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513 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What is the most likely risk factor for developing clear cell adenocarcinoma of the vag?
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Diethylstilbestrol exposure (DES)
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What are the bands of the sarcomere and which ones remain the same length during contraction?
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Z line (anchor), A band (thick and thin filaments), H band (only thick), I band (only thin)
A band stays same length during contraction |
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Brown muddy casts are classically a/w what renal disease?
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Acute Tubular Necrosis
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Broad waxy casts are a/w what renal disease?
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Chronic Renal Failure
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Which muscle is utilized to treat rib 3, 4 and 5 SD?
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Pec Minor
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Which muscle is utilized to treat rib 6-10 SD?
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Serratus Anterior
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Which muscle is utilized to treat rib 9-12 SD?
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Lat Dorsi
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Which muscle is utilized to treat rib 12 SD?
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quadratus lumborum
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What is Stein-Levanthal syndrome?
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PCOS
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What is Wermer's syndrome?
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MEN-1 a/w 3 P's --> Pituitary, Parathyroid and Pancreas tumors
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What is Sipple's Syndrome?
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MEN 2A a/w 2 P's --> Parathyroid tumor and Pheochromocytoma
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What neoplasm is a/w MEN 2B?
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Pheochromocytoma
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How is the A-a gradient calculated? and what is normal?
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PAO2 - PaO2 (normal = 10-15)
PA02 = (PiO2 - PaCO2 x 1.25) |
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What is the cause of hypoventilation w/ normal A-a gradient?
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CNS depression
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Anticipation in Myotonic dystrophy is due to instability during _______ meiosis
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maternal
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Anticipation in Huntington's disease is due to instability during ________ meiosis
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paternal
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Instability during paternal and maternal meiosis --> GAA repeats --> what disease?
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Friedrich's Ataxia
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What type of personality disorder is characterized by a desire for personal relationships but a lack of maintaining them, with odd/eccentric behavior?
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Schizotypal
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Telephone consent is just as valid as written consent (true/false)
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true
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Where is secretin produced and what does it do?
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S cells in the duodenum. Increases bile acid and pancreatic bicarb secretion
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Where is somatostatin produced and what does it do?
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Produced by D cells in pancreatic islets and GI mucosa --> inhibitory hormone that decreases SI fluid secretion
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Where is GIP produced and what does it do?
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Produced by K cells in the duodenum and jejunum --> stimulated by fat, sugar and protein --> increases insulin release --> lowers blood glucose
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Where is VIP produced and what does it do?
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produced by non-beta islet cells --> stimulates intestinal water secretion (VIPomas --> copious diarrhea)
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Observational, retrospective study where a group of diseased individuals is compared to non-diseased. Subjects are surveyed based on frequency of predictor in question.
What type of study? |
Case control
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Survey a group of people to assess prevalence of a disease and related risk factors at a particular point in time
What type of study? |
Cross-sectional
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Observational prospective study that compares prevalence of targeted risk factors with a control group that does not have the risk factors and the likelihood of disease is determined.
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Cohort study
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Asthma is a/w type __ hypersensitivity
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1
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laboratory technique that uses a DNA sample which is cut into fragments by restriction endonucleases, electrophoresed and transferred to a filter which is then hybridized with a radiolabeled DNA probe. Regions on the filter that are complementary with the labeled DNA probe can be visualized when the filter is exposed to film
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Southern Blot
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_________ blotting detects DNA binding proteins such a transcription factors, and nucleases
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Southwestern
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__________ blotting is similar to southern blotting except that it involved radiolabeled DNA probe binding to a sample of RNA
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Northern
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A __________ blot is used to detect a labeled antibody as it binds to a relevant protein
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Western
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What is the most common cause of DIC?
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Sepsis
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What comorbidity is most common w/ Dermatitis herpetiformis?
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Celiac disease
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What cranial CT finding is common with ADPKD?
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subdural hematoma d/t ruptured berry aneurysm
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What is the DOC for UTI in a preggo?
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amoxicillin
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Positive Adson's test indicates compression between which muscles?
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anterior and middle scalenes --> thoracic outlet syndrome
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Spirochetes would be seen in a patient with neurosyphilis caused by the bacteria ________ _________
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Treponema pallidum
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What disease is caused by Naegleria fowleri and how does it get in the body?
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causes Primary Amebic Meningoencephalitis. Gets in the body by crossing the cribiform plate into the subarachnoid space
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Which phase of clinical trials is assessing the efficacy of a drug against the current “gold standard”?
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Phase III
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Which phase of clinical trials typically range 100-300 subjects with the disease to assess efficacy?
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Phase II
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Which phase of clinical trials is considered on-going translational research with drug in general circulation
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Phase V
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Which phase of clinical trials is considered pharmacosurveillance?
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Phase IV
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Which phase of clinical trials would use 20 volunteers without the disease being treated?
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Phase 0 or I
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Squamous cell carcinoma of the lung will mimic what hormone activity?
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PTH --> hypercalcemia and hypophosphatemia
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Which alpha-1 blocker is used to treat urinary symptoms of BPH?
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Doxazosin
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Which disease may be unmasked by sulfa drugs and is the result of the inability to modulate oxidative stress?
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G6PD deficiency
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What is the gold standard Rx for bipolar disorder?
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lithium
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How many umbilical vessels?
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2 arteries (go to placenta) 1 vein (go to fetus)
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What are the first line drugs for stable angina?
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Nitroglycerin + Beta Blocker
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A pt with balance problems and a FHx of HCOM most likely has what dz?
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Friedreich ataxia
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___ tends to affect the proximal interphalangeal joints and the metacarpophalangeal joints while ___ tends to affect the distal joints
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RA --> PIP
OA --> DIP |
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__________ disease is gastrin-secreting tumor characterized by multiple peptic ulcers in the duodenum and jejunum. It is commonly associated with MEN I.
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Zollinger-Ellison
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What portion of the kidney receives the least amount of blood?
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Medulla (loop of henle)
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The ______ _________ muscle differs from the other muscles of the masticators due to its ability to depress the mandible allowing for opening of the mouth
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lateral pterygoid
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Which bac creates a gray vaginal discharge that has a characteristic fishy smell with KOH prep
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Gardnerella vaginalis
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Which cranial nerves go through the cavernous sinus?
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CN III, IV, V1, V2, and VI
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________ is common in women. It is defined as damage to the renal parenchyma and is usually the result of an ascending urinary tract infection
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Pyelonephritis
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What is the pygmalion effect?
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If a researcher allows a blinded group to know his or her beliefs in the efficacy of a treatment, then the study is at risk for showing the pygmallion effect
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What is the Hawthorne effect?
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the results of a study being altered by the fact that the subjects are aware that they are being studied
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Endometriosis is due to functioning glands and stroma outside of the uterus and causes an increased risk for what obstetric issue?
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Infertility
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As heart rate increases how do systole and diastole change proportionately?
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diastole decreases more rapidly than systole
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________ bias gives false estimations of survival rates due to the disease being diagnosed at an earlier stage
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lead-time
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What is cilostazol?
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a phosphodiesterase inhibitor used for intermittent claudication, stable angina
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What is the enzyme deficiency in Tay-Sach's dz?
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hexosaminidase
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What is the deficient enzyme in Niemann-Pick dz?
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Sphingomyelinase
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What is the deficient enzyme in Gaucher dz?
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B-glucocerebrosidase
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Which lysosomal storage diseases are NOT AR?
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Fabry and Hunter (XR)
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What makes up Staghorn calculi?
