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210 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What are Colgan Air’s guiding principles? Preface-xxix
Never compromise safety, Commitment to Communication, Financial Responsibility,
Ethics and Values, Commitment to Personal Development, Respect for all Colgan Air Inc
people, Customer service, Commitment to Stakeholders. Preface-xxix
Who is responsible for the policies, procedures, processes, and forms detailed within the
FOM? 1-3
The manual owner, which is the Director of Flight Operations
Company produced manuals are maintained and distributed by? 1-4
Tech Pubs
Where can a crewmember find current manual status for the FOM? 1-4
Employee website access through www.colganair.com or Voice recording
What are change bars that are found within the FOM? 1-5
Changes, other than typographical corrections or minor editorial changes are indicated by
vertical change bar (|) in the left margin area.
What is the Transmittal/Acknowledgement sheet? What does it do? 1-6
The Transmittal/Acknowledgement Sheet includes instructions for adding, deleting or
replacing pages and is accompanied by a Summary of Revision that highlights any policy
or procedural change associated with the revision. The manual holder must sign and
return this sheet to the location indicated on the Transmittal/Acknowledgement Sheet.
Can the FOM be loaned or given to a person outside the Company? Be copied or reproduced
without company consent? 1-6
no
What can a crewmember use to report field problems, manual errors, improvement
suggestions, accident/incident follow-up reporting, or other safety related concerns? 1-10
Feedback Reporting Form
Name different types of Safety reporting forms? 1-13
Aircraft/Equipment/Facilities Damage Report, Feedback reporting form, Cabin Safety
Report, Disruptive Passenger Incident Report, Aviation Safety Action Program (ASAP)
Report, Injury Report, Ground Safety and Hazard Reporting Program, Undeclared
Dangerous Good Discrepancy Report, and Irregularity Event Report.
What is an Aircraft Accident? 2-7
An occurrence associated with the operation of an aircraft which takes place between the
time any person boards and aircraft with the intention of flight until such time as all such
persons have disembarked, and in which any person suffers death, or serious injury as a
result of being in or upon the aircraft or by direct contact with the aircraft or anything
attached thereto, or in which the aircraft receives substantial damage
What is an Aircraft Incident? 2-8
An occurrence other than an accident, associated with the operation of an aircraft, which
affects or could affect the safety of operations
What is Block time? 2-8
Block time is the time between the main cabin door being closed and the parking brake
released to the time the aircraft arrives at the gate and the cabin door is opened. (For the
Saab the definition is the same without the parking brake requirement).
What is the definition of a Calendar Day? 2-8
It is defined as the period of elapsed time, using Universal Time or local time that begins
at midnight and ends 24 hours later at the next midnight. Time calculations are the Flight
Crewmembers base local time zone.
What is the Configuration Deviation List? 2-8
The CDL permits aircraft revenue operation with certain airframe or engine parts missing
What is a DMI? 2-9
A minor mechanical discrepancy deferred to a later date due to part, manpower, facility,
equipment, tooling, vendor availability or schedule protection or weather factors
What is Emergency Fuel? 2-12
An emergency fuel situation exists when the expected fuel supply at landing requires the
need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing and/or the fuel supply approaches the
following fuel quantities: SAAB 340 750LBS, Q400 1800LBS.
What is the definition of Flight Time? 2-12
The time commencing from the OUT time to the IN time, or Block Time
What is the definition of Marginal Weather? 2-12
The destination forecast weather is at minimums and first alternate ceiling or visibility is
at alternate minimums.
What is a Minimum Equipment List (MEL)? What are the category constraints? 2-13
The MEL permits aircraft revenue operation with certain aircraft systems inoperative. A
listing of all such systems and the associated limitation is developed by the aircraft
manufacturer and is incorporated into the FAA approved Aircraft Flight Manual. The
MEL must be referenced prior to dispatch to review any malfunctioning system or
component for possible limitations.
All aircraft MEL items are assigned categories and time limits for repair.
These are listed in the aircraft MEL.
• Category A – must be repaired within the constraints listed in the MEL
• Category B – must be repaired within 3 days
• Category C – must be repaired within 10 days
• Category D – must be repaired within 120 days
The day of the malfunction is not counted in the time limit and all MEL expirations are based
on 0000 EST.
What is minimum fuel? 2-13
An advisory made when it is determined that a landing at the destination is anticipated
with less than the planned reserve fuel listed on the Dispatch Release; or, if an alternate is
required, when forecast to land at the alternate airport with less than the planned reserve
listed on the Dispatch Release.
What are Non Essential Furnishings (NEF)? 2-13
The NEF program allows the repair of inoperative, damaged, or missing equipment or
furnishings on the aircraft to be deferred to a later date.
What is the definition of Serious Injury? 2-15
Any injury that:Requires hospitalization for more than 48 hours, commencing within 7 days from the
date the injury was received
• A fracture of any bone, (except simple fractures of fingers, toes or nose)
• Causes severe hemorrhage, nerve, muscle, or tendon damage
• Involves any internal organ
• Involves second or third degree burns or any burns affecting more than 5% of the
body surface.
What is the definition of Substantial Damage? 2-15
Any damage or failure, which adversely affects the structural strength, performance, or
flight characteristics of the aircraft and which would normally require major repair or
replacement of the affected component.
The following is NOT considered substantial damage:
• Engine failure or damage limited to an engine if only one engine fails or is damaged
• Bent fairings or cowling
• Dented skin
• Small punctured holes in the skin
• Ground damage to propeller blades
• Damage to landing gear, wheels, tires, flaps, engine accessories, brakes or wing tips
Which of the 4 company communications require the highest priority? Memo? Read and
Sign memo? CrewTrac Message? Or Dispatch Release Remarks? 2-17
Dispatch Release Remarks
Is it possible to operate an aircraft with a required aircraft manual missing? 2-19
Yes, as long as the exemption for the book in question is followed.
