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274 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
derivative of L umbilical vein
Ligmentum teres (falciform lig.)
3 structures contained in the hepatoduodenal lig.
hepatic artery
portal vein
common bile duct
which ligament contains the short gastric arteries
gastrosplenic lig.
which ligament contains the gastroepiploic arteries
gastrocolic lig.
which ligament contains the gastric arteries
gastrohepatic lig.
which layer of the gut wall contains Meissner's plexus
submucosa
function of Meissner's plexus
secretions
which layer of the gut wall contains Auerbach's myenteric plexus
muscularis externa
function of Meissner's plexus
motility of gut
what epithelium makes up the esophagus
nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium
mucosal features that help increase absorptive surface area of the intestines
villi and microvilli
location of Peyer's patches
ileum
portion of the intestines with the most goblet cells
jejunum
portion of the GI tract that has crypts but NO villi
colon
muscles distribution found in the upper/middle/lower third of the esophagus
upper 1/3: striated
middle 1/3: mixed striated/smooth
lower 1/3: smooth
vertebral level of celiac trunk
T12
vertebral level of SMA
L1
vertebral level of renal arteries
L1/L2
vertebral level of gonadal arteries
L2
vertebral level of IMA
L3
vertebral level of bifurcation of abdominal aorta
L4
vertebral level of root of IVC
L5
parasympathetic innervation to foregut structures
vagus nerve
sympathetic innervation to foregut structures
celiac ganglion, greater splanchnic
parasympathetic innervation to midgut structures
vagus nerve
sympathetic innervation to midgut structures
SMA ganglion, lesser splanchnic
parasympathetic innervation to hindgut structures
pelvic splanchnics
sympathetic innervation to hindgut structures
IMA ganglion, least splanchnic
anatomical transition area from foregut to midgut
ampulla vater (1st/2nd portion of duodenum)
anatomical transition area from midgut to hindgut
splenic flecture (transverse colon)
3 branches of celiac trunk
common hepatic
L gastric
splenic
blood supply to lesser curvature
L and R gastrics
blood supply to greater curvature
L and R gastroepiploics
3 branches of common hepatic artery
gastroduodenal
R gastric
hepatic proper
anastomoses between celiac and SMA
pancreaticoduodenal arteries
main artery to body of stomach
splenic
origin of short gastric arteries
splenic artery
main artery to antrum of stomach
gastroduodenal
origin of cystic artery
R hepatic
origin of R and L hepatic arteries
hepatic proper artery
anastomoses between SMA and IMA
middle and left colic arteries
3 sites of portocaval anastomoses
L gastric vein <-> esophageal veins
paraumbilical veins <-> epigastric veins
superior rectal vein <-> middle/inferior rectal vein
anastomoses affected in esophageal varices
L gastric vein <-> esophageal veins
anastomoses affected in caput medusa
paraumbilical veins <-> epigastric veins
anastomoses affected in internal hemorrhoids
superior rectal veins <-> middle/inferior rectal veins
anatomical line that separates internal/external hemorrhoids
pectinate line
cancer common above the pectinate line
adenocarcinoma
cancer common below the pectinate line
squamous cell carcinoma
which hemorrhoids are painful
external hemorrhoids
what forms the common bile duct
cystic and common hepatic ducts
2 ducts that combine to drain into the ampulla vater
common bile and pancreatic duct
orientation of vessels in the femoral region going lateral to medial
Nerve
Artery
Vein
Lymphatics

("NAVeL")
what forms the superficial inguinal ring
aponeurosis of external oblique
what forms the deep inguinal ring
transversalis fascia
what forms the floor of the inguinal canal
inguinal ligament
bony attachments of inguinal ligament
ASIS to pubic tubercle
what forms the conjoint tendon
internal oblique and transversus abdominus
abdominal layer continuous with the cremasteric fascia
internal oblique
abdominal layer continuous with the external spermatic fascia
external oblique
abdominal layer continuous with the internal spermatic fascia
transversalis fascia
what lies between protrusion sites for indirect vs. direct hernias
inferior epigastric vessels
what hernias enter the deep inguinal ring
indirect
MOST common type of hernia overall
indirect
hernia more common in women than men
femoral hernia
most common side of indirect hernia
right
what hernias protrude through Hesselbach's triangle
direct
boundaries of Hesselbach's triangle
inguinal ligament
rectus abdominus
inferior epigastric vessels
boundaries of femoral triangle
inguinal ligament
sartorius
adductor longus
difference between sliding and paraesophageal hernias
sliding: gastroesophageal junction is displaced; "hourglass stomach" on xray

