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287 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What is the Max Ramp Weight?
65,400 lbs
What is the Max T/O Weight?
65,200 lbs
What is the Max Landing Weight?
62,000 lbs
What is the Max Zero Fuel Weight?
58,000 lbs
What is the Max AFT baggage load (lbs)?
What is the C2 limitation?
2,545 lbs total weight
1,000 lbs max on C2
What is the Max FWD baggage load (lbs)?
910 lbs
What are the Max/Min load factors with flaps up and down?
Flaps UP: +2.5g to -1.0g
Flaps DOWN: +2.0g to 0.0g
What is the maximum altitude we may accept during flight from ATC?
25,000 ft ASL
What is the Max T/O and landing altitude?
10,000 ft ASL
What is the Max/Min runway slope?
+/- 2%
May we takeoff with a runway slope of 2.5%?
NO
+/- 2% slope is the limitation
What is the Max crosswind for T/O and landing?
32 knots, hard, dry or wet runway
What is the Max crosswind for landing with a wet runway?
32 knots
What are the Max/Min aircraft operating temperature limits?
Min= -54°C
Max= +50°C or ISA +35°C (whichever is LOWER)
What are the maximum operating speeds for the Q400?
0-8000 ft: 245 KIAS
10,000 ft: 282 KIAS
18,000 ft: 286 KIAS
20,000 ft: 275 KIAS
25,000 ft: 248 KIAS
What is the Q400 maneuvering speed?
VA: 204 KIAS
What is the Q400 rough air penetration speed?
VRA: 210 KIAS
What is the Max speed we may operate the landing gear handle?
VLO: 200 KIAS
If required to fly with the landing gear down, what would be our max speed we may fly at and stay within limitations?
VLE: 215 KIAS
What is the Max indicated airspeed for alternate gear extension?
Why?
VALT gear: 185 KIAS
Due to main and nose hydraulic gear doors remaining open
What are the speed limitations regarding the use of flaps?
Flap 5°: 200 KIAS
Flap 10°: 181 KIAS
Flap 15°: 172 KIAS
Flap 35°: 158 KIAS
What is the max altitude for air-start?
20,000 ft
What is the max ITT for start?
920°C
Once an engine has stabilized after a start, what is the Min NH that the display should indicate?
64.2%
How long may MTOP be utilized per engine operating limitations?
5 Minutes
What is min oil temp for inlet ice protection on the ground?
55°C
What is the min oil temp for inlet ice protection airborne?
65°C Within three minutes of setting takeoff power
What are the starter cranking limits?
70 Seconds On - 2 Minutes Off
70 Seconds On - 2 Minutes Off
70 Seconds On - 30 Minutes Off
After an aborted engine start sequence, how long must a crew wait until attempting another start? (1st attempt)
2 minutes
What is the max usable fuel load?
11,724 lbs
What is the max lateral fuel imbalance?
600 lbs
When must the Tank Aux Pumps be on during normal operations?
Tank 1 and Tank 2 auxiliary pumps must be on for takeoff and landing
What is the normal fuel temp operating range?
0-71°C Normal Operations
What is the max battery load for T/O?
0.1:
- Standby
- Aux
- Main Batteries
What is the min battery temp for T/O?
-20°C
May we extend the gear at FL250 to aid an emergency descent?
NO
15,000 ft is the max altitude for extending the landing gear
What is the max tire speed?
182 Kts Groundspeed
What is the max cabin differential airborne?
5.95 psi
What is the max cabin differential on the ground?
0.5 psi
What is the normal cabin differential airborne?
5.46 psi +/- 0.1 psi
What is the max cabin altitude (ft)?
8,000 ft
When may we NOT conduct a T/O or landing with Bleeds ON?
- Tailwind component exceeds 10 kts
- Reported OAT exceeds 39°C (100°F)
* Whenever performance data dictates Bleed Off
What are the autopilot coupled approach limitations?
AFCS is approved for autopilot approaches to CAT I limits only.
Autopilot coupled approaches are approved for:
- Flap 0° to 5° (min alt: 1000 ft AGL)
- Flap 10°
- Flap 15°
- Flap 35°
What is the autopilot minimum engagement height (AGL)?
1000 ft AGL
(After takeoff or go-around)
Is autopilot use in severe turbulence and/or severe icing permitted?
NO
Autopilot must be disengaged in severe icing and turbulence
Reason(s) why flight must be conducted no further than 1 hour flying time from a suitable landing airport for landing:
One hour limitation on the Intergrated Standby Instrument
AND/OR
Fire protection requirements of the forward and aft baggage compartment
Is the Q400 certified for ditching?
YES
What is the max seating capacity excluding crew?
74 Passengers
What are the aircraft length, height and wingspan?
Length = 107 ft 9 in
Height = 27 ft 4 in
Wingspan = 93 ft 3 in
What is the Min turning radius?
84 ft 5 in
What areas are not included within the pressure vessel?
- Forward of the Flight Deck
- Aft of the Rear Cargo Bay (Empennage)
What is the total number of doors not including cockpit escape hatch?
(6)
(including 2 baggage doors)
How many doors can be used in an emergency evacuation?
(4) emergency exits
(not including escape hatch)
Can the baggage compartment doors be used as evacuation exits?
NO
- the forward baggage compartment can’t be opened from the inside
- aft baggage compartment can’t be accessed from the cabin
What doors use de-ice bleed line seals?
- Main Cabin Door
- Aft Cargo Door
What emergency exit does the DOORS page on the MFD not monitor?
Cockpit Escape Hatch
Can the flight deck escape hatch be used to ventilate the flight deck?
Is it recommended?
YES
(not recommended since hatch may be difficult to close)
What CWP(s) is/are associated with aircraft doors?
[Master Warning]
{FUSELAGE DOORS}
What does the ANVS system provide?
Active noise and vibration suppression
Controls for the ANVS system are located where?
Flight attendant control panel
Which lights operate on the hot battery bus?
- Dome lights
- Entry Lights
When do the emergency lights automatically activate?
- Emergency situations
- Left main 28 volt DC bus fails
When does the EMERG LIGHT DISARMED caution light illuminate?
When {EMERG LIGHT} switch is in the off position
How many battery packs are there for the emergency lights?