Who is the Director of Flight Operations? 3-4
look it up 3-4
Who is the Chief Pilot? 3-7
look it up 3-7
Who is the Director of SOC? 3-13
look it up 3-13
Who is the Director or Crewmember Resources? 3-14
look it up 3-14
Who is the Manager of Crew Scheduling? 3-16
look it up 3-16
What are the duties and responsibilities of the Pilot-In-Command? 3-10
23 items:
• Holds a valid Airline Transport Pilot Certificate with the appropriate category, class
and type ratings and a FAA first class medical certificate.
• Responsible for the aircraft, its crew and the manipulation of the flight controls of an
aircraft underway, including taxiing, take-off and landing of such aircraft. The Pilot
In Command is properly qualified and designated by the Company to serve and holds
currently effective airman certificates authorizing him to serve as such.
• During flight time, the PIC is in command of the aircraft and Crew, and is responsible
for the safety of the passengers, Crewmembers, cargo and the aircraft. He has full
control and authority in the operation of the aircraft, without limitations, over other
Crewmembers and their duties during flight time.
• Ensures compliance with all air-traffic rules and local airport rules established by the
country where operating; except where any regulation, provision of the Operations
Specifications of this manual, is more restrictive, and may be followed without
violating the rules of that country or airport.
• Jointly responsible with the Dispatcher for the preflight planning, delay and dispatch
release of a flight in compliance with the regulations and the Operations
Specifications. • Assists the Chief Pilot in monitoring the professional progression of the Second In
Command with whom he flies.
• Responsible to maintain current knowledge of those general subjects that enhances
his overall competency, ability and professionalism.
• Manages those assets for which he is responsible in a manner which is intended to
ensure an on-time departure from each station.
• Verifies the proper computation of the weight and balance for each flight.
• Serves as the In Flight Security Coordinator.
• Actively promotes and utilizes Crewmember Resource Management (CRM) while on
duty.
• Communicates with Flight Operations management in a manner which aids them in
their efforts to effectively administer their responsibilities.
• Presents a professional and responsive image to the customers and business
associates.
• Oversees deicing/anti-icing of the aircraft on the ground.
• Conducts appropriate pre-flight and post-flight briefing.
• Delegates duties as necessary, but such delegation does not relieve him of overall
responsibility.
• Performs duties in accordance with regulations and Company policy.
• Maintains open communication with other departments.
• Successfully completes the company indoctrination for upgrading Pilots In
Command. The program is an on-going presentation and evaluation presented during
the upgrade curriculum regarding interpersonal command issues, CRM, to include the
decision process so there is more individual understanding of the Company functions
and its goals.
• Monitors for proper completion of fueling procedures.
• At locations where regularly scheduled flight operations are not conducted, and/or
where personnel are not trained, provides direct supervision and oversight to ensure
fuel quality requirements are met and fueling procedures are followed. • May not operate an aircraft in a careless or reckless manner so as to endanger life or
property.
• Responsible for preflight planning and operation of the flight in compliance with
regulations and operations specifications.
Who does the Pilot In Command report to? 3-10
Regional Chief Pilot
What are the duties and responsibilities of the Second In Command? 3-12
• Assists or relieves the Pilot In Command in manipulation of the flight controls of an
aircraft while underway, including taxiing, take-off and landing.
• Responsible to the Pilot In Command and Regional Chief Pilot to assure that the
flights he participates in are in compliance with the regulations and Company
operating procedures.
• Serves as the Second In Command of the aircraft and, as such, assumes the duties of
the Pilot In Command should the Pilot In Command become incapacitated or unable
to perform his duties.
• Assists the Pilot In Command in conducting the flight safely and efficiently.
• Responsible to maintain current knowledge of those general subjects and aircraftrelated
information that enhance his overall competence, ability and professionalism.
• Holds, as a minimum, a valid commercial Pilot certificate, with appropriate category
and class ratings, an instrument rating, and is properly qualified and designated by the
Company to serve as Second In Command.
• Maintains open communication with the Pilot In Command as well as other Company
personnel, and performs other duties as assigned.
Who does the Second In Command report to? 3-12
Regional Chief Pilot
Can a crewmember perform their duties without their license or medical? 4-3
Yes, as long as the exemption is followed and the crewmember operates in the
Contiguous U.S and District of Columbia
What documents does a crewmember need to have in his/her possession while using the
exemption for lost or stolen License or Medical? 4-4
Company issued picture ID, State issued driver’s license with picture, passport, airport
issued ID with picture (if issued by airport).
How long does a crewmember have to wait to report for duty following Blood Donations,
Scuba Diving or Immunizations? 4-8
24 hours
How long after drinking alcohol must an employee wait before performing crew member
duties? 4-13
12 hours
Can a crewmember smoke or use smokeless tobacco/snuff products on a Company Aircraft?
5-15
No
Can a crewmember use Analgesics (pain killers) while on duty? 4-14
Yes, as long as it is aspirin, ibuprofen, acetaminophen, Bufferin or Anacin.