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Ammonium Magnesium Phosphate
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_________ headaches are characterized by watery eyes, nasal congestion, periorbital pain, and Horner’s syndrome (miosis, ptosis, and anhydrosis). Alcohol is a common trigger.
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Cluster
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_______ is the most common STD that causes burning urination and a mucopurulent discharge. Treat with ______
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Chlamydia trachomatis
Rx = Doxy |
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A ______ tumor is a benign tumor that shows up in individuals between 20-40 years of age. The tumor shows in the epiphyseal end of long bones and shows as a double bubble or soap bubble on x-ray.
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Giant cell
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____________ = benign bone tumor that is a cartilaginous neoplasm in intramedullary bone. It is often asymptomatic and found commonly between the ages of 10-20 years.
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Enchondroma
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___________ is a malignant tumor that peaks at 10-20 years of age that is found in the metaphysis of long bones and has a codman’s triangle or sunburst pattern on x-ray. It is the second most common primary malignant bone tumor.
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Osteosarcoma
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___________ is a malignant cartilage tumor seen in men between 30-60 and may be primary origin or from osteochondroma. It is usually located in the pelvis, spine, scapula, humerus, tibia, and femur.
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Chondrosarcoma
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Mobitz Type ___ is defined by an unexpected dropped QRS without a change in PR interval
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II
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What are the three classic findings of Addison's dz?
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Hyperpigmentation, Hypotension and hypoglycemia
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What EKG findings are typical w/ hyperkalemia?
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peaked T waves
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Vagal stimulation releases ACh which activates M_ receptors, G_ subunit proteins and __________ _
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M3, Gq, phospholipase C
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hemolytic anemia caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae is a type __ hypersensitivity reaction
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II
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__________ is a broad spectrum anti-fungal agent used for systemic fungal infections. It binds to ergosterol and forms pores in the cell membrane
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Amp B
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What happens to total and free T4 in primary hyperthyroid?
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both increase
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What is the MOA and use of sirolimus?
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The mechanism of action of sirolimus is that it binds to mTOR inhibiting the proliferation of T-cells in response to IL-2 --> immunosuppressant
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What is the MOA and clincal use of tacrolimus?
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Binds to FK-Binding proteins which inhibits IL-2 --> immunosuppressant
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What is the MOA and clinical use of OKT3?
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This drug is a monoclonal antibody that blocks CD3 protein that is responsible for T-cell signal transduction --> immunosuppressant
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What is the MOA and clinical use of cyclosporine?
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This drug binds to cyclophilins preventing the production of IL-2 and its receptors --> immunosuppressant
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What is the MOA and clinical use of mycophenolate ?
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Inhibits de novo guanine synthesis --> blocks lymphocyte production --> immunosuppressant
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What is the inheritance pattern of NF1?
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AD
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Situs inversus is commonly associated with the dynein arm defect causing immotile cilia, _________ syndrome
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Kartagener's
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What is the aortic aneurysm clinical triad?
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flank pain, a pulsatile mass, and hypotension
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Which ABX are most likely to precipitate ATN?
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AGs
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What is Conn's syndrome?
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Primary hyperaldosteronism
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What is the main concern in a preggo w/ pyelonephritis?
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Pre-term labor
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What is the MOA of AGs?
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Aminoglycosides bind to the 30S ribosomal subunit and inhibit protein synthesis
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Which ABX inhibit folic acid synthesis?
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Sulfonamides (TMP-SMX)
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What is the MOA of FQs?
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Inhibit DNA synthesis
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Which diseases must be reported to the CDC?
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HIV, AIDS, syphilis, gonorrhea, chlamydia, measles, mumps, cryptosporidiosis, Lyme disease, TB, tetanus, diptheria, rubella, pertussis, cholera, varicella, salmonella, shigella, and coccidiomycosis
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______________ studies are observational, retrospective studies, where the subjects are chosen based on the basis of outcome
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Case-control
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What is the first line prophylaxis for traveler’s diarrhea?
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Quinolones such as ciprofloxacin or norfloxacin
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What is the most common causative organism of Acute Otitis Media in the little chittlins?
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Strep pneumo
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In which sites of the nephron is mannitol acting?
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PCT, thin descending limb, collecting ducts (water permeable segments)
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Define Power (in a statistical sense)
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1 - Type I error aka the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis
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Which anti-arrhythmic causes cinchonism?
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Procainamide
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What is the serologic marker for drug-induced lupus?
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Anti-histone antibodies
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During which stage of sleep will you see sleep spindles and K waves?
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Stage II
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Which EEG waves are displayed in stage 1 sleep?
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Theta
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During what stage of sleep does the brain use the most oxygen?
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REM sleep
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__________ is characterized by hypersomnia, overeating and mood reactivity
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Atypical depression
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Which cells does aldosterone act on to increase H+ secretion?
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Renal alpha-intercalating cells
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What side effect of long term use with heparin therapy is mostly likely seen in the elderly patient population?
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Osteoporosis (type 3 osteoporosis is caused by the action of heparin binding to osteoblasts that causes the release of factors that activate osteoclasts)
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What is the MOA of omeprazole?
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PPI acts via inhibition of parietal cell H+/K+-ATPases
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What is the MOA of cimetidine, famotidine, ranitidine, and nizatidine?
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H2-receptor antagonists --> decreased H+ secretion
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What is the MOA of misoprostol in treating GERD?
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prostaglandin-like compound that decreases production of gastric acids, while increasing production of mucus and bicarbonate
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_________, also known as vitamin __, is given to patients taking isoniazid for tuberculosis
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Pyridoxine (vit B6)
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Phylloquinone is vitamin ___
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K
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Which drug used to treat TB can cause red-green colorblindness?
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Ethambutol
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What are the three major pyogenic bacteria with polysaccharide capsules?
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S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae and N. meningitidis
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Apo __ is found primarily on HDL and chylomicrons. It mainly serves as a cofactor for activation of lecithin-cholesterol acyltransferase (LCAT) which serves in the formation of cholesterol esters
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A1
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Apo __ is found on chylomicrons. It is necessary for chylomicron remnants to be recognized by the LDL receptor of hepatocytes.
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B48
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Apo _____ is found on VLDL, IDL, and LDL. It is necessary for lipid recognition by the LDL receptor located on hepatocytes.
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B100
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Apo ___ is located on chylomicron remnants, IDL, and HDL. It serves, along with apo B48 to allow the chylomicron remnants to be recognized by the LDL receptor of hepatocytes and taken into the liver for repackaging into VLDL
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E
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Apo ___ is located on chylomicrons, VLDL, and HDL. It is necessary for lipoprotein recognition by the enzyme lipoprotein lipase which serves to remove triglycerides and cholesterol for extra-hepatic tissues
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CII
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__________ is the agent of choice in treating acute Chagas disease
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Nifurtimox
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Which heart sound is a/w dilated cardiomyopathy?
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S3
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Which neuronal system is disrupted in Parkinson's?
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basal ganglia
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Is Salmeterol a long or short acting beta agonist?
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long acting
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What is the equation for sensitivity?
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TP / (TP + FN) = (1 - FN rate)
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What is the equation for specificity?
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TN / (TN + FP) = (1 - FP rate)
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Adult w/ pitting edema and often hypertension early in the course, it also has negative findings on imuunoflourescence. Which glomerular dz?
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FSGN
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________ disease presents with malabsorption syndrome, joint pain, and CNS symptoms. Small intestinal biopsy shows PAS positive staining.