(4) NiCad battery packs
- 6.4 volt
- above the passenger compartment near forward and aft cabin exit doors
What systems use pneumatic power?
- Air conditioning and Pressurization
- Airframe Deicing
- Air stair door seal pressurization
- Engine oil cooling ejection system
What valves will open if the power is low and the bleed air is turned on?
The High Pressure SOV and the respective Nacelle SOV
What pressure air is supplied to the air-conditioning system, with bleeds on, and a low power setting?
High Pressure Air (P3)
What pressure air is supplied to the air-conditioning system, with bleeds on, and a high power setting?
Low Pressure Air (P2.7)
What will cause a BLEED HOT caution light to illuminate?
- Over temperature
- Over pressure
- Bleed Leak
What will happen is a BLEED HOT caution light illuminates?
ECU sends a signal to close the NSOV
How many air conditioning packs (Air Cycle Machines) are there?
(2)
- One Cabin ACM
- One Flight Deck ACM
What is the difference between auto and manual mode of the air-conditioning system?
{Auto}: the ECU’s digital channels control the operation of the pack Flow Control and Shut Off Valve (FCSOV) and the Pac Bypass Valve
{MAN}: mode the ECU’s analog channels control only the Pack Bypass Valves
What is the operational difference between auto and manual mode of the air-conditioning system?
{AUTO}: control is based on feedback indication from the zone temperature sensors
{Manual}: control is based on the duct supply temperatures.
* In manual mode the temperature range is greater therefore the chance of a pack or duct overheat is increased
What will happen when a temperature selection is made towards cool?
The ECU’s will regulate the respective pack Bypass Valve towards a closed position to allow more air from the Air Cycle Machine.
What will happen when a temperature selection is made towards warm?
The ECU’s will regulate the respective pack Bypass Valve towards an open position to allow more air from the Bypass Valve.
Where is the air conditioning pack located?
Tail section of the fuselage.
Where is the recirculation fan located?
ACM service bay (close to Air Conditioning Pack)
What is the indication of one avionics-cooling fan failing?
NONE
Only logged to the CDS
When would you use manual control mode for the pressurization system?
The Manual mode can be used if the Automatic mode becomes inoperative
How do you operate the pressurization system in manual control mode?
- Mode select switch to MAN
- DECR position (right) the Aft Outflow valve opens causing a decrease in cabin pressure differential and an increase in cabin altitude
- INCR position (left) the Aft Outflow valve closes causing the cabin pressure differential to increase and the cabin altitude to decrease.
How do you set up automatic pressurization mode?
- FWD Outflow valve is fully counter clockwise to the closed position
- Auto on the cabin pressurization panel.
What is takeoff memorization mode?
The Cabin Pressure Controller (CPC) remains in the takeoff mode for at most 10 minutes after liftoff. This avoids the requirement to reselect the landing altitude in case of an aborted flight and subsequent emergency return to the departure airport
When is takeoff memorization mode cancelled?
The Cabin Pressure Controller (CPC) remains in the takeoff mode for at most 10 minutes after liftoff
Which outflow valve is used during automatic mode?
The Aft outflow valve is modulated in automatic mode
Where is the At Outflow Valve located?
Aft Pressure Dome
How is the forward outflow valve opened and closed?
The forward outflow valve is spring closed and opened by pneumatic air (slipstream) of the outside air as it passes by the valve.
How is the aft outflow valve opened and closed?
The Aft Outflow valve is an electrically controlled valve located on the aft pressure dome. It is regulated by the Cabin Pressure Controller (computer) in response to Pressurization Control panel inputs. Located on the flight deck overhead panel.
What is the aft safety valve used for (pressurization)?
The Aft Safety Outflow valve is an electro-pneumatic valve and is also located on the aft pressure dome. The Aft Safety Outflow valve supplies additional venting during ground operation. The Aft Safety Outflow valve opens on the ground when at least one engine is running at idle, or when the APU is operating to supply additional bleed air venting.
Will the aircraft remain pressurized if one of the air-conditioning packs is turned off?
YES
One pack is sufficient for operation
When does the CABIN PRES warning light illuminate?
When the cabin altitude is more than 9,800 ft
What will happen when the pressurization mode select switch is moved to DUMP?
The aft outflow valve will be fully open
In case of unpressurized flight, can the aircraft be ventilated?
YES
Through the dorsal fin NACA vents
Under normal conditions while taxiing on the ground, which outflow valves are open and which are closed?
Both aft outflow valves will be open and the forward valve should be selected closed.
Where are the FD modes displayed?
FD modes are displayed on the Flight Mode Annunciator, which is displayed in the top left and right corners of the PFD screens.
What are the basic lateral flight director modes?
When will these modes be entered?
• Roll Hold (ROLL HOLD)
• Wings Level (WING LVL)
• Heading Hold (HDGHOLD)
* The basic modes are activated if the AP or a vertical FD mode is engaged when no lateral mode is active
What are the basic vertical flight director modes?
Pitch Hold
How do you engage the autopilot?
- Pushing the AP button engages both the autopilot and yaw damper (if not already engaged)
- A white arrow illuminates on either side of the AP pushbutton
- AP annunciator message appears on the PFD
What is TCS mode and will it disengage the autopilot?
TCS is Tactile Control Steering.
- Pushing and holding this button allows the pilot to override the AP momentarily WITHOUT disengaging the AP.
- FD command bars are momentarily removed from the PFD
- Numeric displays of the active vertical mode targets on the PFD go to white dashes
What does GA mode give you?
- AP disengages
- FD vertical mode transitions to the Go Around mode (Commands a fixed pitch angle of 10 degrees)
- FD lateral mode transitions to the Wings Level sub mode (Commands a zero roll attitude)
- All “armed” FD modes are disarmed
- WING LVL and GA messages are displayed on the PFD
What is the indication that a mode is in capture?
(*) Symbol indicates that a mode is in capture
Can the autopilot be engaged without the yaw damper?
NO
Will engaging the Autopilot with the yaw damper not engaged also engage the yaw damper?
YES
If the autopilot is disengaged will the yaw damper also disconnect?
NO
What will cause the Autopilot to disconnect?