paraesophageal: GE junction is norma; cardia herniates into thorax
which hernia protrudes into the scrotum
indirect
fluid fills up in the precessus vaginalis
hydrocele
how do the protrusions on indirect vs. direct hernias relate to the location of inferior epigastric arteries
direct hernias: protrude MEDIAL to inferior epigastric arteries

indirect hernias: protrude LATERAL to inferior epigastric arteries

("MDs dont LIe")
which hernia causes bowel incarceration
femoral hernia
which hernia protrudes below the inguinal ligament
femoral
what cells and where in the stomach is gastrin secreted
secreted by G cells in the antrum
what cells and where is CCK secreted
secreted by I cells in the duodenum and jejunum
what cells and where is secretin secreted
secreted by S cells in the duodenum
what cells and where is somatostatin secreted in the GI tract
secreted by D cells in the GI mucosa

(*also secreted by D cells in the pancreas)
what cells and where is GIP secreted
secreted K cells in the duodenum and jejunum
hormone secreted in Zollinger Ellison syndrome
gastrin
functions of CCK
increase pancreatic secretions
increase gallbladder contractions
decrease gastric emptying
relaxes sphincter of oddi
functions of secretin
increase pancreatic HCO3 secretion
decrease gastric acid secretion
increase bile secretion
functions of gastrin
increase gastric H+ secretion
increase gastric motility
functions of GIP
decrease gastric H+ secretion
increase insulin release
functions of VIP
increase intestinal water/electrolyte secretions
relaxation of intestinal GI tract
loss of nitric oxide secretion causing increased lower esophageal tone
achalasia
what cells secrete instrinsic factor
parietal cells
function of instrinsic factor
binds B12 to promote absorption in ileum
autoimmue destruction of parietal cells in what condition
chronic gastritis
what cells secrete gastric acid
parietal cells
what hormones increase the release gastric acid
histamine, ACh, and gastrin
what cells secrete pepsin
chief cells
function of pepsin
protein digestion
which saliva secretion are completely serous
parotid secretions
which saliva secretion are completely mucinous
submandibular/sublingual
digestive hormone in saliva
alpha-amylase (ptyalin)
function of ptyalin
starch digestion in mouth
during normal saliva secretion rates, is the saliva hypotonic, isotonic, or hypertonic
hypotonic
during period of excessive saliva secretion, is the saliva hypotonic, isotonic, or hypertonic
isotonic (not enough time for adequate NaCl reabsorption)
gastrin activates which cells to release histamine which ultimately will increase gastric acid release
enterochromaffin-like cells (ECL cells)
special glands in duodenum that secrete alkaline mucus
Brunner's glands
enzyme that activates trypsinogen
enterokinase
glucose and galactose are taken up in the intestine by what transporters
SGLT1
fructose is taken up in the intestine by what transporters
GLUT-5
where is iron absorbed
duodenum
where is folate absorbed
jejunum
where is B12 absorbed
ileum
2 things required for B12 absorption
intrinsic factor (from parietal cells in stomach)
R factor (from salivary secretions via parotid gland)
special M cells in the Peyer's patches helps form plasma cells made of what immunoglobulin
IgA
main functions of bile
digestion of triglycerides and excretion of cholesterol
where is bile made and where is it stored
made in gallbladder and stored in liver
which bilirubin is water soluble
direct
where is bilirubin conjugated
liver
in what form is bilirubin excreted in the urine
excreted as urobilin
how is bilirubin formed
lysis of RBCs and breakdown of heme
in what form is bilirubin excreted in the feces
stercobilin
in what form does bilirubin exist in the gut
urobilinogen
enzyme that conjugates bilirubin
glucuronyl transferase
MOST common cause of high blood levels of indirect bilirubin
hemolysis
achalasia is characterized by damage to which plexus
Auerbach's myenteric plexus
"bird's beak" on barium swallow
achalasia
secondary achalasia is linked to what infection
Chagas disease
autoimmune syndrome linked to achalasia
scleroderma (CREST)
patient presents complaining of sternal pain that doesn't radiate to the back or exremities; pain is worse when lying down; he suffers from nocturnal cough and dyspnea; antacids temporarily relieve his symptoms
GERD
DOC for esophageal varices
octreotide
which class of drugs can cause corrosive esophagitis
bisphosponates
mucosal lacerations at the GE junction secondary to vomiting in alcoholics and bulimics
Mallory-Weiss syndrome
transmural esophageal rupture due to violent retching
Boerhaave syndrome
clinical triad of Plummer-Vinson syndrome
dysphagia
glossitis
iron deficiency anemia
glandular metaplasia in the esophagus
Barrett's esophagus
risk factors for Barrett's esophagus
GERD and smoking
major complication of Barrett's esophagus
increases risk for esophageal cancer
MOST common esophageal cancer in the US
adenocarcinoma (lower 1/3)
MOST common esophageal cancer worldwide
squamous cell carcinoma (upper and middle 1/3)
patient presents with acute onset of diarrhea; it's noted that the stool floats in the water; patient also has general weakness and some weight loss; labs reveal PAS-positive macrophages in the intestinal mucosa
Whipple's disease
DOC for Whipple's disease
penicillin (tetracycline if allergic)
autoantibodies against gliadin and endomysium
celiac disease (celiac sprue)
treatment for celiac disease
remove gluten from diet
child presents with chronic, fatty diarrhea with weakness, weight loss, and a chronic mucus-producing cough; serology is negative; no enzyme deficiencies are found; no organisms are found; what's the most likely cause
chronic pancreatitis secondary to cystic fibrosis
dermatitis herpetiformis is linked to what condition
celiac disease
celiac disease is linked to what cancer
T-cell lymphoma
2 pathologic ulcers seen in acute gastritis
Curling's ulcer: sloughing off of mucosa secondary to burns