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Whipple
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What is the first step in dx of a pt with suspected endometrial cancer?
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Pelvic US (if endometrial stripe is thickened, do biopsy)
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What is the DOC for preggo w/ chlamydia?
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Erythromycin
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Which kidney pathology has tram-track appearance?
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membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
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Which kidney pathology has spike and dome appearance of BM?
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Membranous glomerulonephritis
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Which kidney pathology has increased C-ANCA antibody?
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Wegener's glomerulonephritis
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Which kidney pathology presents w/ increased serum IgA?
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Berger's dz
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Which serology test is positive in the window phase of Hep B infection?
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HBcAg
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What is the function of Rb?
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Holds DNA within G1 until it is ready for division in S phase
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What is the cardiac index?
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CO/Body Surface Area (index will be low in hypovolemic shock)
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What happens to FEV1/FVC in obstructive lung dz?
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decrease (goes either way in restrictive dz)
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A child engaged in fire setting, cruelty to animals, lying, stealing, and/or fighting has what disorder?
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conduct disorder
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What is the adult form of conduct disorder?
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Anti-social personality disorder
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What type of cellular change occurs in chronic GERD?
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Barrett Esophagus (glandular metaplasia --> squamous epithelium to glandular epithelial cells
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What causes post-strep acute rheumatic fever?
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Cross reaction of antibodies developed against streptococcus with other tissue (eg joints)
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Information from eye is transmitted to calcarine sulcus through which structure?
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Lateral Geniculate Nucleus
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The medial geniculate nucleus receives input from the ______ colliculus and the ____ _____ and sends that information to the auditory cortex
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inferior; superior olive
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The ________ _________ _________ nucleus receives information about taste and sensation from the face and projects to Brodmann’s areas 3, 1, and 2 of the primary somatosensory cortex
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Ventral Posterior Medial
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The _______ ________ nucleus receives input from the basal ganglia and projects to the primary motor cortex and the premotor cortex
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Ventral Lateral
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The __________ ________ _______nucleus receives pain, temperature, and proprioception information from the spinothalamic and dorsal column/medial lemniscus pathways and projects to Brodmann’s areas 3, 1, and 2 of the primary somatosensory cortex
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Ventral Posterior Lateral
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A ___________ (follow-up, longitudinal) study is a comparative, observational study in which subjects are grouped by their exposure status, e.g. whether or not the subject was exposed to a suspected risk factor
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cohort
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What are the four treatment steps for hyperkalemia?
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insulin, B-agonists, and sodium polystyrene sulfonate to lower circulating potassium. Calcium gluconate can be used for cardioprotection when arrhythmias are present
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PCOS increases risk for ovarian cancer (true/false)
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false (ovarian cysts are benign)
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Which ABX bind to 30S ribosomal subunit?
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AGs and Tetracyclines
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Which type of hemorrhoids often present with painless bright red blood per rectum?
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internal hemorrhoids above the pectinate line
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White blood cell casts in urinalysis suggest ____________
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pyelonephritis
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Urinalysis revealing epithelial cells and granular casts is pathognomonic for the direct damage to the renal tubular epithelial cells that occurs in _____
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ATN (acute tubular necrosis)
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Aspirin acts on which arachidonic metabolite to slow the progression of CAD?
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TXA2
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____________ is characterized by proliferation along the alveolar walls without invasion. Patients usually present with a chronic productive cough and chest X-ray that resembles pneumonia
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bronchioalveolar carcinoma
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_________ sign is an enlarged and palpable, but painless, gallbladder. A positive sign in the presence of jaundice is most commonly associated with pancreatic cancer
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Courvoiser
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CA 19-9 and CT are very useful in the confirmation of diagnosis of ___________ _______
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pancreatic adenocarcinoma
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Pts with a BMI between _____ and ______ are overweight
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25-25.9
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___________ is an autosomal dominant disease characterized by proliferation of all the elements of peripheral nerves (neuromas), café-au-lait spots and Lisch nodules.
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NF1
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Cerebral abscesses are a/w what dz?
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Toxoplasmosis
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What are the glucose levels for gestational diabetes?
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Fasting >92
2hr >153 1hr >180 |
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What is the Rx of choice for gestational diabetes?
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Insulin
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What organism is identified by Bordet-Gengou agar
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Bordetella pertussis
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What organism is identified by Eaton's agar?
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Mycobacterium pneumoniae
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What media is used to identify Legionella?
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Charcoal yeast extract agar buffered with cysteine
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What media is used to identify Haemophilus influenza?
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Chocolate agar with hematin and NAD+
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Compression of the __________ nerve is known as Cubital Tunnel Syndrome.
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Ulnar
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What cancers are a/w nephrotic syndrome (3)
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Lung, Breast, Stomach
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What paraneoplastic syndrome is a/w mucus secreting pancreatic and colorectal carcinomas?
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Nonbacterial thrombotic endocarditis
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Acanthosis nigrans and seborrheic keratosis can both be paraneoplastic syndromes associated with what cancer?
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Gastric cancer
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What paraneoplastic syndrome is a/w small cell lung ca?
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Eaton-Lambert syndrome
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Transmural inflammation:UC or Crohn's?
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Crohn's dz
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Cobblestone mucosa:UC or Crohn's?
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Crohn's
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"String Sign":UC or Crohn's?
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Crohn's
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Noncaseating granulomas
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Crohn's
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Perianal dz:UC or Crohn's?
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Crohn's
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Crypt abscesses:UC or Crohn's?
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UC
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Mucosal pseudopolyps:UC or Crohn's?
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UC
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What enzyme def --> ambiguous boy parts until puberty?
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5-alpha reductase def
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At what age should a child be able to sit with support, jabber and coo, and begin to feed themselves finger foods?
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6 mths
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__________ _________is due to damage of the dorsal columns which manifests as loss of vibratory and position sense. This is associated with tertiary syphilis
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Tabes Dorsalis
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What organism causes a malaria-like parasitic infection that classically has intra-erythrocytic parasites on microscopy arranged in a characteristic "maltese cross."?
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Babesia
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What is the DOC for Rocky Mountain Spotted fever and Lyme Dz?
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Doxycycline
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Which key enzyme is inhibited in lead poisoning?
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delta-aminolevulinic acid synthase (the rate-limiting step)
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EF-2 is a/w what bacteria?
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Corynebacterium diptheriae
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What is first line Rx for tension pneumo?
|
Needle at midclavicular 2nd intercostal (Chest tubes are inserted at the midaxillary line and at the fourth intercostal space. This is the gold standard of treatment, but not the first line. )
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What parts of the hand receive sensory innervation from the median nerve?
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The palmar surface and nail beds of the first three digits
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The extensor carpi radialis is innervated by the ________ nerve
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Radial
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The adductor pollicis muscle is innervated by the __________ nerve
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Ulnar
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The brachioradialis muscle is innervated by the ____________ nerve
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Radial
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The thenar muscles of the hand and pronator teres in the forearm are innervated by the _________ nerve
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Median
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The supinator is innervated by the _______ nerve
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Radial
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Where does cervical dysplasia begin?