• A/P Disc switch on control wheel
• Either GA switch
• Trim switch
• A/P switch on FGCP
• Disengaging Yaw Damper
• Stick Shaker
What are the Pitch and Roll limits of the Autopilot?
45 degrees Roll and 20 degrees of pitch
How do you disable the Flight Director?
Select the “Stby” button on the FGCP
What controls the automatic operation of the APU?
The APU is controlled by a FADEC
Where is the APU located?
Tail cone of the aircraft
What can the APU provide?
- DC power
- Bleed air for air conditioning
Where does the APU get its fuel?
Left Wing Collector Bay
Can the environmental system accept bleed air from both engines and APU simultaneously?
NO
The APU is only able to supply bleed air to the ECS when engine bleed air is selected off (switch)
What electrical busses does the APU generator power?
The APU’s DC generator will supply DC power to the DC buses:
- Essential
- Main
- Secondary
Which has priority regarding the APU, Bleed Air or Electrical?
Electrical production
Can the crew leave the aircraft with the APU running?
NO
The crew cannot leave the aircraft or flight deck with the APU running
Can the APU be used in flight?
NO
The APU cannot be operated in flight (WOW)
Can the APU be started during fueling?
NO
What is the operative temperature range of the APU?
- Lower -35°C
- Upper +50°C or ISA+35°C, whichever is lower
- Max ambient temperature with the Inlet Louvers installed is +21°C
What are the indications of an APU fire?
- FIRE advisory light (solid red) on the FPP
- Master Warning light (flashing red) on the glare shield
- CHECK FIRE DET warning light (flashing red)
- BTL ARM advisory light (amber) on the FPP
- APU FUEL CLOSED advisory light (white) on the FPP
* (APU FUEL OPEN advisory light [green] extinguishes)
- APU EXTG switch light (red) on the FPP
- Master Caution light (flashing amber) on glare shield
- APU caution light (amber) on the Caution light panel
How is APU fire protection provided?
The APU has a fully automatic fire detection and extinguishing system. If an APU fire is detected:
- APU will automatically shut down
- Fire-extinguishing agent will be released after 7 seconds.
Which bus supplies power to the APU Fire Protection control circuit?
Right Essential
When will the CVR operate and how much does it record?
When the airplane electrical system is powered, a solid state Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) system, located in a crash-survivable case in the airplane tail.
Records the last two hours of:
- All flight crew communication (Pilot/copilot observer headsets)
- Flight deck area microphone (Area Microphone)
- PA announcements
- Clock data
Where is the ELT located?
In the tail of the aircraft
Can the FMS control any ARCDU functions?
YES
It can tune the COMM and NAV radios
What does the BOOM/MASK switch do?
Selects between headset boom microphone and the microphone in the oxygen mask.
Is the ARCDU a radio unit?
NO
It is an interface unit to control the radios
Is the VHF1 Standby control unit an independent radio?
NO
It uses the same radio as ARCDU 1 but has its own dedicated antenna
If the aircraft power fails, will the PACIS work?
The emergency lighting batteries will power a relay that switches the PACIS power source to the Battery Bus.
When will the FDR operate and how much does it record?
With airplane power available, the FDR will begin recording 25 hours of data when any of the following three conditions are satisfied:
- Anti-Collision light switch set to RED or WHITE
- Both engines running (based on oil pressure)
- Airplane is airborne
What happens when the EMERG mode is selected on the ARCDU?
When {EMER} is selected on the PILOT's ARCDU:
- pilot’s headset and microphones are directly routed to VHF 1
- pilot’s interphone and navigation receiver are directly routed to the headset
- audio level is fixed for VHF 1 and INT
When {EMER} is selected on COPILOT’s ARCDU:
- copilot’s headset and microphones are directly routed to VHF 2
- copilot’s interphone and navigation receiver are directly routed to the headset
- audio level is fixed for VHF 2 and INT
When in the {EMER} position, the PTT/INPH switch must be selected to PTT for access to onside COMM. Only the audio aspect of the interphone function is available when operating in EMER mode and the Microphone/Interphone selector is ineffective
What buses are powered when the battery master is selected on?
Allows the connection of all 3 batteries, to the Essential DC buses
What buses are powered when the battery master and main battery switches are selected on?
- Essential DC buses
- Right Main DC bus
What buses are powered when the battery master and main/aux/stby battery switches are selected on?
- Essential DC buses
- Right Main DC bus
- Left Main DC bus
Where are the Engine Driven Starter/Generators located?
Engine accessory gearbox
Where are the AC Gens located?
Prop reduction gearbox
Which aircraft systems require AC power?
- De-icing/Anti-icing Heaters
- Standby Hydraulic Pump
- TRUs
- Aux Fuel Pumps
Where are the TRUs located?
Upper right nose compartment of aircraft
What buses can be powered with the APU generator?
The APU generator will supply power in parallel to all DC buses
What buses can be powered with DC external power?
Left Main DC bus
Auto bus tie closure enables all six DC buses to be powered
What is the max DC generator load?
Max load is 400 amps
What is the maximum battery load permitted for T/O?
0.1 On:
- Standby
- Aux
- Main Batteries
What does a batter load of +1.04 indicate?
Indicates that the battery is in overcharge at 4% over the maximum rate of the charge
What does a battery load of -.84 indicate?
Indicates that the battery is discharging at 84% over the maximum rate of discharge
What buses can be powered with AC external power?
All AC and DC buses through TRU’s
What is the max output rating of the TRU’s?
Max load is 300 amps
When would emergency mode operation occur (EPCU)?
Loss of BOTH DC generators
and
(1) TRU
What controls the 4 bus ties?
Electrical power control unit (EPCU)
Does the EPCU have priorities to tie buses together in the event of a fault condition?
YES
The EPCU has full control over all bus ties
What will cause the EPCU to react to a main bus fault?
Transient nature of power or a voltage surge
What does the EPCU do when is detects a main bus fault?
It will automatically take offline all of the DC components associated with the faulty bus (i.e., DC Starter-generator and batteries) leaving the faulty bus unpowered and isolated.
The Abnormal Checklist will instruct the crew to cycle the Bus Fault Reset switch in an attempt to reset the EPCU’s bus fault protection logic
Will all busses be powered if a DC generator fails? How?