Cushin's ulcer: secondary to brain injury
causes of acute gastritis
stress
NSAIDs
alcohol
uremia
burns
brain injury
main cause of chronic gastritis
H. pylori
autoantibodies against parietal cells of the stomach
autoimmune chronic gastritis
2 unique symptoms to differentiate autoimmune chronic gastritis from H. pylori gastritis
autoimmune gastritis will have pernicious anemia and achlorhydria

(*parietal cells are unable to secrete intrinsic factor or gastric acid anymore)
cancer associated with H. pylori
MALT lymphoma
disease characterized by gastric hypertrophy with protein loss, parietal cell atrophy, and increased mucous cells; the rugae of the stomach are hypertrophied and appear as brain gyri
Menetrier's disease
MOST common type of stomach cancer
adenocarcinoma
foods containing what are linked to stomach cancer
nitrosamines (smoked meats)
morphologic cell in stomach cancers
signet ring cells
unique stomach cancer that metastasizes to ovaries
Krunkenberg's tumor
nodule that's palpable when stomach cancer metastasizes to umbilical region
Sister Mary Joseph's nodule
nodule that's palpable when stomach cancer metastasizes to thorax
Virchow's node (L supraclavicular node)
in which ulcer does the pain INCREASE after meals
gastric ulcers

(*pain decreases after meals in duodenal ulcers)
which ulcers are associated with weight gain
duodenal ulcers