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Basal layer of the squamocolumnar junction
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What is the Galbreath technique?
|
Soft tissue manipulation technique that can be used to drain middle ear structures by putting traction on the Eustachian tube
|
|
|
Which type of headache is associated with ipsilateral Horner’s syndrome, lacrimation, and nasal rhinorrhea?
|
Cluster
|
|
|
Which nerve provides parasympathetic innervation to the lacrimal glands?
|
Greater petrosal (branch of VII)
|
|
|
Are the upper or lower extremity portions of the spinal cord supplied by the artery of Adamkiewicz (also ant or posterior?)?
|
Lower extremity anterior spinal a. --> ant. horn, corticospinal tract, spinothalamic tract
|
|
|
What is the MOA of cromolyn?
|
Mast cell degranulation inhibitor
|
|
|
What are the DHEA, LH and FSH levels in PCOS?
|
Increased DHEA and LH, decreased FSH
|
|
|
Where are the majority of estrogens produced in PCOS?
|
Adipose tissue
|
|
|
What is the MOA of donepezil?
|
Blocks catabolism of ACh
|
|
|
Type II pneumocytes and respiratory tree development occur significantly at week ___
|
24
|
|
|
Characteristics of male and female genitalia form at ___ weeks
|
10
|
|
|
Week __ is considered full term, when all development should be finished
|
38
|
|
|
________ is non-invasive, motile and has bilobed nuclei
|
Giardia
|
|
|
Angiomyolipomas of the skin, brain, kidneys, and other organs. Pt presents with a facial tumor. What dz?
|
Tuberous Sclerosis
|
|
|
_________ is characterized by hemangiomas in the skin and other organs and can be associated with bilateral renal cell carcinoma or hemangioblastoma in the retina
|
Von Hippel-Lindau
|
|
|
What is the inheritance for Tuberous Sclerosis?
|
AD
|
|
|
The celiac trunk gives rise to what three major branches?
|
The left gastric, splenic and common hepatic arteries
|
|
|
The _____ gastric artery originates from the celiac trunk and supplies blood to the superior margin of the lesser curvature of the stomach
|
Left
|
|
|
The __________ gastric artery is a branch of the proper hepatic artery and supplies blood to the inferior margin of the lesser curvature of the stomach
|
Right
|
|
|
The _________ artery originates from the celiac trunk and travels dorsal to the body of the stomach, along the body and tail of the pancreas, giving off several branches that supply blood to parts of the pancreas, stomach, and spleen
|
Splenic
|
|
|
Urinalysis revealing epithelial cells and granular casts is pathognomonic for __________
|
ATN
|
|
|
What is the DOC for panic attack prevention?
|
SSRI
|
|
|
_____________ are commonly deposited in the tibial area in patients with Grave’s disease
|
Glycosaminoglycans
|
|
|
Chvostek's and Trosseau's signs are indicative of what electrolyte disorder?
|
Hypocalcemia
|
|
|
Medical history includes seizures while physical exam reveals fair skin and a musty body odor. Dx?
|
PKU
|
|
|
What causes measles? What are the 4 main symptoms?
|
Rubeola virus --> Cough, Coryza, Conjunctivitis, Koplik's spots
|
|
|
Both hands cradle the occiput while each thumb contacts the ipsilateral greater wing of the sphenoid. Which hold?
|
Base (Becker)
|
|
|
The _________ technique involves encouraging extension of the occiput while discouraging flexion
|
CV-4
|
|
|
A bounding pulse with a wide pulse pressure and a “blowing” diastolic murmur is characteristic of _________ __________
|
Aortic Regurg
|
|
|
Which trinucleotide repeat disorder is a/w CAG repeats?
|
Huntington's dz
|
|
|
Which trinucleotide repeat disorder is a/w CGG repeats?
|
Fragile X syndrome
|
|
|
Which trinucleotide repeat disorder is a/w CTG repeats?
|
Myotonic Dystrophy
|
|
|
Which trinucleotide repeat disorder is a/w GAA repeats?
|
Friedreich's ataxia
|
|
|
________________ usually presents with stumbling, staggering and falling with childhood kyphoscoliosis. Hammer toes are a characteristic finding, along with pes cavus, dysarthria and nystagmus.
|
Friedreich's ataxia
|
|
|
Which hormone causes cervical mucus to become thick --> inability of sperm to penetrate?
|
Progesterone
|
|
|
What acid/base values are expected in severe Guillan-Barre?
|
pH down, bicarb up, PCO2 up
|
|
|
When the areola and papillae form a secondary mound on the breast a female adolescent is considered Tanner stage __
|
4
|
|
|
What is the MOA of allopurinol?
|
Inhibits the enzyme xanthine oxidase which is needed to breakdown purines into uric acid
|
|
|
The _______ ovarian/testicular vein drains directly into the inferior vena cava
|
Right
|
|
|
What are the main 3 egg based vaccines?
|
Influenza, MMR, yellow fever
|
|
|
Which hepatitis virus is distinguished by its high mortality in pregnant women?
|
Hep E
|
|
|
The Chapman point 1 inch superior and 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus corresponds to the __________
|
Kidney
|
|
|
Where is the prostate Chapman point?
|
Anteriorly located in myofacial tissue along the posterior margin of the iliotibial band
|
|
|
Where is the posterior Chapman point for the Appendix?
|
At the transverse process of T11
|
|
|
What is alteplase?
|
tPA
|
|
|
Which nerve root provides Biceps DTR?
|
C5
|
|
|
__________ will show extra R-waves in the QRS complex
|
LBBB/RBBB
|
|
|
A pt w/ body dysmorphic disorder is likely to have what associated history when seeking cosmetic surgery?
|
Past cosmetic surgery
|
|
|
Falling forward on a pronated forearm is likely to cause what somatic dysfunction?
|
Radial head posterior
|
|
|
What is the longest stage of sleep and the associated waveform?
|
Stage 2
|
|
|
Anticipation in Myotonic Dystrophy occurs due to instability during ________ ________
|
Maternal Meiosis
|
|
|
Hunting Disease occurs due to instability during ________ __________
|
Paternal Meiosis
|
|
|
_____________ has a trinucleotide repeat occurring during both parental and maternal meiosis
|
Friedreich Ataxia
|
|
|
Mothers giving birth prematurely should be given ___________________ to speed up fetal lung maturation
|
Corticosteroids
|
|
|
What is the most common side effect of metformin?
|
GI distress
|
|
|
What is the most common side effect of sulfonylureas?
|
Hypoglycemia
|
|
|
What is the pathogenesis of spider telangectasias a/w liver dz?
|
Excess estrogen
|
|
|
__________ is associated with the "W" sign which is made up of exaggerated x descents and steep y descents on right atrial pressure tracings
|
Constrictive Pericarditis
|
|
|
__________disease results from cellular inability to add mannose-6-phosphate to lysosomal proteins.
|
I-cell
|
|
|
_____________ is a chronic, mild depression that lasts at least two years
|
Dysthymic Disorder
|
|
|
___________ is the most common bacterial cause of sinusitis
|
Strep. pneumo.
|
|
|
The ________ sinus is the most commonly affected sinus in children with sinusitis
|
Ethmoid
|
|
|
The _________ sinus is the most commonly affected sinus in adults with sinusitis.
|
Maxillary
|
|
|
Phenelzine is in the class of antidepressants known as _______
|
MAOIs
|
|
|
Fluoxetine is in the class of antidepressants known as __________
|
SSRIs
|
|
|
Patients taking ________ must avoid foods high in tyramine, such as aged cheese, red wine, beer, and cured meats.
|
MAOIs
|
|
|
____________ disorder is characterized by the symptoms of schizophrenia -- delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, disorganized or catatonic behavior, and negative symptoms -- for longer than one month but less than six months.