YES
If the #1 or #2 DC Starter-generator fails:
- Main Bus Tie will automatically close to power both Main DC buses with the remaining generator
- Respective caution light will illuminate
Will all busses be powered if both DC generators fail? How?
YES
The Main-Secondary Bus Ties will automatically close to enable the Left and Right Main DC busses to be powered by the TRUs
Will all busses be powered if a TRU fails? How?
YES
The Main-Secondary bus tie will automatically close to enable flow down power to the respective Secondary bus
What is the minimum dispatch for fixed crew oxygen (2 crew and 3 crew)?
OAT/2 Pilot/3 Pilot
>48°C 1130 1560
32°C 1090 1505
21°C 1050 1450
10°C 1000 1395
<0°C 370 1340
Where is the oxygen discharge disc located?
A green burst disc is located on the right side exterior of the nose is ejected out if the cylinder is over pressurized
Where is the fixed oxygen bottle located?
The crew masks are supplies form a single, common cylinder is the right lower nose compartment
What do the NORM, 100% and EMERG modes provide?
- [NORM] = the regulator automatically supplies an air/oxygen mixture
- [100%] = the regulator supplies 100% oxygen regardless of altitude
- [EMER] = the regulator supplies 100% oxygen at a positive pressure, and will also purge smoke from the goggles
Name all the safety equipment located in the flight deck:
- Protective breathing equipment
- Oxygen masks (3)
- Fire extinguisher (HALON)
- Fire axe
- Flashlights (2)
- Crew escape rope
- Life vest (3)
- Smoke goggles (3)
Name all the safety equipment and locations in the cabin:
(6 PORTABLE OXYGEN BOTTLES)
- 3 Supplemental (2 right aft doghouse, 1 forward emergency compartment)
- 2 F/A portable bottles (1 forward L/H overhead bin, 1 rear L/H overhead bin)
- 1 portable medical bottle (Rear R/H overhead bin)
(3 FIRE EXTINGUISHERS)
- 1 forward emergency storage compartment
- 2 left aft doghouse
(2 FIRST AID KITS)
- 1 forward emergency compartment
- 1 aft R/H doghouse
(1 ENHANCED EMERGENCY MEDICAL KIT - EEMK) in rear R/H overhead bin
(1 MEGAPHONE)
How many Fire Protection loops are installed?
Three fire detection loops are installed in each engine nacelle
What areas are covered by the fire protection loops?
- Leading edge zone (LEZ)
- Primary engine zone (PEZ)
- Main wheel well (MWW).
What is the indication of a fault in the fire protection loops?
If the loop is punctured (loses pressure) or loses electrical power, a fault signal will be processed by the Control Amplifier. This signal will then be relayed to the Fire Protection Panel as a FAULT A or FAULT B (both amber) indication. The Master Caution light will also illuminate
How many fire bottles are installed in each engine?
NONE
The two fire bottles are installed in the left wing root
How do you know a fire bottle has been discharged?
A {BTL LOW} advisory light (amber) on the fire protection panel will illuminate when either fire bottle is depleted or its pressure is low
What will occur when the Pilot pulls the Fuel/Hyd OFF Handle?
• Emergency Fuel Shutoff Valve closes
• Hydraulic Shutoff Valve closes
• Forward and Aft Bottles Arm
What indications will be displayed in the cockpit when and engine fire is detected?
An engine fire is indicated in the flight compartment by the illumination of the following FIVE fire warning lights:
- The respective engine’s PULL FUEL/HYD OFF T-handle light (red) on the FPP
- The Master Warning light (flashing red) on the glareshield
- The CHECK FIRE DET warning light (flashing red) on the warning light panel
- Both ENGINE FIRE PRESS TO RESET lights, (flashing red) on the left and right sides of the glareshield.
What indications will be displayed in the cockpit when an aft baggage fire is detected?
When smoke is sensed in the aft baggage compartment, a momentary warning tone (the Master Warning chime) is activated in the cockpit and the following lights/switchlights illuminate:
• Master Warning light (flashing red) and chime
• SMOKE warning light (flashing red)
• BAGGAGE AFT SMOKE/EXTG switchlight (red/white, guarded) located on the upper right portion of the FPP
• FIRE BOTTLE AFT ARM indication light (amber) on the FPP
• VENT INLT CLOSED and VENT OTLT CLOSED indication lights (white) on the FPP. Illumination of these lights indicates the closing of two valves that normally provide ventilation for the aft baggage compartment.
When will the baggage compartment fire bottles discharge?
One high rate fire extinguisher bottle is installed above the aft baggage compartment and is dedicated solely to it. Pushing the BAGGAGE AFT SMOKE/EXTG switchlight (guarded):
- Discharges this high rate bottle into the aft baggage compartment
- The low rate fire extinguisher bottle will discharge approximately SEVEN minutes later and will provide additional suppressant to the aft baggage compartment
- The FIRE BOTTLE AFT ARM light (amber) will extinguish immediately upon activation, indicating the discharge of the aft high rate bottle
- The FIRE BOTTLE AFT LOW light (amber) will then illuminate to indicate that the aft high rate fire bottle is fully depleted
- FIRE BOTTLE FWD LOW light (amber) approximately 45 minutes later indicates that the shared low rate bottle is also fully depleted
What cockpit indications indicate a LAV fire condition?
There are no visible or aural indications in the cockpit when smoke is sensed in the lavatory.
Where is the LAV fire bottle located and how is it activated?
The lavatory waste bin is equipped with a thermally activated fire extinguisher bottle mounted in the roof of the waste bin. This fire bottle has dual discharge outlets but no electrical interface. When a fire occurs in the lavatory compartment waste bin:
- The temperature of the end caps on the fire bottle increase, causing the fusible seals to melt and release the end caps from the discharge tubes
- The extinguishing agent is then discharged into the waste bin.
How many different types of portable fire extinguishers are on the aircraft?
(1) Halon
Which control column is directly connected to the spoilers?
The Captain's control wheel is directly connected to the spoilers
When are the outboard roll spoilers available?