What are some of the effects of operating while fatigued? 4-22
Forgetfulness, irritation, poor communications, poor decision making, fixation, reduced
vigilance and mood swings may occur
Can a crewmember remove them self from duty if they feel fatigued? 4-24
Yes, however they must notify crew scheduling and submit a written report online within
24 hours. (crew website -> safety and security-> Crew Member Fatigue Report
Where must you wear your company issued ID while on duty? 4-30
Above the waist while inside the Security Identification Display Area (SIDA), and may
not be attached to your hat, epaulettes, or shirt collar
Can a Pilot In Command fly with a Second In Command when both crewmembers have less
than 100hrs of line operating flight time? 4-41
No
What are the restrictions for a Second In Command when he/she has less than 100hrs of
Flight Time when they are not with a Check Pilot? 4-42
The Pilot in Command must make all takeoff and landings when:
• At special airports designated by the Administrator or by the Company
• Prevailing visibility in the latest weather report for the airport is at or below 3/4 mile
• RVR at or below 4000ft
• Runway to be used has water, snow, slush, or similar conditions that affect aircraft
performance.
• Braking action less than “Good”
• Crosswind greater than 15 knots
• Wind shear in the vicinity of the airport
• Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) in effect
• Anytime the Pilot in Command deems appropriate.
What is the minimum report time prior to scheduled departure for the Q400 and SAAB 340?
4-45
60 minutes prior to scheduled domestic flights, and 75 minutes prior to scheduled
international flights.
When is a crewmember considered released from duty? 4-48
15 minutes after the flight blocks in at the gate. Except if the aircraft has to taxi to a
maintenance facility, or the crew is experiencing excessive time to reach the hotel for a
RON.
What are the flight time limitations for crewmembers? 4-50
Flight Time Limitation Time Period
8 hours Between required rest periods
30 hours In 7 consecutive days
100 hours In one calendar month
1000 hours During any calendar year
What are the rest requirements following reduced rest? 4-52
Rest Schedule (hrs)
Flight Time Scheduled in 24hrs
Normal Reduced Compensatory
Less than 8 9 8 10
More than 8 but less than 9 10 8 11
More than 9 11 9 12
Is a 91 flight operated before the start of a domestic flight schedule considered part of the
scheduled flight time limitations? 4-53
yes
Can a crewmember be on duty more that 16hrs? 4-53
Yes, as long as the crewmember is within his/her normal schedule and the aircraft
experiences a delay once airborne
If a crew member exceeds 15 hours of duty, how much rest is required? 4-54
He/she must have a minimum of 10 hours of rest
If a crewmember is given compensatory rest of 10hrs what will his/her maximum duty day
be the following duty period? 4-53
14hrs
Is a diversion that continues to the original destination considered a change to the flight
crewmember schedule? 4-54
no
How long is the reserve callout at EWR, IAD, IAH, BOS and LGA? 4-55
90 minutes
How long is the reserve callout at outstations? 4-55
60 minutes
What is required of a crew member on “hot reserve”? 4-55
The crew member must be at the airport, in uniform, and ready for duty
Who is the Pilot-In-Command of a flight crew consisting of two Captains? 4-56
The Captain listed on the Dispatch Release.
What are the qualification requirements to operate as a flight crewmember? 4-58
• Complete all Ground and Flight training as prescribed.
• Certify as proficient to conduct the duties of Pilot In Command or Second In
Command.
• Hold the appropriate certificate with appropriate category and class ratings for the
aircraft concerned.
AND, unless under the supervision of a qualified Check Airman:
• Complete Operating Experience in that aircraft type and Crewmember position.
• Undergo observation by the FAA during at least one flight leg which includes a
takeoff and landing (for a Pilot In Command completing initial or upgrade training).
• Receive a line check.
• Meet the Recent Experience requirements.
• Meet crew scheduling requirements as an inexperienced crewmember.
• Meet the Consolidation of Knowledge and Skills requirements.
What are the hour and time requirements to fulfill Consolidation of Knowledge? 4-60
100hrs within 120 days
What are the restrictions to a High Minimums Pilot in Command? 4-66
½ mile addition to the landing visibility and 100ft addition to the published MDA or DH
What are the restrictions to a High Minimums Pilot in Command in regards to an alternate?
4-67
The MDA or DA(H) and visibility minimums need not be increased above that applicable
to the airport when used as an alternate airport, but in no event may the landing
minimums be less than an MDA or DA(H) of 300 feet and a visibility of 1 mile
How often is a Pilot In Command required to get a line check? 4-68
every 12 months
Under what criteria may a PIC fly into a special use airport? 4-74
• The ceiling is at least 1,000 feet above the lowest MEA or MOCA, or initial approach
altitude prescribed for the instrument approach procedure for that airport, and the
visibility at that airport is at least 3 miles, OR
• Within the preceding 12 calendar months either the Pilot In Command or Second In
Command has made an entry to that airport (including a takeoff and landing) while
serving as a Flight Crewmember, OR
• The Pilot In Command has reviewed the distinguishing characteristics of the airport
through the use of an approved pictorial means provided by the company in the
Jeppesen Route Manual
What is the Special Winter Operations Airports (SWOA) program? 4-78
The Special Winter Operations Airports (SWOA) program is designed to identify airports
that pose an increased threat to Flight Crewmembers during winter operations.
What are some of the basic restrictions to a SWOA? 4-76
• Captain is PF for Takeoff and Landing
• Approach must have vertical guidance
• Braking action report must be less than 1 hour old
• Max tailwind is 0 knots • Max crosswind with poor braking action is 5 knots (SAAB), 15 knots (Q400)
What is the purpose of the ASAP program? 4-79
The purposes of ASAP are to identify safety events and to implement corrective
measures that reduce the opportunity for safety to be compromised. ASAP is intended to
improve flight safety through a self-report, cooperative follow-up and appropriate
corrective action.
What events require an irregularity report? 4-82
• Passenger mishap no matter how minor
• “Air return” or “Rejected Takeoff”
• Return to the gate for any reason
• Breach of Security
• Employee Mishap
• Any interference to aircraft systems caused by cellular phones or PED’s Operation
What is the minimum flight crew for all company operations? 5-6
Two, Pilot in Command and Second In Command.