|
Schizophreniform
|
|
|
Defect in the production of INF-gamma is incorrect because this describes a patient with _________
|
Hyper IgE (Job's)
|
|
|
Bruton's agammaglobulinemai is an x-linked recessive disorder which is caused by a defect in __________
|
Opsonization
|
|
|
What is the number one cause of mitral stenosis?
|
Rheumatic Fever
|
|
|
What drug should be used to control HTN in preggo?
|
Methyldopa
|
|
|
What is the most commonly associated valvular problem w/ Ehlers-Danlos?
|
Mitral valve prolapse
|
|
|
A 65-year-old chronic smoker presents with unintentional weight loss and a dull constant epigastric pain for the past 2-months. Physical examination reveals jaundice and a palpable mass in the right upper abdominal quadrant. Most likely dx?
|
Pancreatic cancer
|
|
|
___________ is associated with smoking, Courvoisier's sign, jaundice and unexplained dull epigastric pain
|
Pancreatic cancer
|
|
|
__________ is a parasite which is transmitted from eggs found in dog feces and is responsible for large locular cysts found in the liver and brain
|
Echinococcus granulosus
|
|
|
______________: This amoeba is transmitted from freshwater in which it crosses the cribiform plate to the subarachnoid space
|
Naegleria fowleri
|
|
|
________ syndrome is caused by decreased synthesis of gonadotropin in the anterior pituitary and presents with anosmia , color blindness and lack of secondary sexual characteristics
|
Kallman (hypogonadotropic hypogonadism)
|
|
|
The normal physiologic V/Q ratio in the _____ of the lung is close to 0.6
|
Base
|
|
|
While the sore throat and the fever are non-specific physical signs, the pseudomembrane in the tonsils and pharynx is pathognomonic for __________
|
diptheria
|
|
|
What happens to PT, PTT and BT in a pt taking warfarin?
|
Increased PT and PTT, normal Bleeding time
|
|
|
Which MMR virus causes subacute subsclerosing panencephalitis?
|
Measles (Rubeola)
|
|
|
What is the inheritance pattern for tuberous sclerosis?
|
AD
|
|
|
Cardiac Rhabdomyomas are virtually pathognomonic for what dz?
|
Tuberous Sclerosis
|
|
|
What is the most common primary adult heart tumor?
|
Atrial Myxoma
|
|
|
What is the MOA of tetanospasmin?
|
decreased release of the inhibitory neurotransmitters GABA and glycine
|
|
|
What is the MOA of AB toxin?
|
ADP ribosylation which inactivates EF-2
|
|
|
What is the MOA of TSST-1 toxin?
|
binds MHC-II and T-cell receptor, which leads to a large number of activated T-cells that release cytokines
|
|
|
What is the MOA of Streptococcus pyogenes exotoxin?
|
binding IgM and C3b, which blocks phagocytosis of the bacteria
|
|
|
What dz is characterized by necrotizing granulomas in the upper respiratory tract and kidney disease. Chronic sinusitis with mucosal ulcers is the classic clinical manifestation.
|
Wegener's Granulomatosis
|
|
|
Suspect a ________ mole when fetal parts are present, and beta-hCG levels are mildly elevated
|
Partial
|
|
|
What family of viruses is Rubeola?
|
genus Morbillivirus within the Paramyxoviridae family
|
|
|
Which virus is a/w Koplik Spots?
|
Measles (Rubeola)
|
|
|
What condition is characterized by a decrease in joint space, cartilage erosion, boney erosions, boney sclerosis as well as the formation of subchondral cysts and osteophytes?
|
Osteoarthritis
|
|
|
What disorder is due to Hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyltransferase deficiency?
|
Lesch-Nyhan
|
|
|
What are the most common colon polyps found?
|
Tubular Adenomas
|
|
|
Polydipsia and polyuria with diluted urine that becomes more concentrated with water deprivation is most consistent with what disorder?
|
Psychogenic polydipsia
|
|
|
What is the MOA of cholera toxin?
|
Stimulates a G protein to increase adenylate cyclase
|
|
|
What is the MOA of shiga toxin?
|
Inactivates 60S ribosomes
|
|
|
What is the MOA of pertussis toxin?
|
Increases cAMP by inhibiting an inhibitory G protein
|
|
|
What is Eisenmenger's syndrome?
|
Left side - Ride side heart failure
|
|
|
What electrolyte imbalances enhance digoxin tox?
|
Hypercalcemia/hypokalemia
|
|
|
ACE inhibitors lead to increased risk for what electrolyte imbalance?
|
Hyperkalemia
|
|
|
What happens to Serum Na in Conn's syndrome?
|
Initial increase with a return to normal (chronic elevated BP --> ANP release --> decrease of serum Na)
|
|
|
The disease modifying anti-rheumatoid drug that causes retinal deposits is __________
|
hydroxychloroquine
|
|
|
Candida albicans prefers a slightly ________ vaginal pH
|
Low
|
|
|
What is the main vasodilator of the afferent areteriole?
|
PGE2
|
|
|
What are Kimmelstiel-Wilson nodules?
|
Classic finding in diabetic nephropathy
|
|
|
Which HPV strains are likely to cause laryngeal carcinoma and which vocal cords are affected?
|
HPV 6,11 --> True Vocals
|
|
|
What is the MOA of low molecular weight heparin?
|
Binds antithrombin III which inhibits thrombin and factor Xa
|
|
|
How is pre-eclampsia differentiated from gestational HTN?
|
Pre-eclampsia presents w/ proteinuria
|
|
|
What is the initial insult triggering diabetic nephropathy?
|
Hyperfiltration at the glomerulus
|
|
|
What class of drugs does Isocarboxid belong to?
|
MAOI
|
|
|
Which NTs are innactivated by MAO?
|
Dopamine, norepinephrine, and serotonin
|
|
|
What is the MOA of TCAs?
|
Block re-uptake of 5-HT
Block alpha, M and H1 receptors |
|
|
What type of shock can be caused by cardiac tamponade, pulmonary embolism, and a tension pneumothorax?
|
Obstructive shock
|
|
|
What are the three types of spondylolisthesis and where do they occur/who gets them?
|
Type I = dysplastic (congenital) --> Occurs in superior sacral facet, the inferior fifth lumbar facet, or both --> pt < 15 yo
Type 2 = isthmic form --> caused by a defect in the pars interarticularis but can also be seen with an elongated pars (L5-S1) pt < 15 yo Type III = degenerative --> L4-L5 old pt |
|
|
Hartnup dz is characterized by a def of what AA?
|
Tryptophan --> Niacin def
|
|
|
Which cells produce Intrinsic Factor?
|
Parietal cells
|
|
|
Which gastric cells produce somatostatin?
|
D cells
|
|
|
Which gastric cells produce pepsinogen?
|
Chief cells
|
|
|
What three drugs are known to improve survival in CHF pts?
|
ACE inhibitors, spironolactone and metoprolol
|
|
|
How does Sheehan syndrome present?
|
Ischemic necrosis of the anterior pituitary (Sheehan syndrome) is a complication of massive blood loss during delivery. The clinical manifestation is hypopituitarism.
|
|
|
Why is desmopressin used in Hemophilia A and Von Willebrands?
|
Increases the release of Factor VIII
|
|
|
_________ bias occurs when two tests for a particular disease are compared, and the new test detects the disease earlier than the older test, but the outcome of the disease is unchanged.