By design, outboard spoiler operation is deactivated at airspeeds > 170 KIAS
- FCECU disables the outboard spoilers above 170 KIAS by shutting off extension pressure to the outboard system
- <165 KIAS, the FCECU re-enables the outboard spoilers
What is the indication of an aileron cable jam?
If a mechanical jam develops anywhere else in the roll control circuits (i.e., not in the spoiler PCU linkage areas) it will result in both control wheels being jammed due to the fact that the aileron and spoiler control circuits are interconnected during normal operations
What action should be taken in the event of an aileron cable jam?
If a roll control jam occurs:
- ROLL DISC handle, located in the right front corner of the center console, must be pulled out and rotated 90° (left or right)
- Disengages the roll spoiler system from the aileron system thereby isolating the jammed system from the operating system
- The pilot with the un-jammed control wheel will have roll control and should take the appropriate action to maintain lateral control of the aircraft
What will be the result after the QRC items are complete following an aileron cable jam?
If the left control hand wheel is free:
- Only the roll spoilers are operational
- Roll control forces will be low and the tendency to over control should be avoided.
If the right control wheel is free:
- Only the ailerons are operational
- In this second scenario, if the right control wheel is rotated more than 50° left or right from neutral in efforts to maintain a wings level attitude, it will result in the continuous illumination of both SPLR 1 and SPLR 2 switch lights. This excessive travel of the right control wheel is due to spoiler panels being stuck in an extended position. SPLR 1 and SPLR 2 switch lights must be pushed off. Pushing off SPLR 1 and SPLR 2 switch lights shuts off extension pressure to all spoiler PCUs allowing the affected spoiler(s) to retract
What are the indications of a spoiler cable jam?
If a PCU linkage jam develops on any of the four spoiler PCUs (i.e., linkage between the PCU and the spoiler clutch mechanism) it will be eliminated due to the design of the system. The spoiler clutch mechanism is designed to disengage in response to a spoiler PCU linkage jam, thereby maintaining roll control movement. A spoiler clutch disengagement (clutch release) is indicated in the cockpit by:
- SPLR 1 switch light (i.e., inboard spoiler PCU jam)
OR
- SPLR 2 switch light (i.e., outboard spoiler PCU jam)
What control(s) do the gust-lock lock?
Aileron Gust Lock Mechanism
What controls the rate of pitch trim?
The FCECU control the elevator pitch trim (high rate or low rate) according to the airspeed of the airplane
What is the max airspeed to be flown with an ELEVATOR ASYMMETRY Caution light?
200 kts
How many PCUs control each elevator?
3
How many hydraulic systems control each elevator?
3
When does the ELEV PRESS caution light illuminate?
If the condition develops where the No. 1, No. 2, and No. 3 hydraulic systems are all supplying pressure to the elevator simultaneously (i.e., #3 Hydraulic Isolate valve fails open), it will result in the illumination of the ELEVATOR PRESS caution light
When does the ELEV FEEL caution light illuminate?
A position disagreement between the two elevator pitch feel units (actuators) or the loss of the FCECU’s ability to control or command a pitch feel actuator is indicated by the illumination of the ELEVATOR FEEL caution light.
- If one pitch feel actuator fails, the other actuator will operate normally
- The FCECU detects the failed pitch feel actuator and holds it at its last valid position
- The FCECU will continue to provide pitch commands to the operating actuator, but artificial feel will be degraded
- Airspeed should be reduced to maintain a maximum speed of 200 KIAS
What happens to the pressure to the rudder actuators as the airspeed increases?
Hydraulic pressure supplied to both rudder PCUs is regulated by the FCECU in response to airspeed inputs it receives.
- Rudder authority is limited as a function of airspeed to reduce excessive yaw rate
- As airspeed increases, the FCECU reduces hydraulic pressure to the PCUs (reduction of rudder deflection in response to rudder pedal inputs)
- As airspeed decreases, the FCECU increases hydraulic pressure to the PCUs (increase of rudder deflection in response to rudder pedal inputs)
What controls the pressure to the rudder actuator?
Hydraulic pressure supplied to both rudder PCUs is regulated by the FCECU in response to airspeed inputs it receives
What will happen if pressure is lost on one rudder actuator?
The RUD CNTRL caution light will illuminate when any of the following PCU pressure malfunctions occur:
-Both channels of the FCECU fail leaving it unable to control pressure to the rudder PCUs
- Both the No. 1 and No. 2 hydraulic systems fail
- The FCECU is receiving a significant disagreement in airspeed signals from the #1 and #2 ADUs (this condition will also result in an IAS MISMATCH message appearing on the PFDs and the illumination of four caution lights)
How is the trailing section of the rudder actuated?
It is geometrically geared
How is the fore section of the rudder actuated?
Hydraulically
How many Air Data Computers are the in the Q400?
Two:
- ADC 1
- ADC 2
What Air Data Unit parameters are displayed on the Electronic Instrument
System?
- Indicated Airspeed (PFDs)
- True Airspeed (MFDs)
- Static Air Temperature (ED)
What are the standard operating modes for the AHRS?
Alignment:
- NORMAL mode for attitude
- SLAVED mode for heading
What are the reduced operating modes for the AHRS?
- BASIC mode for attitude
- DG (directional gyro) mode for heading
How will the flight instruments operate when operating in the basic operating modes for the AHRS?
The EADI will behave like a conventional mechanical gimbaled gyro
How many cooling fans maintain the Display Units?
3
What is the only automatic screen reversion? Will moving of the information cause any change in the way information is displayed?
Should there be a failure of the ED it will automatically re-vert to MFD 1. The PSA 1-PFCS of MFD 1 will automatically become part of the composite PSA information displayed on MFD 2.
How can you display system information if both MFDs fail?
System information would be available by pressing the desired system button on the Engine and System Integrated Display Control Panel.
How many airspeed bugs can be set for T/O and Landing?
TAKEOFF = (5)
- V1
- VR
- V2
- Solid Blue
- Outline Blue
LANDING = (2)
- Solid Blue
- Outline Blue
Where are the altimeter settings selected?
- Index Control Panels on CA and FOs associated side.
- Integrated standby instrument also has its own selection knob.
How do you select a navigation source for the PFD?