What is the minimum number of flight attendants required for revenue operations? 5-7
Saab 340 1
Q400 2
When is the Second in Command considered the Pilot in Command? 5-8
When the Pilot in Command becomes obviously ill during flight, incapable of conducting
the flight, or is unable to delegate command.
What is the required personal equipment a flight deck crewmember must have when on duty?
5-8
• Company ID
• Airport ID (if applicable)
• FAA Certificate
• FAA Medical
• FCC Permit (not required while operating in the Continental United States)
• Passport (not required while operating in the Continental United States)
• FOM
• CFM VOL I
• Jeppesen Manuals
• Aviation Headset
• Flashlight
Can any of the required personal equipment be missing? 5-9
Yes, as long as the crew follows the listed exemption .
If a crewmember has a corrective lenses restriction to their medical, do they have to wear
their corrective lenses while on duty? How many pairs must be readily available? 5-13
Yes. Two, one to wear and one backup
Does one of the pilot stations need to be manned during boarding? 5-14
Yes, 10 min prior to boarding
Does the company have a format for exchanging flight controls? 5-17
Yes. Example:
PF: “Heading 360, 6000 feet, 170 kts”, and any abnormalities or navigational
requirements. “Your controls”
PM: “My controls, heading 360, 6000 feet, 170 kts”, and any abnormalities or
navigational duties that were briefed
When is the aircraft in Sterile Cockpit? 5-17
During taxi (when the aircraft is moving under its own power), takeoff to 10,000ft,
descending through 10,000ft, or within 1,000 ft of level off at a new assigned altitude
When must the flight deck door be closed and locked? 5-18
During flight operations
When should calls to stations to report Out/Off/On/In times be made? 5-18
• On Ground: When the aircraft is at a full stop with the parking brake set
• In Air: Above 5,000ft unless a cruise altitude lower than 10,000 ft is planned, in which
case, the calls must be made at that cruise altitude (Not applicable to the Q400 when
ACARS is operational)
Who does the company delegate to authorize the use of the jumpseat? 5-19
Pilot in Command, Chief Pilot and Director of Flight Operations
What forms must an FAA Inspector present to travel on a Company Aircraft? 5-21
FAA Form 110A and FAA Form 8430-13 “Request for Access to Aircraft”
May a badge or shield be presented as a sole method of identification to allow an FAA
Inspector access to an aircraft? 5-21
No
What are the items a Pilot In Command should brief to an ACM onboard the jumpseat? 5-29
• ACM briefing card
• Use of seat belts
• Location and use of emergency exits
• Use of oxygen and emergency oxygen equipment
• Traffic monitoring
Which of the following persons has the highest jumpseat priority: Secret Service Agent,
Authorized representative of the Administrator or NTSB, company certified pilot? 5-28
Secret Service
When is the aircraft considered to be in a critical phase of flight? 5-30
Taxi, Takeoff, Landing, within 1000ft of a newly assigned altitude, and all other
operations below 10,000ft unless the aircraft is at cruise
Who is jointly responsible with the Pilot-In-Command for the safe conduct of each flight?
5-32
Dispatch
What documents are required for the Pilot-In-Command to carry in the aircraft to its
destination? 5-34
• Completed load manifest
• Dispatch release
• Pilot Route Qualification (signature on release signifies qualification)
• Flight Plan
What is ECAPS? 5-34
Enhanced Crew Awareness Procedures
What are examples of topics that are covered in the ECAPS program? 5-34
• Reducing Runway Incursions
• Preventing Altitude Deviations
• Use of Exterior Aircraft Lights
When must the CVR be operating? 5-42
Before running the checklists (i.e. before running the Before Start Checklist) to the
termination of the flight
When must the FDR be operating? 5-43
It must be on from the instant the aircraft begins its takeoff roll until it has completed its
landing roll at an airport
When must the navigation lights be illuminated? 5-41
Anytime the aircraft is powered
Name some electronic devices that may never be used onboard an aircraft? 5-52
• Two way transmitters such as walkie-talkies, two way pagers, or amateur radios
• Portable radios or T.Vs
• Remote control toys
• Peripheral devices for computers such as printers and joysticks
• All Bluetooth devices
When must personal cell phones be turned off when riding on the flight or jumpseat? 5-54
When the main cabin door has been closed
Can a cell phone be used while conducting a preflight walk around? 5-54
No
When is the use of personal cell phones prohibited, and are there exceptions? 5-54
Pre-departure and post-arrival operations and preflight. Exceptions: when operationally
necessary, and with the parking brake set
Who may not occupy an emergency exit row? 5-60
• Under the age of 15
• Unable to read and understand the emergency instruction cards or FA instructions
• Handicapped, blind or deaf
• Someone with a lap child
• Those who are unwilling
Is there any additional briefing required for passengers sitting in an exit row? 5-55
Yes, passengers MUST be briefed and understand the requirements of sitting in an exit
row
Do passengers have to verbally respond that they understand the requirements to sit in an exit
row? 5-61
Yes
What must a flight crew do after initial check in for a flight pairing? 6-1
• Check mailbox
• Review and understand ops bulletins
• Review the read and sign memos
• Be familiar with routes and airports
• Check and/or revise company issued approach and enroute charts
• Review notams
• Check latest revision of FOM and revise manual as necessary
What items must the Pilot In Command ensure are onboard the assigned aircraft as part of the
Airworthiness Verification? 6-3
• Airworthiness Certificate
• Registration Certificate
• Flight Log
• MEL/NEF/DMI Control Log
• MEL “Inoperative” Stickers
• Red “Aircraft Under Maintenance Control” placard
• Circuit breaker Collars (for MEL procedures)
What are the four concepts of CRM? 6-5
Authority, Participation, Assertiveness, and Respect
What does VVM stand for? 6-8
Verbalize, Verify, Monitor
Is Hot Refueling allowed on Colgan Aircraft? 6-21
No
What is the definition of Hot Refueling? 6-21
Hot Refueling is defined as refueling with one or more main engines operating
Does the Main Cabin Door have to be open during refueling? 6-22
Yes
Are there any restrictions on fueling with lightning in the vicinity? What would “in the
vicinity” mean? 6-23
Yes, the Pilot in Command should terminate/stop fueling if lightning is in the vicinity. In
the vicinity generally means within 3 miles of the field
How early can a flight depart without approval from SOC? 6-25
10 minutes
During Long Onboard Delays (LOB), how long can the aircraft remain on the tarmac without
a gate return? 6-26
3 hours
How often should the Pilot in Command make an announcement during long delays off the
gate? 6-28
Atleast every 20 minutes
What should the F/A’s provide to passengers as onboard delays reach 90 minutes? 6-29
Snacks and Water
When onboard delays reach 2 hours what should the Pilot in Command coordinate? 6-29
An exit strategy to prepare to move passengers back to the gate
What will happen when an onboard delay reaches 2.5 hours? 6-30
The Pilot in Command, unless departure is imminent, will move the aircraft back to the
gate, or to a position to deplane the passengers.