(*gastric ulcers are linked to weight loss)
is PUD precancerous
NO
Is Crohn's or UC associated with skip lesions and rectal sparing
Crohn's
Is Crohn's or UC associated with transmural inflammation
Crohn's
Is Crohn's or UC associated with "string sign" on barium swallow
Crohn's
Is Crohn's or UC associated with linear ulcers, fissures, and fistulas
Crohn's
Is Crohn's or UC associated with noncaseating granulomas
Crohn's
Is Crohn's or UC associated with migratory polyarthritis, erythema nodosum, ankylosing spondylitis, uveitis
Crohn's
Is Crohn's or UC treated with corticosteroids
Crohn's
Is Crohn's or UC associated with creeping fat
Crohn's
Is Crohn's or UC associated with rectal involvement
UC
Is Crohn's or UC associated with pseudopolyps
UC
Is Crohn's or UC associated with "lead pipe" appearance on imaging
UC
Is Crohn's or UC associated with crypt abscesses without granulomas
UC
Is Crohn's or UC associated with toxic megacolon
UC
Is Crohn's or UC associated with always bloody diarrhea
UC
Is Crohn's or UC associated with pyoderma gangrenosum and primary sclerosing cholangitis
UC
Is Crohn's or UC treated with sulfasalazine
UC
initial pain of appendicitis
periumbilical
where is McBurney's point
1/3 the distance from iliac crest to umbilicus
CE tests to check for appendicitis
rebound tenderness
Rosving's sign
Psoas test
Obturator test
CE test to check for cholecystitis
Murphys sign
4 main risk factors for cholecystitis
Female
Forty years old
Fat
Fertile (premenopause)
MOST common location for diverticulitis pain
LLQ
single blind pouch protruding from the GI tract and communicates with lumen of gut; MOST common in sigmoid colon
diverticulum
characterized by many diverticula secondary to low-fiber diets usually in the sigmoid colon
diverticulosis
known as "left-sided appendicitis"
diverticulitis (sigmoid colon)
a "false" diverticulum at the junction of pharynx and esophagus
Zenker's diverticulum
a "true" diverticulum usually occuring near the ileocecal valve
Meckel's diverticulum
persistence of the vitelline duct or yolk stalk
Meckel's diverticulum
what are the five "2's" of Meckel's diverticulum
2 inches long
2 feet from the IC valve
2% of the population (MOST common congenital anomaly of GI tract)
2 years old
2 different epithelial types (gastric and pancreatic)
age group associated with intussusception and volvulus
children: intussusception
adults: volvulus
2 common location of a volvulus
cecum and sigmoid colon
virus linked to intussusecption
adenovirus
Hirschsprung's disease is linked to damage to what plexus
lack of BOTH Auerbach's myenteric AND Meissner's plexuses
embryologic cause of Hirschsprung's disease
failure of neural crest cells to migrate
increased risk for Hirschsprung's in what genetic disease
Down syndrome
newborn starts vomiting soon after birth; "double-bubble" sign is seen on imaging
Duodenal atresia
failure to pass meconium without vomiting in newborn is suggestive of what
Hirschsprungs
meconium ileus is associated with what disease
cystic fibrosis
MOST common site of ischemic colitis
splenic flexure
tortuous dilation of vessels near IC valve or ascending colon
angiodysplasia
which polyps are usually malignant
villous polyps
MOST common GI polyp
hyperplastic
child presents for a routine physical; during the PE, it's noted that the child has spots of hyperpigmentation in his mouth, and on his hands, lips, and genitalia; his mother says this same condition is seen in his father and paternal grandmother; based on the presumptive diagnosis, how will the GI tract be involved in this disease
nonmalignant hamartomas throughout the GI tract

(*Peutz-Jeghers syndrome)
gene and chromosome linked to Familial Adenomatous Polyposis (FAP)
APC gene on chromosome 5q
syndrome characterized by retinal hyperplasia and soft tissue tumors combined with FAP
Gardner's syndrome
syndrome characterized by FAP along with malignant CNS tumors
Turcot's syndrome
autosomal dominant mutation of DNA mismatch repair genes
hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer (HNPCC)

(aka Lynch syndrome)
"apple-core" lesions seen on barium enema along with CEA marker
colorectal cancer
MOST common tumor of the appendix
carcinoid tumor
hormone secreted by carcinoid tumors
serotonin
metabolite found in urine in someone with carcinoid tumor
5-HIAA
symptoms of cirrhosis/portal HTN
esophageal varices
hematemesis
PUD
melena
hepatosplenomegaly
caput medusa
ascites
hemorrhoids
scleral icterus
systemic jaundice
fetor hepaticus
spider nevi
gynecomastia
testicular atrophy
asterixis
increased bleeding
anemia
ankle edema
serum marker to check for alcohol use
GGT
serum enzymes increased in pancreatitis
amylase and lipase
ALT > AST suggests what
viral hepatitis
AST > ALT suggests what
alcoholic hepatitis
marker suggestive of bile duct disease/obstruction
alkaline phosphatase
fatal childhood hepatoencephalopathy
Reye's syndrome
2 viruses linked to Reye's syndrome
VZV and influenza B
drug linked to Reye's syndrome
aspirin
morphologic feature of alcoholic hepatitis
Mallory bodies
tumor marker of hepatocellular carcinoma
increased AFP
risk factors for hepatocellular carcinoma
hepatitis B/C
Wilson's disease
Hemochromatosis
alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency
alcoholic cirrhosis
carcinogens (aflatoxins)
condition characterized by thromboembolisms occluding the hepatic veins
Budd-Chiari syndrome
explain physiologic jaundice in the newborn
at birth, the newborn is deficient in UDP-glucuronyl transferase so bilirubin cant be conjugated and excreted thus it builds up in the infant
complication of prolonged physiologic jaundice in the newborn
kernicterus
a college student has noticed a yellowing of his skins before big tests throughout his first 2 years of school; it goes away soon after the test passes so he had never had medical attention for this; what underlying condition is most likely
Gilbert's syndrome
form of hyperbilirubinemia characterized by decreased bilirubin uptake
Gilbert's syndrome
form of hyperbiliribuinemia characterized by mildly decreased UDP-glucuronyl transferase
Gilbert's syndrome
child is noted to have physiologic jaundice for a month after birth; he begins to develop symptoms of kernicterus; phototherapy has no effect on his condition; doctors inform the parents there is no treatment for this condition and the child dies within the next year
Crigler-Najjar syndrome
hyperbilirubinemia characterized by completely absent UDP-glucuronyl transferase
Crigler-Najjar syndrome
Of the 3 hereditary hyperbilirubinemias (Gilbert's, Crigler-Najjar, and Dubin-Johnson), which ones are direct and which ones are indirect
direct hyperbilirubinemias: Dubin-Johnson