Via use of the NAV SOURCE selection knob located on the FGCP
What are the minimum and maximum fuel temperatures?
0°C to 71°C Normal operating temperatures
What is the maximum lateral fuel tank imbalance?
600 lbs
What indications are provided when fuel temperature are out of limits?
Above 71°C (Red digits) Below 0°C (Yellow digits)
What indications are provided when fuel imbalance limits are reached?
- BALANCE advisory message (amber) will begin to flash directly above the FUEL legend on the ED
- Message will continue to flash until the flight crew has corrected the fuel imbalance condition.
When does the TANK FUEL LOW caution light illuminate?
If the fuel quantity in the collector bay drops below approximately 305 pounds, a float switch will cause the caution light to illuminate in the flight compartment.
How is fuel quantity measured automatically?
A Fuel Quantity Computer uses nine capacitance-type fuel probes in each tank to determine the total fuel quantity. The independent fuel quantity (lbs.) of each tank is displayed in digital format at the bottom center area of the ED
How is fuel quantity measured manually?
Magnastick readings will indicate full whenever the tank is more than 700 U.S. gallons and will indicate empty whenever the tank is less than 100 U.S. gallons.
*Note: Not used by flight crew, mx only.
What is the purpose of the collector bay?
The collector bay provides a steady supply of fuel to the engine regardless of
aircraft attitude.
How does fuel get from the main tank to the collector bay?
- Scavenge ejector pumps, located at various stations in each main tank, continuously draw fuel from the main tank and deliver it to the collector bay. This ensures the collector bay is full at all times.
- Several flapper check valves (allowing only a one-way flow into the collector bay) are located at the base of the partition between the main tank and the collector bay. The flapper valves ensure a constant gravity-fed fuel flow into the collector bay.
What provides low-pressure suction within the fuel system?
Each collector bay contains a Primary Ejector Pump, which is mounted on the floor and provides a constant low-pressure/high-volume fuel supply to the Fuel Metering Unit (FMU).
What is the purpose of the dump valves?
Dump Valves automatically open and remain open to allow fuel tank venting whenever pressure refueling is in progress.
What is the purpose of NACA vents?
Each surge bay is vented through two internal standpipes connected to two separate NACA vents on the bottom of the wings. Any fuel that flows into the surge bay in flight is siphoned back into the main tank as fuel is used and as pressure in the main tank decreases.
What services are operated from the #1 hydraulic system?
1) Flaps
2) Anti skid brakes
3) Inboard roll spoilers
4) Rudder lower power control unit (PCU)
5) Elevators (outboard PCU)
6) PTU
What services are operated from the #2 hydraulic system?
1) Landing gear
2) Outboard roll spoilers
3) Nose wheel steering
4) Elevator (center PCU)
5) Rudder (upper PCU)
6) Emergency brake
What is the #3 hydraulic system used for?
Power for left and right elevator (inboard PCUs)
What is the #4 hydraulic system used for?
Alternate landing gear, to lock main gear into place if alternate extension failed to
do so.
How does the PTU operate?
When pushed, activates the Power Transfer Unit (PTU). The PTU functions as a backup pressure source for the #2 Main hydraulic system. Operation of the PTU requires normal operation of the #1 Main hydraulic system and normal fluid quantity in the #2 Main hydraulic system. The PTU will automatically turn on when the #2 engine fails or whenever the flaps are selected to any position greater than 0° (the parking brake released). The ON segment (green) of the PTU Switch light illuminates whenever the PTU is activated either automatically or manually
What does the green light on the PTU switch light indicate?
That the PTU is generating hydraulic pressure
When does the standby hydraulic pump automatically operate?
Standby pump will automatically activate when:
- No. 1 engine fails
- Whenever the flaps are selected to any position greater than 0° (the parking brake must be released)
** "ON" segment of the STBY HYD PRESS Switch light will illuminate only when the pump is activated manually using the switch light
Where is the standby hydraulic pump pressure indication displayed?
Standby pump operation can be confirmed by an indication of pressure on the STBY HYD PRESS indicator on MFD2
When do the hydraulic isolation valves close?
Fluid Loss in the system
Which services will still operate when the #1 hydraulic isolation valve closes?
- PTU
- Rudder
- Elevator
- Flaps
Which services will still operate when the #2 hydraulic isolation valve closes?
- Rudder
- Elevator
What services limit when the hydraulic priority valve modulates?
The following:
- #1 Hyd system
- Flaps
- PTU
Are isolated allowing hydraulic power to still operate:
- Elevators
- Rudder
- Inboard spoilers
- Brakes
When will the emergency hydraulic shut-off valves close?
Pulling the Pull Fuel/Hyd off Handle will close the emergency shut off valves
Describe the wing/stabilizer de-ice boots.
The system consists of:
- (6) sets of deicing boots
- (6) dual distributing valves (DDV) that control the inflation and deflation of each boot set
How long does each boot cycle last for in automatic mode?
6 seconds per boot set:
Slow = (180 seconds – 144 seconds (dwell time))/6 boot sets = 6 seconds per boot set
Fast = (60 seconds – 24 seconds (dwell time))/6 boot sets= 6 seconds per boot set
How long is the dwell time during automatic mode fast and slow?
- Slow dwell is 144 seconds
- Fast dwell is 24 seconds
What does manual deicing boot system mode selection do?
If the deicing TMU fails or if a leak develops in the deicing boot system, the boots can be cycled manually using the AIRFRAME MANUAL SELECT switch, located in the upper right corner of the Ice Protection Control Panel. The AIRFRAME MANUAL SELECT switch is rotated clockwise through each of the six (6) detent positions, duplicating the automatic inflation sequence. When using the manual mode, the AIRFRAME MANUAL SELECT switch should be left in each detent position until the corresponding set of deicing boot indicator lights illuminate. The switch may then be selected to the next position. Each set of related boots will remain inflated as long as the switch stays at the set position. After all six (6) boot sets have been inflated, a minimum dwell time of 24 seconds should be observed before inflating the boot sets again
Will the manual airframe select rotary de-ice selector work if not in "manual" mode?
YES
The manual mode selector just manually controls the heating of the DDVs and does not affect the use of the Manual Airframe Select
What is the indication of a leak in the pneumatic de-ice system?