Is the use of reverse thrust authorized for rearward taxi? 6-39
No
Are there any restrictions to doing an intersection departure? 6-38
The crew must have aircraft performance analysis/gross weight information for that
intersection
What is the Standard Takeoff minimum for two engine aircraft? 6-41
1SM or 5000RVR
Can a flight depart from an airport where takeoff minimums are greater than standard? 6-41
Yes, if the weather conditions are at or above the required minimums
Can a flight crew depart if an alternate procedure is specified for takeoff (such as a minimum
climb gradient)? 6-40
Yes, as long as the aircraft can comply with the alternate procedure
When takeoff minimums are equal to or less than applicable standard takeoff minimum is the
company allowed to use lower than standard takeoff minima? 6-42
Yes
When takeoff minimums are not published, what minimums must be used? 6-42 &
Appendix C, C078 (p.1140).
When Takeoff minimums are not published the company may use the standard takeoff
minima and any lower than standard takeoff minimums. (NOTE: Where 500 RVR
Takeoff minimums are published, we cannot use less than 600 RVR per OpSpec C078).
What runway equipment is required to conduct a Lower than Standard Takeoff minima?
IFR LOWER THAN STANDARD TAKEOFF MINIMUMS – OpSpec C078
look it up, no reason to have this memorized but know where to find it
What is the minimum altitude after takeoff to commence any turn? 6-48
400 ft AGL, unless in the interest of safety, due to DP, ATC, or noise abatement a earlier
turn is required. In no case will a turn be made below 100 ft AGL.
What are the maximum holding speeds per the F.A.R.’s? 6-61
• MHA-6,000ft = 200kts
• 6,001-14,000 = 230kts
• 14,001 and above = 265kts
How would you compute your maximum holding time? 6-62
Add the following together:
• Fuel burn from present position to destination
• Fuel burn to the alternate
• FAA reserve fuel
• Any additional anticipated delays or other factors that increase the minimum fuel
requirement
Then subtract this amount from the Fuel on Board (FOB) and divide by the holding fuel
consumption rate
What are the requirements to operate in terminal area of class G airspace? 6-64
• The airport is served by an authorized instrument approach procedure
• The airport has an approved source of weather • The airport has a suitable means for the pilot to acquire air traffic advisories
• The facilities and services necessary to safely conduct IFR operations are available
and operational at the time of operation
What are the minimum items required on a visual approach briefing? 6-67
• Airport elevation
• Pattern altitude
• Navigation facilities or aids available
• Any other conditions which might affect how the approach and landing will be
conducted
What is the maximum rate of decent under 2500ft AGL? 6-65
1500fpm
What is Colgan Air’s stabilized approach criteria? 6-68
Rate of Descent By 1000 ft above field elevation (AFE), the descent rate is transitioning to no
greater than 1000fpm
Flight
Parameters
Below 1000ft (IMC) or 500ft (VMC) AFE the aircraft is:
• On the proper flight path (visual or electronic) with only small
changes in pitch and heading required to maintain that path
• At a speed no less than Vref and not greater than Vref +20 or Vfa as
applicable to flight conditions, wind gusts, etc.
Visual
Approaches
Company policy requires the pilot to use the most precise navigation and
visual approach aids available
If an aircraft becomes outside of Stabilized approach Criteria what action should be taken?
6-68
Missed Approach
What aircraft category should be used to determine circling approach minimums? 6-69
• Q400: Cat C (Note: Circling approaches are not authorized for the Q400)
• Saab 340: Cat B or C (depending on landing weight configuration)
Where would you find the circling approach restrictions for a given airport? 6-76
The Jeppesen 10-7 page for the airport
Is Colgan Air authorized to fly a PAR (Precision Approach Radar) approach? 6-80
No. Only in an emergency.
On a Cat I approach with the approach lights in sight, how low can the pilot take the aircraft?
