Ebstein's anomaly
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lithium
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teratogen that is the most common cause of preterm labor and IUGR
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smoking
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teratogen associated with discolored teeth in the fetus
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tetracyclines
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teratogen (overdose) leading to an EXTREMELY high risk of spontaneous abortion
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vitamin A toxicity
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teratogen that increases risk of neural tube defects even in mothers taking adequate folate
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valproate
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characterized by retardation, microcephaly, holoprosencephaly, marked facies ("seal face"), limb discoloration, and heart/lung fistulas
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fetal alcohol syndrome
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type of twin that shares 1 placenta, 1 chorion, but has its own amniotic sac
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monozygotic (maternal) twins
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type of twin who fetus each has its own placenta, own chorion, and own amniotic sac
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dizygotic (paternal) twins
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type of twin where both fetuses share a placenta, chorion, and amniotic sac
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conjoined twin
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cells that secrete hCG
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syncytiotrophoblasts
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maternal component of the placenta
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decidua basalis
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where are the umbilical arteries/veins derived from
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allantois
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embryonic structure that gives rise to the ascending aorta and pulmonary trunk
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truncus arteriosus
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R common cardinal vein and R anterior cardinal vein come together to form what vessel in the newborn
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SVC
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characterized by a membranous septal defect causing initial L->R shunting which then later becomes R->L after the development of pulmonary HTN
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Eisenmenger's syndrome
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site of erythropoiesis in the embryo during weeks 3-8
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yolk sac
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site of erythropoiesis in the embryo during weeks 8-30
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liver and spleen
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site of erythropoiesis in the embryo during from weeks 28 and onward
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bone marrow
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blood entering the fetus passes through what vessel into the IVC in order to bypass hepatic circulation
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ductus venosus
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endogenous hormone whose decrease causes natural closure of the ductus arteriosus after birth
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prostaglandins
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thalami are derived from what primitive part of the brain
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diencephalon
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cerebral hemispheres are derived from what primitive part of the brain
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telencephalon
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the medulla is derived from what primitive part of the brain
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myelencephalon
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the pons and cerebellum are derived from what primitive part of the brain
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metencephalon
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neural tube defects are suggested by an increase in what hormone
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AFP
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usually the only physical sign suggesting spina bifida occulta
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a patch of hair over the lesion
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characterized by cape-like bilateral loss of pain and temperature sensation in the upper extremities with preservation of touch
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syringomyelia
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genetic disorder caused by failure of the 1st arch of the neural crest to migrate; characterized by mandibular hypoplasia and facial abnormalities
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treacher collins
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CN responsible for sensation on the ant. 2/3 of the tongue
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CN V3
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CN responsible for taste on the ant. 2/3 of the tongue
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CN VII
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CN responsible for taste on the post. 1/3 of the tongue
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CN IX
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CN responsible for sensation of the post. 1/3 of the tongue
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CN IX
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normal adult remnant of the thyroglossal duct
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foramen cecum
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caused by failed fusion between the maxillary and medial nasal processes
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cleft lip
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caused by failed fusion between the lateral palantine process, nasal septum, and median palatine process
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cleft palate
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during the 10th week of embryogenesis, the midgut rotates around what vessel
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SMA
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characterized by extrusion of abdominal contents through abdominal folds not covered by peritoneum
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gastroschisis
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characterized by the herniation of abdominal contents into the umbilical cord which is covered by peritoneum
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omphalocele
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characterized by cyanosis, choking and vomiting upon feeding, air bubble in the stomach on xray, polyhydramnios, pneumonitis, and the inability to pass a nasogastric tube into the stomach
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tracheoesophageal fistula
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congenital GI defect noted for usually only occuring in first-born males
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congenital pyloric stenosis
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caused by the failure of fusion of the ventral and dorsal parts of the pancreas by week 8
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pancreas divisum
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functions of the fetal kidney for the 1st trimester and then goes on to contribute to the male genital system
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mesonephros
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gives rise to the ureter, renal pelvis, calyces, and collecting ducts
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ureteric bud
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MOST common site of obstruction in the fetus (leads to hydronephrosis)
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ureteropelvic junction (UPJ)
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characterized by bilateral renal agenesis, oligohydramnios, limb deformities, facial deformities, and pulmonary hypoplasia
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Potter's syndrome
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cause of Potter's syndrome
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malformation of the ureteric bud
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characterized by fusion of the inferior poles of the kidney
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horseshoe kidney
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horseshoe kidney commonly become trapped under what vessel
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IMA
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paramesonephric ducts give rise to what gender development
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female
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the duct in which all male internal genital structures (other than the prostate) develop from
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mesonephric (wolffian) duct
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characterized by urinary tract abnormalities and infertility; caused by incomplete fusion of the paramesonephric ducts
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bicornuate uterus
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labia majora are homologous to what male structure
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scrotum
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the prostate gland is homologous to what female structure
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paraurethral (skene's) glands
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bulbourethral glands in the male are homologous to what female structure
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Bartholin (greater vestibular) glands
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difference between hypospadias and epispadias
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in hypospadias, the urethra opens on the ventral side of the penis; in epispadias, the urethra opens on the dorsal side of the penis
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female remnants of the gubernaculum
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ovarian ligament and round ligament (of the uterus)
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processus vaginalis is obliterated in what gender
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females (becomes the tunica vaginalis in males)
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