|
Lead-time
|
|
|
___________ bias occurs when information is gathered at an inappropriate time, causing results to be skewed.
|
Late-look
|
|
|
The _______ nerve runs posterior to the humerus alongside the profunda brachii artery
|
Radial
|
|
|
The _______ nerve travels beneath the biceps brachii tendon in the forearm
|
Median
|
|
|
What advantage does amoxicillin have over ampicillin?
|
Better oral absorption
|
|
|
________ prevention refers to early detection of disease
|
Secondary
|
|
|
_________ disease prevention aims to reduce the morbidity of an already acquired disease
|
Tertiary
|
|
|
Prevention of disease occurrence is _________ prevention
|
Primary
|
|
|
What is the time limit for stable angina?
|
< 30 min
|
|
|
What is the most common cause of nosocomial pneumonia due to use of a respirator?
|
Psedo. a.
|
|
|
On what part of the bone would you find an osteosarcoma?
|
Metaphysis
|
|
|
Primary sclerosing cholangitis vs Primary Biliary Cirrhosis: Which one is more likely in females?
|
Primary Biliary Cirrhosis (autoimmune association)
|
|
|
Where does acetazolamide act in the nephron?
|
Acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that acts at the proximal tubule to decrease sodium reabsorption
|
|
|
What is the MOA of mannitol in the kidney?
|
Mannitol, acts as an impermeant solute throughout the entire nephron --> prevents of water resorption in the thin descending
|
|
|
_________ functions by inhibition of iodine organification and coupling in the thyroid gland
|
Methimazole
|
|
|
_________ functions by inhibition of iodine organification and coupling in the thyroid AND inhibition of peripheral conversion of thyroxine to triiodothyronine
|
Propylthiouracil
|
|
|
Williams’ syndrome is a congenital disease involving a microdeletion on chromosome ___
|
7
|
|
|
What is the treatment of choice for malignant hyperthermia?
|
Dantrolene
|
|
|
Which apolipoproteins are necessary for chylomicron remnants to bind the LDL receptor on hepatocytes?
|
Apo B48 and Apo E
|
|
|
“Spike and dome” basement membrane thickening is seen in __________
|
Membranous Glomerulonephritis
|
|
|
Bacterial meningitis in a newborn is likely due to what organism?
|
Grp B Strep
|
|
|
Which lobe of the brain is primarily affected in Alzheimer's?
|
Temporal
|
|
|
Which lobe of the brain is primarily affected in Herpes encephalitis?
|
Temporal
|
|
|
Which lobe of the brain is primarily affected in Pick's dz?
|
Frontal
|
|
|
Enlarged lymph nodes in the hepatoduodenal ligament will likely affect which structure?
|
Portal triad (hepatic artery, portal vein, common bile duct)
|
|
|
What structures are contained in the portal triad?
|
hepatic artery, portal vein, common bile duct
|
|
|
What enzyme is deficient in hereditary fructose intolerance?
|
Aldolase B
|
|
|
Fructose intolerance leads to an accumulation of __________
|
Fructose-1-phosphate
|
|
|
Increased intake of ketogenic nutrients, or foods with a high fat content, is used to treat _________ deficiency
|
Pyruvate Dehydrogenase
|
|
|
What is the Rx for McArdle dz?
|
Oral Sucrose
|
|
|
What enzyme is deficient in McArdle's?
|
muscle glycogen phosphorylase
|
|
|
What enzyme is deficient in von Gierke's?
|
Glucose-6-phosphatase
|
|
|
What enzyme is deficient in Pompe dz?
|
Acid maltase
|
|
|
Which organisms require cysteine for growth?
|
ella's (Francisella, Brucella, Legionella, Pasteurella)
|
|
|
What is the most common causative organism for acute bronchitis in non-smoker?
|
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
|
|
|
What drug used for CHF would be the likely culprit of heart block?
|
Digoxin
|
|
|
What 2 diseases are a/w enlarged rugal folds?
|
Menetrier and Zollinger-Ellison diseases
|
|
|
By what mechanism does acetaminophen reduce fever?
|
Reduces fever by reducing prostaglandin levels
|
|
|
What is the treatment of choice for Neiserria?
|
Ceftriaxone
|
|
|
What is the treatment of choice for Treponema pallidum?
|
Pen G
|
|
|
Exposure to naphthylamine is a/w what cancer?
|
Bladder
|
|
|
Exposure to aflatoxin is associated with what cancer?
|
Liver
|
|
|
What is the mechanism by which indirect inguinal hernias occur?
|
Patent Processus Vaginalis
|
|
|
What is the cause of anemia in chronic renal failure?
|
Low erythropoetin
|
|
|
What are the three most likely drugs to cause drug induced lupus?
|
Hydralazine, INH, Procainamide
|
|
|
The _________ ligament contains the uterine artery, ovarian artery, fallopian tube, ovary, ovarian ligament, and round ligament of the uterus
|
Broad
|
|
|
What vit must be supplemented in INH use?
|
B6
|
|
|
_________ murmur is a benign pediatric murmur that commonly presents in healthy children age two to eight years. It is typically heard as a mid-systolic murmur of musical quality between the apex of the heart and left sternal border
|
Still's
|
|
|
In which thyroid cancer would you expect high levels of calcitonin?
|
Medullary carcinoma
|
|
|
Dopamine is derived from what Amino Acid?
|
Tyrosine
|
|
|
What is the MOA of pramipexole?
|
Pramipexole is a synthetic dopamine agonist used as an alternative in Parkinson's disease when levodopa doesn’t work
|
|
|
What are the two main receptors of the pupil?
|
M3 and alpha1
|
|
|
What is the only receptor on the ciliary muscle?
|
M3
|
|
|
Paget's dz of breast is a/w which breast CA?
|
Invasive ductal carcinoma
|
|
|
Where is Tamoxifen an agonist/antagonist?
|
Estrogen agonist for bone (prevents osteoporosis) and the endometrium (increases risk of hyperplasia). It is an antagonist for breast (prevents breast cancer).
|
|
|
What class of drugs is citalopram in?
|
SSRI
|
|
|
What other electrolyte should be checked with low K+?
|
Mg++
|
|
|
What happens to K+ in DKA?
|
Hyperkalemia
|
|
|
Where is folate absorbed?
|
jejunum
|
|
|
Where is iron absorbed?
|
duodenum
|
|
|
Where are vit ADEK absorbed?
|
ileum
|
|
|
Where are bile acids absorbed?
|
ileum
|
|
|
Where is vit B12 absorbed?
|
ileum
|
|
|
First year residents are allowed up to __ hours of work per week and can be scheduled for shifts up to __ hours
|
80; 16
|
|
|
What repair defect is Xeroderma pigmentosum?
|
Nucleotide Excision Repair
|
|
|
What is the MOA of theophylline?
|
Theophylline is an adenosine receptor antagonist and is structurally similar to caffeine. It is used to treat COPD and asthma patients.
|
|
|
Which asthma drug has a metallic taste?
|
Ipratropium bromide
|
|
|
What are Mallory bodies?
|
Mallory bodies are damaged cytokeratin intermediate filaments in hepatocytes often seen in alcoholic liver disease. They are associated with alcoholic hepatitis
|
|
|
What are councilman bodies?
|
Councilman bodies form due to apoptosis of hepatocytes infected with a virus
|
|
|
When would you see toxic granulation?
|
Toxic granulation is associated with inclusions seen in neutrophils during a severe bacterial infection
|
|
|
What is the Rx of choice for pts w/ SIADH?
|
Demeclocycline, an ADH antagonist
|
|
|
What is the MOA of methylphenidate
|
It increases the levels of dopamine and norepinephrine in the brain through reuptake inhibition of the monoamine transporters
|
|
|
What ECG changes are seen in stable angina?