6-79
100 ft above the touchdown zone elevation
What are the requirements to cancel IFR and fly to the field VFR? 6-84
• Weather conditions at the airport are reported to be at or above a ceiling of 1,000 feet
and visibility of 3 miles
• The flight is operated in accordance of the basic cloud clearance requirements of 14
CFR 91
At a controlled airport within Class B, C, or D or within 10 miles of the destination
airport in Class E airspace:
• Remains within controlled airspace when available
• Is radar monitored with traffic advisories by ATC
• Is in direct communication with the appropriate ATC facility
At uncontrolled airports:
• Is in contact with an air/ground communication facility or agent providing airport
traffic advisories
• Is within 10 NM or the airport OR visual reference is maintained with the destination
airport
What are the glide slope requirements in VMC? 6-88
Use of electronic glide slope or VASI/PAPI, if available, is required
Where can you find LAHSO information for a particular airport? 6-87
In the FOM (Chap 6 pg. 6-98) - Destination Airports with LAHSO chart to check each
available runway with acceptable LAHSO clearances
What are the minimum allowable turn times? 6-109
• Saab 340: 25 min
• Q400: 35 min (at Hubs) / 30 min (at outstations)
Are single engine turns allowed? 6-108
Yes for the Saab 340 (under special conditions), No for the Q400
Under what conditions are single engine turns for the Saab 340 authorized? 6-105
• Operating under a restrictive MEL
• Limited battery power for battery start
• Battery temperature limitations due to high ambient temperature
• Station does not have a ground power unit available to start or power the aircraft
What are some flights that may be operated under part 91? 6-110
• Reposition flights
• Special Flight Permits
• Demonstration Flight
• Company Transportation
• Common Purpose Flights
Name some events, which require mandatory notification to the NTSB? 6-116
• Flight Control system failure
• Inability of a flight crewmember to perform his/her duty
• Failure of any internal turbine engine component that results in the escape of debris
other than out the exhaust
• In flight fire
• Aircraft collide in flight
• Damage to property other than the aircraft exceeding $25,000 for repair
• In flight failure of electrical systems which requires the sustained use of an
emergency bus
• In flight failure of hydraulic systems that results in the sustained reliance on the sole
remaining hydraulic or mechanical system
• Sustained loss of the power or thrust produced by two or more engines
• An evacuation of an aircraft in which an emergency egress system is utilized
• Release of all or a portion of a propeller blade from an aircraft, excluding release
caused solely by ground contact
• A complete loss of information, excluding flickering, from more than 50 percent of
an aircraft’s cockpit displays
• Airborne Collision and Avoidance System (ACAS) resolution advisories
• Any event in which an aircraft operated by an air carrier lands or departs on a
taxiway, incorrect runway, or other area not designed as a runway
• Runway incursions that requires the operator or the crew of another aircraft or vehicle
to take immediate corrective action to avoid a collision
• An aircraft is overdue and is believed to have been involved in an accident
What is the acronym for a planned emergency to the cabin crew? 6-119
N – Nature of the emergency, T – Time to prepare the cabin, S – Special Instructions, B –
Bracing and evacuation (what they are and who will give them)
How do you verify the airworthiness of the aircraft? 7-2
• Ensure the required documents and logs/logbooks are on the assigned aircraft
• Review the Deferred Item Log.
How do you correct a logbook entry made in error? 7-7
• Draw a single line through the word(s); do not obliterate
• Initial and date adjacent to the entry made in error
• Rewrite entry, as necessary
After completing a supplemental system reset with a satisfactory result, does an entry need to
be made in the aircraft logbook? 7-25
Yes
Is there any tool used prior to performing a Special Ferry Permit, Reposition flight, or
Operational check flight? 7-33
Yes, Dispatch will consult the Flight Risk Assessment tool
Can a CB be reset in flight? 7-37
Yes, if doing so is consistent with explicit procedures specified in the approved operating
manual used by the flight crew
Who can reset tripped circuit breakers on the ground from an unknown cause? 7-36
only MX
What signal is given to the flight attendant when passing through 10,000ft or at cruise if
below 10,000ft to indicate sterile cockpit has ended? 8-28
A double chime using the sterile cockpit or no smoking sign switch
Does telling ATC you are “minimum fuel” indicate the need for priority or emergency
handling? 8-41
No, minimum fuel is not an emergency situation but merely an advisory that an
emergency situation may be created if any undue delays occur
When flying into or out of a non-controlled airport how far out should you monitor and
communicate on designated CTAF frequency? 8-42
minimum 10 miles
What Flight/Duty times does Colgan Air use when scheduling Flag operations? 9-1
Domestic flight/duty time limitations that are more restrictive than flag flight time
limitations
What documents may be required to be onboard the aircraft when operating an international
flight? 9-4 to 9-6
• General Declarations Form
• Passenger Manifest
• I-92 Aircraft/Vessel Report Form
Which documents might a crewmember be required to provide to customs or immigration?
9-17
• Passport Information
• Alien Registration Card
• Passenger Customs and Immigration Form E-311
Who is responsible for ensuring all crewmembers have required international documentation
prior to departure? 9-18
PIC
Can a company ID badge be used in lieu of a passport for the purpose of re-entering the US?
9-17
No
Where can you find airspeed restrictions for Canadian destination airports? 9-27
Company issued Jeppesen 10-7 pages
When is an aircraft restricted to 200 knots in Canadian airspace? 9-27
Below 3,000 ft AGL within 10NM of a controlled airport
What does the term CAVOK stand for? 9-28
Ceiling and vis OK
When is a cold weather pre-flight required? 10-9
• OAT is 50°F (10°C) or less or the wing fuel temperature is 32°F (0°C) or less, and
one or more of the following exist:
o There is visible moisture (rain, sleet, drizzle, sleet, snow, fog, etc.)