indirect hyperbilirubinemias: Gilbert's and Crigler-Najjar
disease characterized by inadequate hepatic excretion of copper
Wilson's disease
5 areas of the body where copper accumulates in Wilson's disease
liver, brain, cornea, kidneys, joints
symptoms of Wilson's disease
asterixis
parkinsonisms
kayser-fleischer rings
choreiform movements
dementia
hemolytic anemia
DOC for Wilson disease
penicillamine
labs reveal decreased ceruloplasmin
Wilson's disease
mode of inheritance of Wilson's disease
autosomal recessive
clinical triad of hemochromatosis
cirrhosis
diabetes
skin pigmentation
unique symptom of hemorchromatosis seen only in men
erectile dysfunction
DOC for hemochromatosis
deforoxamine
HLA allele associated with hemochromatosis
HLA-A3
lab values in hemochromatosis
increased ferritin
increased iron
increased transferrin saturation
decreased TIBC
mode of inheritance of hereditary hemochromatosis
autosomal recessive
"onions-skinning" fibrosis of the bile ducts
Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis
bile duct shows alternating strictures and dilations with "beading" of both intra and extrahepatic bile ducts
Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis
antimitochondrial antibodies
primary biliary cirrhosis
ascending cholangitis usually occurs along with what other biliary tract disease
secondary biliary cirrhosis
2 types of gallstones
cholesterol stones and pigment stones
which gallstone is linked to hemolysis
pigment stones
which gallstone is linked to CF, Crohn's disease, obesity, and estrogen therapy
cholesterol stones
which gallstones appear radiolucent? what about radiopaque?
cholesterol stones- radiolucent
pigment stones- radiopaque
pathogenesis of acute pancreatitis
autodigestion of the pancreas by pancreatic enzymes
3 common causes of acute pancreatitis
gallstones
ethanol
autoimmune
MOST common part of the pancreas to develop cancer
the head of the pancreas
tumor marker unique for pancreatic cancer
CA-19-9
patient presents complaining of abdominal pain that radiates to the back; he has lost 10 lbs in the last 6 months; PE reveals redness and tenderness on palpation of extremities, jaundice, and a palpable gallbladder
pancreatic cancer
which cancer has the highest fatality rate
pancreatic (99% fatality rate)
is pancreatic cancer linked to alcohol? what about smoking?
pancreatic cancer is NOT linked to alcohol but is linked to smoking
RUQ pain radiating to the R shoulder; pain is worse on inspiration
acute cholecystitis
MOA of cimetidine
H2 blocker
H2 blocker that is a potent inhibitor of P-450
cimetidine
MOA of omeprazole and lansoprazole
irreversibly inhibits H+/K+ ATPase in the parietal cells of the stomach (PPI)
DOC for traveler's diarrhea
bismuth
DOC for healing ulcers
sucralfate
1st line therapy for H. pylori infection
Omerazole + Amoxicillin + Clarithromycin
alternative treatment for H. pylori infection or if patient is resistant to 1st line therapy
Omeprazole + Bismuth + Levofloxacin + Metronidazole
DOC for prevention of NSAID-induced ulcers
Misoprostol (PGE1 analog)
off-label uses of Misoprostol
induce labor and maintain a patent DA
these 2 drugs block M1 receptors on ECL cells (decreasing histamine secretion) and M3 receptors on parietal cells (decreasing H+ secretion)
Pirenzepine and Propantheline
most common SE of aluminum hydroxide
constipation
most common SE of magnesium hydroxide
diarrhea
active ingredient in TUMS
calcium carbonate
anti-emetic used during chemo
ondansetron
DOC for diabetic and post-surgical gastroparesis
Metoclopramide
MOA of metoclopramide
D2 antagonist
what structure courses between the internal and external iliac arteries
ureter