|
ST depressions
|
|
|
_________ refers to negligence of a physician to an established patient, which results in direct harm to the patient
|
Breach of Duty
|
|
|
__________ refers to the attending physician responsible for any negligence committed by any resident physician he/she supervises
|
Vicarious Liability
|
|
|
What are the Pheo rules of 10?
|
10% are malignant,
10% are bilateral, 10% calcify, 10% are familial, 10% are seen in kids and 10% are extra adrenal. It is also associated with MEN2a (pheochromocytoma, medullary CA of thyroid and parathyroid hyperplasia/tumor) and MEN2b (pheochromocytoma, medullary CA of the thyroid and mucocutaneous neuromas-especially in the GI tract), as well as neurofibromatosis |
|
|
SCID is commonly caused by a deficiency in ____________
|
adenosine deaminase
|
|
|
Hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer (HNPCC/Lynch syndrome) is an autosomal dominant disorder of __________ genes
|
DNA Mismatch repair
|
|
|
What virus causes mono w/ a neg monospot test?
|
CMV
|
|
|
What virus has positive heterophile Ab?
|
EBV
|
|
|
What are the two best ways to prevent kidney stones?
|
A low sodium diet and hydration are the best ways to prevent kidney stones
|
|
|
What three organisms are transmitted by the ixodes tick?
|
Babesia microti, Borrelia burgdorferi and Erlichia chaffeensis
|
|
|
Which stain is used for connective tissue tumors?
|
Vimentin
|
|
|
Which stain is used for neural tissue tumors?
|
N-Cadherins
|
|
|
What are the precursor lesions for malignant melanoma?
|
Dysplastic nevi
|
|
|
What is the inheritance pattern for OI?
|
AD
|
|
|
___________ can cause granulomatous nodules and the fungus appears as a broad-based budding yeast
|
Blastomyces
|
|
|
__________ is seen as a budding yeast that looks like a large captain’s wheel
|
Paracoccidioides
|
|
|
Acute vitamin _ toxicity can result in seizures, stroke, increased intracranial pressure, psychosis, liver damage, depression, and gastrointestinal upset
|
A
|
|
|
___________ is an autosomal recessive disorder, which is associated with a deficiency of 1alpha-hydroxylase
|
Rickets
|
|
|
The _______ pharyngeal cleft develops into the external auditory meatus
|
1st
|
|
|
The __________ clefts form temporary cervical sinuses which normally become obliterated
|
2-4th
|
|
|
The ______ pharyngeal pouch develops into the middle ear canal
|
1st
|
|
|
The _________ pharyngeal pouch develops into the tonsillar fossa and crypts
|
2nd
|
|
|
_________ is the antidote for heparin overdose
|
Protamine
|
|
|
The term “bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy” is synonymous with ___________
|
Sarcoidosis
|
|
|
What is the DOC for ventricular arrhytmias and what are the main side effects?
|
Lidocaine - the most common side-effects include tremor, slurred speech and seizures because it passes the blood-brain barrier
|
|
|
What is the MOA of amiodarone?
|
Amiodarone prolongs the action potential more than any other anti-arrhythmic drug
|
|
|
What is the point mut seen in sickle cell?
|
Point mutation causing glutamic acid to be replaced by valine
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|
|
What drug is used to treat painful attacks of sickle cell?
|
Hydroxyurea
|
|
|
Biopsy of this disorder will show lumpy bumpy deposits of IgG and C3b. Electron microscope will show subepithelial immune complex deposits.
|
Post-strep Glomerulonephritis
|
|
|
Fluorescence studies show a linear pattern of IgG antibody deposition
|
Goodpasture's
|
|
|
Will nephrotic pts become hyper or hypocoaugulable?
|
Loss of AT III --> hypercoagulable
|
|
|
Vitamin __, is a necessary cofactor for cystathionine synthase and its supplementation can decrease the severity of homocystinuria
|
B6
|
|
|
Vitamin ____ is necessary for proper neural function and carbohydrate metabolism. Deficiency results in beriberi
|
B1
|
|
|
Vitamin ___ is used in forming coenzyme-A, an essential component of the TCA cycle
|
B5
|
|
|
What is the orientation of the superior facets?
|
Cervical: Backward, upward, and medial. BUM
Thoracic: Backward, upward, and lateral. BUL Lumbar: Backward and medial. BM |
|
|
What is the DOC for atypical pneumonia?
|
Macrolide
|
|
|
What chromosome is affected in VHL?
|
3
|
|
|
Which chromosome is affected in CF?
|
7
|
|
|
Which chromosome is affected in NF1?
|
17
|
|
|
What stain is used to detect ferrugionous bodies of Asbestosis?
|
Prussian blue
|
|
|
Do the Ab in Lambert-Eaton affect post or presynaptic membrane?
|
Pre-synaptic
|
|
|
Which nucleus carries pain/temp from face?
|
Spinal tract and nucleus of V
|
|
|
Which artery supplies the lateral medulla?
|
PICA
|
|
|
Which branch of the CNV innervates the muscles of mastication?
|
V3
|
|
|
Through which foramina do the branches of CNV exit?
|
V1 --> Superior orbital fissure
V2 --> Foramen rotundum V3 --> Foramen ovale |
|
|
Which nerve provides parasympathetic innervation to the parotid gland?
|
CNIX
|
|
|
Through which foramen does the CNVII exit the skull?
|
Stylomastoid foramen
|
|
|
What is the most common type of leukemia found in men over 60?
|
CLL
|
|
|
Which hematologic oncology is a/w smudge cells?
|
CLL
|
|
|
What are the malignant cells of mycosis fungoides and Sezary syndrome?
|
T-cells
|
|
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In what dz are patients are prone to recurrent upper respiratory infections by staph and strep species while physical exam revels albinism and neuropathic dysfunction?
|
Chediak-Higashi
|
|
|
Which basal ganglia nucleus is affected in hemiballismus?
|
STN
|
|
|
______________ is a serotonin metabolite elevated in the urine of patients with carcinoid syndrome
|
5-HIAA
|
|
|
________ is found in the urine of patients with pheochromocytoma which presents with episodes of severe hypertension due to excess sympathetic stimulation
|
Homovanillic acid (HVA)
|
|
|
What is the most common site for atherosclerosis?
|
Abdominal Aorta
|
|
|
What is the MOA for metformin?
|
It works be decreasing gluconeogenisis in the liver thus decreasing fasting glucose levels and it also works as an insulin sensitizer
|
|
|
What is the MOA and most significant side effect of Sulfonylureas?
|
Sulfonylureas (glyburide and glipizide) and meglitinides (repaglinide and nateglinide) are drug classes associated with stimulating insulin release from pancreatic beta cells
Sig risk of hypoglycemia |
|
|
What is the MOA of TZDs?
|
Binds PPAR-gamma --> insulin sensitization
|
|
|
The American Heart Association considers HDL levels >__ mg/dL to be cardioprotective
|
60
|
|
|
What is Churg-Strauss?
|
Allergic granulomatous angitis --> positive p-anca
|
|
|
_________ is a cause of watery diarrhea from eating undercooked seafood; most commonly oysters
|
Vibrio parahaemolyticus
|
|
|
___________ is a cause of bloody diarrhea from eating undercooked pork or produce
|
Yersinia enterocolitica
|
|
|
Nikolsky's sign is positive in ________ ______
|
Pemphigus Vulgaris
|
|
|
What is Res ipsa loquitur?