o Water is present on the wing
o The difference between the dew point temperature and the OAT is 5°F (3°C)
o The atmospheric conditions are conducive to frost formations. (e.g.,
conditions of high relative humidity on aircraft surfaces at or below the frost
point such as, ground fog and ice clouds)
o Slush is present on runways, or wind, jet engine exhaust, prop or rotor wash,
has blown, splashed, or caused snow, ice particles or water to contact aircraft
surfaces
What are some examples of “critical aircraft surfaces”? 10-10
• Wings, flaps, spoilers and associated flight control surfaces and areas
• Fuselage, vertical stabilizer, rudder and associated flight control surfaces and areas
• Horizontal stabilizer and associated flight control surfaces and areas
• Engine/APU inlets exhausts, propellers, including CSD, oil cooler, pneumatic air
cooler and blast air inlets and probes
• Landing gear and landing gear doors, including latches, indication switches and
linkages
• Air-conditioning inlets and exhausts
• Fuel tank vents
• Pitot probes, static ports, angle-of-attack sensors and total air temperature probes
Are takeoffs during heavy ice pellets, heavy snow, moderate or heavy freezing rain or hail
authorized? 10-13
No, no holdover times exist for these conditions
Under what conditions is takeoff during light-moderate ice pellets authorized? 10-14
• Ice pellet precipitation does not become heavy
• The aircraft is anti-iced with undiluted Type IV fluid
• Ice Pellet Allowance Times are adhered to
Can the APU be active during the application of deicing/anti-icing fluids? 10-27
No
When does the start of the holdover time commence? 10-45
At the start of the final application
What signs indicate anti-ice fluid failure? 10-49
• loss of gloss (fluid looks dull)
• snow or ice accumulation
• surface freezing
• build up of ice crystals in fluid
• presence of slush
What is a pre-takeoff check? 10-48
When ground icing conditions are present; after completion of deicing/anti-icing; after
establishing holdover times, aircraft representative surfaces are again inspected to ensure
they are clear of contaminants just prior to takeoff
What are examples of “representative aircraft surfaces”? 10-49
Windshield wipers, base of windshield and upper surface of aircraft nose that is visible
from the cockpit, leading edges and upper portion of the wing
Is Colgan Air authorized to conduct pre-takeoff contamination checks? 10-52
No
Is flight through known severe and/or extreme turbulence authorized? 10-55
No
What techniques should be used to avoid wake turbulence when departing behind a larger
aircraft? 10-59
• Note the larger aircraft’s rotation point and rotate prior to reaching it
• Continue climbing above the larger aircraft’s climb path until turning clear of the
larger aircraft’s wake
• Avoid subsequent headings which cross below and behind a larger aircraft
• Be alert for any critical takeoff situation leading to a vortex encounter
When entering a thunderstorm area what is the minimum clearance recommended? 10-60
10 miles from intense buildups (20 miles if possible)
When flying into volcanic ash what effects can be expected? 10-68
• Smoke or dust appearing on the flight deck
• A strong smell of sulfur (acrid odor) similar to electrical smoke
• Multiple engine malfunctions, such as stalls, increasing ITT, torching from tailpipe,
and flameouts
• At night, St. Elmo's fire or other static discharges accompanied by a bright orange
glow in the engine inlets
• A fire warning in the forward cargo area (if system installed)
What is the age range for a person to be considered a “Child”? 11-6
Age 2-12
Does Colgan Air transport Dangerous Goods (DG) Company Materials (COMAT)? 12-1
No
What is the only exception to the carriage of DG COMAT that is allowed? 12-7
A tire assembly with a serviceable tire provided the tire is not inflated to a gauge pressure
exceeding the maximum rated pressure for the tire
What are some exceptions to the carriage of DG allowed for passengers and crewmembers?
12-8
• Nonradioactive medicinal and toilet articles (including aerosols)
• Small-arms ammunition for personal use
• Heart pacemakers
• Dry ice (carbon dioxide, solid), in quantities not exceeding 2.5 kg (5.5 lb) per person
• Alcoholic beverages containing not more than 24% alcohol by volume OR more than
24% and not more than 70% alcohol by volume when in unopened retail packaging
not exceeding 5 liters (1.3) gallons
• Carbon dioxide gas cylinders worn by passengers for the operation of mechanical
limbs
• Hair curlers containing hydrocarbon gas
• A mercurial barometer or thermometer
• A small medical or clinical mercury thermometer for personal use
• A wheelchair or other battery-powered mobility aid equipped with a spillable/nonspillable
battery
• One book of safety matches or one lighter intended for use by an individual
• Portable electronic devices (for example, cameras, cellular phones, laptop computers,
and camcorders) powered by fuel cell systems
• Consumer electronic and medical devices (watches, calculating machines, cameras,
cellular phones, lap-top and notebook computers, camcorders, etc.) containing lithium
cells or batteries
Note: See FOM pg 12-8 for exceptions and limitations on each of these examples
Where should a PIC land in the event of an engine failure or when an engine is shut down to
prevent possible damage? 13-4
At the nearest suitable airport
In the event of an evacuation what are some of the PIC duties? 13-7
• Complete flight deck duties
• Assess conditions in the cabin
• Open forward exits, if still closed – Priority of Forward Passenger Door
• Assist passengers in exiting the aircraft
• Once all passengers are off the aircraft, or if life is in danger the Pilot In Command
exits the aircraft. If necessary, remove incapacitated Flight Attendants from aircraft
• Assist in keeping passengers upwind of aircraft, ask an Able Body Person to assist
• Take charge of all passengers and Crewmembers. Keep people together, away from
aircraft
• Do not allow passengers to smoke or to reenter the aircraft
• Supervise provisions of first aid and shelter
In the event of an evacuation what are some of the SIC duties? 13-7
• Complete flight deck duties
• Exit out hatch or forward exit
• Assess exits and evacuation conditions on aircraft right
• If not yet done, open forward exits
• Assist passenger in exiting the aircraft
• Assist the Flight Attendant and Pilot In Command
What services does MedLink provide? 13-8
The MedLink service can connect Flight Crews directly with board certified emergency
room physicians specially trained to handle emergencies in remote locations by radio, flight phone or telephone. MedLink also coordinates ground medical support when
required
How can flight crews contact MedLink? 13-8
through commercial phone or ARINC
What is the definition of marginal weather? 15-15
see chart 15-15
The destination forecast weather is at minimums and first alternate ceiling or visibility is
at alternate minimums.