A loss of deicing system pressure is indicated by the illumination of a caution light. A loss of deicing system pressure can be confirmed by referencing the deicing pressure gauge
What powers the propeller heat?
The leading edges of the propeller blades are protected from ice accumulation by electric heater elements bonded onto the leading edge of each blade. The respective 115-volt AC variable frequency bus supplies electrical power for the heating elements (i.e., the Left/Right 115-volt Variable AC Bus provides power for the left/right propeller heating element.)
What is the minimum oil temperature required for adequate inlet de-icing?
55°C To ensure engine air inlet ice protection prior to takeoff, 65°C within three minutes of setting takeoff power
What conditions must be met for engine intake adapter heaters to turn on?
- Engine intake bypass door is open
- Engine is running (oil pressure sensor)
- SAT is below approx. 15°C (temp sensor)
- 115v variable AC power is available
How long does each boot inflate in manual mode?
Each set of related boots will remain inflated as long as the switch stays at the set position. After all six (6) boot sets have been inflated, a minimum dwell time of 24 seconds should be observed before inflating the boot sets again
What is the indication if one of the intake adapter heater coils fail?
NONE
Each engine intake is equipped with a secondary heating element that will automatically activate if the primary element fails. If both heating elements fail it will result in the illumination of either ENG ADPT HEAT 1 or 2-caution light
How are the AOA vanes heated?
Left AOA heated by left 115v AC bus; Right AOA heated by right 115v AC bus
When does the pitot heat caution light illuminate?
Failure of a pitot/static probe heater element or failure of the crew to select the heater on is indicated by the illumination of a caution light
What does the INCREASE REF speed switch provide?
The SPS receives icing condition status input when the REF SPEEDS switch on the Ice Protection panel is selected to INCR. Selecting the REF SPEEDS switch in to INCR modifies SPS stall calculations for stall conditions adjusting for the reduced performance limits of the aircraft. In addition, an INCR REF SPEED message will appear on the Engine Display panel
What will happen if NON-Icing speeds are set with the aircraft flying close to those speeds and the INCR Ref switch is selected on?
The low speed cue will raise as much as 20kts possibly inducing a stick shaker.
When do the ice detection probes give an ICE DETECTED message?
That one or both ice detector probes have detected more than 0.5 mm of ice present
How is the landing gear controlled and actuated?
Electrically controlled and hydraulically actuated
What does the landing gear handle light indicate?
Illuminates whenever the gear is in transit
What is the maximum speed at which the landing gear can be operated (VLO)
The maximum speed at which it is safe to extend or retract the landing gear is 200 KIAS
What is the maximum speed at which the landing gear can remain extended (VLE)?
The maximum speed at which the airplane can be safely flown with land gear extended is 215 KIAS
What does the inhibit switch do?
The landing gear extension INHIBIT switch (guarded, toggle), located in the flight deck ceiling adjacent to the main LANDING GEAR ALTERNATE RELEASE door, is selected to INHIBIT. Selecting the switch to INHIBIT disables the electrical command sent to the landing gear solenoid valve for normal extension when the landing gear select handle is moved. The landing gear select handle can then be moved without gear activation
When do you need to do an alternate landing gear extension?
The Alternate Landing Gear Extension system provides a manual means of extending the landing gear when any of the following landing gear malfunctions occur: The LDG GEAR INOP caution light is illuminated or, The Landing gear indication fails or, There is a loss of #2 hydraulic system fluid
What happens when you open the alternate landing gear extension (ceiling)?
The LANDING GEAR ALTERNATE RELEASE door, located in the flight deck ceiling (over the First Officer’s seat), mechanically operates (opens) a bypass valve in the normal gear extension system. The opening of the bypass valve relieves #2 hydraulic system pressure from the landing gear uplocks to allow for manual release of the landing gear. Opening this door also allows access to the MAIN L/G RELEASE handle. The MAIN L/G RELEASE handle is then pulled to release the main landing gear doors and main gear uplocks. The main gear will free fall into the down position but may require to be pumped down to obtain a full down and locked position.
What happens when you open the alternate release panel (floor)?
The LANDING GEAR ALTERNATE EXTENSION door, located on the flight deck floor, is opened giving access to the alternate extension hand pump, the NOSE L/G RELEASE handle, and the alternate downlock verification light system. Opening this door mechanically operates (opens) the MLG alternate selector valve. The opening of this valve is necessary for pump operation. The pump handle, stored behind the copilot, is then inserted into the pump handle socket and the pump then operated to assure complete main gear extension and downlock. The NOSE L/G RELEASE handle is then pulled to release the nose gear doors and nose gear. The nose gear will free fall aft to a full down and locked position, being assisted by airflow. The advisory lights on the Landing Gear Control panel will indicate the status of all gear doors and gear. The Alternate Downlock Verification light system (in the floor) provides a redundant means of verifying the down and locked status of the landing gear
What is the maximum speed for an alternate landing gear extension?
Speed is limited to 185 KIAS because all wheel well doors remain open after gear is fully down
What is the minimum speed for operation of the anti-skid system?
10 Knots
Which hydraulic system powers the main brake system?
#1 Hydraulic System
When will the anti-skid braking system be available after landing?
The Anti skid control unit reactivates the main brake system when it receives a weight-on-wheels signal and senses a main wheel speed of 35 knots. In conditions of low runway friction (i.e., ice), where main wheel spin up may be delayed, the control unit will reactivate main brake capability five seconds after
receiving a weight-on-wheels signal
What is the minimum parking brake pressure for engine start?
- 500 psi parking brake pressure prior to starting the right engine first
- 1000 psi parking brake pressure prior to starting the left engine first
How many applications may be made with the Emergency Brake with a fully
charged accumulator?
6 applications
What is the steering range with the Rudder Pedals?
8 degrees to either side of center.
What is the steering range with the steering tiller?
The Steering Hand Control turns the nosewheel up to 70° either side of center for low speed taxi.
What is the steering range using differential braking and power?
In the free castor mode the nose wheel will rotate up to 120° either side of center. When operating in this mode differential braking and/or differential power must be used for directional control.
Which aircraft sensors are used by the FMS in calculating navigational and performance data?