|
"The thing speaks for itself" --> obvious negligence
|
|
|
What is Volenti non fit injuria?
|
The injured party is the dumbass to blame for his/her own injury
|
|
|
What is the MOA and use of Epoprostenol?
|
Prostacyclin analog used primarily in pulmonary hypertension
|
|
|
______________ is a hypertrophic gastropathy in which significant protein is lost via the gastrointestinal tract, leading to diarrhea, weight loss, and edema. The stomach rugae are increased in size and may resemble cerebral gyri. Microscopic examination reveals several cork-screw-shaped glands composed of mucous cells and decreased numbers of parietal and chief cells.
|
Ménétrier disease
|
|
|
What is the DOC for carcinoid?
|
Octreotide, a somatostatin analog
|
|
|
Carcinoid syndrome can be associated with what vitamin deficiency?
|
Niacin
|
|
|
Carcinoid syndrome is associated with what heart defects?
|
Right sided (eg tricsupid regurg)
|
|
|
Patients with what heart block often progress to a Third degree?
|
Mobitz II
|
|
|
What is the deficiency of hereditary spherocytosis?
|
Spectrin protein
|
|
|
What is the MOA of methotrexate?
|
Methotrexate functions by reversibly inhibiting the enzyme dihydrofolate reductase, which normally catalyzes the conversion of dihydrofolate to tetrahydrofolate
|
|
|
Which AA must be supplemented in PKU?
|
Tyrosine
|
|
|
_________ _________ is characterized by eruptions of small salmon-pink, drop-like lesions that are approximately 1-10mm in size
|
Guttate psoriasis
|
|
|
Which form of sleep apnea is a/w Cheyne-Stokes respirations?
|
Central
|
|
|
What is the treatment of choice for Loa Loa, Wucheria bancrofti, and Toxacara canis?
|
Diethylcarbamazine
|
|
|
The __________ _________ represents the space available for the fetus as it descends through the pelvis during the delivery process
|
Obstetric conjugate
|
|
|
What is the MOA of ASA overdose?
|
Uncoupling of oxidative phosphorylation --> reduces the amount of ATP produced
|
|
|
Which thyroid cancer shows psammoma bodies?
|
Papillary thyroid carcinoma
|
|
|
__________ syndrome is an autosomal dominant disorder that commonly presents with telangiectasia, recurrent epistaxis and arteriovenous malformations
|
Osler-weber-rendu
|
|
|
What are the two most common causes of acute pancreatitis?
|
Gallstones and alcoholism
|
|
|
Which cells generate most of the basement membrane?
|
Basement membrane
|
|
|
What is pimozide?
|
Anti-psychotic
|
|
|
The facial nerve exits the skull via the ______________
|
internal auditory meatus
|
|
|
The foramen ________ contains the maxillary branch of the trigeminal nerve
|
rotundum
|
|
|
The foramen ________ contains the mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve
|
ovale
|
|
|
How do you calculate ERPF?
|
ERPF = (Urine PAH concentration) X (Urine flow rate) / (Plasma PAH concentration)
* PAH = para-aminohippuric acid |
|
|
How do you calc RBF Using ERPF?
|
RBF = ERPF / (1 – Hematocrit)
|
|
|
What is the most common cause of death in pts with GAA trinucleotide repeats?
|
Freidreich's ataxia --> hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
|
|
|
When is Rhogam routinely administered?
|
28 weeks
|
|
|
What is the most likely cause of sudden death post MI?
|
ventricular tachycardia or ventricular fibrillation
|
|
|
Which diuretics are known to precipitate gout?
|
TZDs
|
|
|
What is likely to accumulate in alkaptonuria?
|
Homogentisate
|
|
|
After 34 weeks, treatment for severe preeclampsia involves_____________ as prophylaxis for eclamptic seizures and immediate delivery of the fetus.
|
IV magnesium sulfate
|
|
|
What is Leigh syndrome?
|
Pyruvate Dehydrogenase deficiency. Patients generally present with poor feeding, developmental delay, seizures, abnormal eye movements, ataxia, and mental delays
|
|
|
How does Alpha-1 antitrypsin def present in kids?
|
Panacinar emphysema w/ flattened diaphragms
|
|
|
Which dz is caused by a def of iduronate sulfatase?
|
Hunter syndrome
|
|
|
Which dz is caused by a def of Arylsulfatase A?
|
Metachromatic leukodystrophy
|
|
|
Which dz is caused by a def of Beta-galactosidase?
|
Krabbe dz
|
|
|
Which dz is caused by a def of Sphingomyelinase?
|
Niemann-Pick
|
|
|
Which dz is caused by a def of Hexosaminidase A?
|
Tay-Sachs dz
|
|
|
What agar is used to culture Cryptococcus neoformans?
|
Sabourand's agar
|
|
|
What agar is used to culture Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
|
Lowenstein-Jensen agar
|
|
|
Which lung carcinoma is neuroendocrine cell origin?
|
SCLC
|
|
|
Which disease is confirmed by a negative nitroblue test?
|
chronic granulomatous disease
|
|
|
What percentage of oxygen saturation would you expect to find in blood circulating through the foramen ovale of a fetus?
|
about 65% saturated with oxygen
|
|
|
The sacral torsion rules state that L5 sidebends ________ the oblique axis and rotates ________ the sacrum
|
same side as; opposite
|
|
|
What is pergolide?
|
Pergolide is a dopamine agonist which can be used to treat a prolactinoma
|
|
|
What are the BP/proteinuria requirements for mild pre-eclampsia?
|
The diagnosis of mild pre-eclampsia requires two serial blood pressure readings, over 4-6 hours, of greater than 140/90 and greater than 300mg/24hrs of protein in the urine.
|
|
|
What is the serum marker for sarcoidosis?
|
Elevated ACE level is a marker for sarcoidosis
|
|
|
which diabetic drug causes lactic acidosis?
|
Metformin
|
|
|
Which diabetes drug is most likely to cause weight gain?
|
Thiazolidinediones
|
|
|
The most effective treatment against Trichomonas vaginalis is _________
|
metronidazole
|
|
|
What is the MOA of praziquantel?
|
Praziquantel increases calcium permeability of the fluke tegument
|
|
|
These patients lose the ability to develop both forms of mature T cells. This disease comes from the failure to develop the 3rd and 4th pharyngeal pouch which results in no thymus or parathyroid glands.These patients will develop tetany due to hypocalcemia and have an increased risk of viral and fungal infections.
|
Di George Syndrome
|
|
|
This disease is X-linked recessive and is associated with a defect in the BTK tyrosine kinase gene. This defect blocks B-cell maturation leading to a decrease in mature B-cells. Without mature B-cells the patient is unable to produce gamma globulins. Therefore, they will have a defect in opsonization of foreign invaders
|
Bruton's Agammaglobinemia
|
|
|
What section of the GI is most affected by celiac sprue?
|
blunting of the jejunal villi and the presence of anti gliadin antibodies
|
|
|
What is the most common cause of infection in Cystic Fibrosis?
|
Pseudomonas
|
|
|
The drug maraviroc stops HIV from binding to this protein
|
CCR5
|
|
|
The initial step of infection requires CD4 to bind to this HIV surface protein
|
GP120
|
|
|
HIV binds this receptor on T cells
|
CXCR4
|
|
|
HIV binds this receptor on macrophages
|
CCR5
|
|
|
The most commonly detected HIV antigen and target of ELISA test
|
GP24
|