- 2 GPS Antennas/Sensors
- 2 DME Sensors
- 2 VOR Sensors
- 2 Air Data Sensor/AHRS
- Fuel Flow Sensors
Can single FMS use both GPS sensors?
YES
#1 GPS sensor defaults to the #1 FMS and #2 GPS sensor defaults to the #2 FMS
If primary sensor fails affected FMS will switch to the remaining sensor, failure will be announced through an FMS message (GPS #1 DESELECT, or GPS #1 FAIL)
Where are the GPS antennae located?
Upper fuselage just forward of the wing.
What is the TGT function on the WX radar?
It advises the pilot of potentially hazardous targets outside of selected radar range
When operating the WX radar, what distance should be maintained from personnel and equipment?
100’ for personnel and 500’ from large metal objects
Can the aircraft be dispatched with inoperative radar?
YES
Provided there are no thunderstorms along the route and if at night it must be VMC
What is the purpose of the FADEC?
The FADEC controls the engine fuel flow based on various inputs from the
airplane, engine, and propeller control system. Fuel scheduling is the primary function of the FADEC. The FADEC also has the following additional functions:
• Controls various engine bleed valves to prevent compressor surges and stalls
• Prevents engine overspeed (@ 108% NH)
• Controls the automatic engine start sequence and engine shutdown
• Supplies voltage to the Propeller Electronic Control (PEC)
• Detects and indicates power plant faults
What start protections do the FADEC provide?
The FADEC will automatically terminate the start if:
• The engine does not light within 16 seconds after introduction of fuel flow
• The ITT limit of 920°C is exceeded (20 second max limitation)
• NH does not reach 64% within 70 seconds (hung, slow start)
What is the start sequencing provided by the FADEC?
At 8% NH, FADEC commands ignition on one igniter and controls fuel scheduling, if there is not light off within 8 seconds, FADEC commands both igniters.
What is the indication of a partial loss of function of the FADEC?
A #1or #2 ENG FADEC Caution light and possible engine surges or required staggering power levers.
What is the indication of a full failure of the FADEC?
The illumination of the #1 or #2 FADEC FAIL Warning light, and power on respective engine failed or at idle.
What are the indications of UPTRIM?
An UPTRIM message appearing on the ED, a change in the operating engines power rating from NTOP to MTOP on the ED, a change in the operating engines torque bug position from NTOP to MTOP
What are the MTOP limits?
• Max torque = 106%
• Max ITT = 880°C
• Max NL % RPM = 100
• Max NH % RPM = 100
• Max NP RPM = 1020
• Oil Pressure PSID = 61-72
• Oil Temp °C = 0-107
How are the intake heaters activated?
They are heated automatically when the intake bypass doors are open and the SAT is 15°C or below and there is 115-volt AC power available.
At what propeller RPM does the FADEC provide under speed governing (ground)?
660 RPM
What is the first propeller over speed protection?
The hydraulic section of the propeller overspeed governor reduces the high
pressure oil supply when propeller speed exceeds approx 1071 RPM
When does the FADEC over speed protection occur?
FADEC commands the fuel-metering unit FMU to reduce the amount of fuel
being supplied to the engine when a propeller overspeed of approx 1173 RPM is reached
What is the maximum in flight propeller RPM setting?
1020 PRPM
How do you manually feather the propeller?
Manual feather of the propeller is accomplished by selecting the respective condition lever to the start and feather gate
What happens if the propeller system loses oil?
The propeller blade natural twisting moment created by the counterweights will result in the propeller seeking a coarse pitch setting.
What is the auto feather delay?
(3) second delay is placed in between engine failure and activation of the auto feather
Can warning tones be heard through the speakers and headsets?
YES
WTG if it’s valid:
- Transmits appropriate signal to the remote control audio unit (RCAU)
- RCAU amplifies the signal and outputs the tone to the cockpit speakers and headsets
What does the warning tone generator provide?
Compute and provide warning tones, which alert the flight crew to specific events or system failures
What are the indications of a warning tone generator failure?
A WTG failure is stored and a WTG 1 FAIL or WTG 2 FAIL message is displayed in the ED advisory message location
What are the 10 warning tones provided in order of priority?
1) Engine fire
2) Takeoff warning
3) Autopilot disengagement
4) Pitch trim in motion
5) Over-speed warning
6) Incorrect landing gear configuration
7) Altitude alert
8) Beta lockout warning
9) Master warnings
10) Master cautions
What criteria will set of the T/O configuration tone when tested?
Horn will sound when there is weight on the nose wheel and both engines exceed 50% torque and any one of the following conditions exists:
- Inboard or outboard spoiler extended
- Elevators trim out of the T/O range
- Parking brake set to PARK
- One or both condition levers CLs not at max 1020 Rpm
- Flaps extended more than 20° or less than 3.6°
What are the visual indications of GPWS warnings?
- On the glareshield on CA’s and FO’s side
- PULL UP/GPWS TEST, switchlights (2) in RED
- BELOW G/S switchlights (2) in AMBER
How do you test the GPWS system prior to flight?
1) GPWS caution light out
2) EGPWS terrain inhibit switch normal
3) FMS initialized
4) Flaps 0°
5) GPWS flap override is normal and guarded
6) NAV and TERR selected on EFCP
7) ARCDUs are ON
8) Press momentarily either one of the red PULL UP – TEST switch lights
9) Observe that the captains and the first officers TERRAIN FAIL, BELOW G/S and PULL UP advisory lights illuminate
10) Ensure that GLIDESLOPE, PULL UP, and TERRAIN PULL UP is heard and that the terrain self test pattern appears on the MFD
**) Pressing the test switch for longer than 2 seconds will result in a long self test which annunciates all configured alerts and audible warnings
What is the difference between an RA and TA?
TA (traffic advisory): TCAS provides an aural traffic advisory alert on the cockpit audio system
RA (resolution advisory): TCAS provides an aural resolution advisory alert on the cockpit audio system, and a visual vertical maneuvering resolution advisory on the vertical speed indicators
Does FUELING ON CWP trigger any master caution?
NO
The FUELING ON caution light is the only caution light that is not accompanied by the illumination of the MASTER CAUTION light