Where would a pilot be notified that a flight was being dispatched under exemption 3585?
15-20
remarks section of the dispatch release
If being dispatched to a destination using exemption 3585 how many alternates must be
listed? 15-16
two
What are the weather requirements for using exemption 3585? 15-17
see chart 15-17
For the purposes of takeoff and landing what visibility reports are controlling? 15-21
RVR, runway visibility value (RVV), or runway visibility by observer (RVO) on the
runway to be used is controlling when such reports are available
Is takeoff or landing authorized when the braking action is reported as less than “poor”? 15-
30
No
What criteria are used when calculating derived alternate minimums? 15-32
See chart 15-32

One Nav: Add 400 ft to the MDH or DH and 1SM to vis
Two Navs: Add 200 ft to the highest MDH or DH and 1/2SM to the highest vis
What defines a “suitable” runway for the purposes of determining derived alternate
minimums? 15-31
“Suitable” means a runway of required length, taking into consideration the forecast
winds at the ETA (may be the same strip, but opposing ends)
Do high minimum PIC restrictions apply to determining landing minimums for a takeoff
alternate requirement? 15-33
Yes
What are some examples of types of alternates? 15-34 – 15-35
Per the study guide:
• 1-2-3 rule alternate
• Wind alternate
• Drift-down alternate
• Braking action alternate
Per T.N.:
Regular...1-2-3 rule/destination without IAP
Captain.....Captain (or dispatch) discretion
To............Takeoff
Break........Braking...braking action poor or nil
Down.........Drift down
Wind.........Wind
If you depart from a non-controlled airport VFR when should you pick up a clearance from
ATC once airborne? 15-48
The Flight Crew must obtain an IFR clearance as soon as practical after takeoff, but no
farther than 50 NM from the departure airport
When is a dispatch release required? 15-56
• All Company scheduled, originating flights operated under 14 CFR Part 121
• A continuation flight at any intermediate station after a ground time of more than 1
hour for domestic operations and more than 6 hours for flag operations
As per company policy can a pilot depart on any company issued flight without a dispatch
release? 15-81
No. Although not required for nonrevenue operations conducted under 14 CFR Part 91
(repositioning flights, maintenance ferries, training flights, demonstration flights or
Company business), a dispatch release is required, per Company policy
What items are required to be on a dispatch release? 15-86
• Aircraft identification number
• Trip or flight number and date of flight
• Departure, destination, alternate airports and any intermediate stops
• The type of operation (i.e., instrument flight rules (IFR), visual flight rules (VFR),
etc.)
• The minimum fuel supply required for the flight
• ATC computer flight plan
How long after the departure time does a dispatch release remain valid? 15-59
60 minutes past the ETD
If a dispatch release has “expired” how may the PIC amend it to make it valid again? 15-59
Contact dispatch to obtain a new valid departure time, then include time and initials on
the release next to the new ETD
When is a new dispatch release required? 15-61
• Before a flight departs an originating station after a delay of more than 1 hour
• Any time a flight remains at the airport for more than 1 hour at an intermediate airport
(does not apply to originating flights)
• When an aircraft returns to the station of last departure after becoming airborne
• When an MEL/CDL is added (that was not on the original dispatch release) or cleared
from the aircraft
• Flight number changes
• Aircraft changes
• Amended or updated Terminal Area Forecast (TAF) (if aircraft is still at the gate) that
requires the addition of a destination alternate
• Before departing any station where an unscheduled landing is made
• If the flight is unable to depart in accordance with the dispatch release previously
issued by the Dispatcher
• If both Flight Crewmembers are changed on the original release
• When the Pilot In Command requests a change to the dispatch release before
departure
Where would dispatch inform the pilot that the aircraft has been placed on derivative power
(SAAB ONLY)? 15-96
In the remarks of the dispatch release
What is the standard fuel burn that dispatch uses for flight planning? 15-100
• Saab 340: 1200 lbs/hr
• Q400: 2600 lbs/hr
When would a flight crew attach the designator “Lifeguard” to their call sign with ATC?
15-109
When carrying urgently needed lifesaving medical materials or vital human organs. This
designation results in ATC priority handling, but does NOT constitute an emergency
declaration
What personnel are allowed on board during an Operational Check Flight (OCF)? 15-118
• Pilot In Command and Second In Command
• Crewmembers are limited to those necessary for flight. This may include Company
technicians for monitoring, observing and recording the operation of flight controls or
system functions not readily observable by the Flight Crew
• When necessary, Non-Company personnel may be on board for an OCF as observers.
Examples of Non-Company personnel who may be necessary as observers are aircraft
manufacturer and/or aircraft engine representatives
Does a Weight and Balance form need to be completed before an Operation Check Flight
(OCF)? 15-118
Yes
What two items are required before a flight can “Over-Fly” a station with no revenue on or
off? 15-127
• Dispatcher approval
• Amendment to the flight release
Who should the PIC contact prior to initiating a diversion to an alternate airport? 15-128
Dispatch
What types of information does ACARS allow dispatch to communicate to flight crews
(Q400 ONLY)? 15-150
• Weather updates
• Release amendment information
• PIREPs
• NOTAMs, etc.
Who is allowed to declare an emergency for a given flight? 15-158
Both the PIC and the dispatcher for the flight (if unable to contact the PIC)
Within how many days after declaring an emergency must a written report to the
administrator be filed? 15-158
10 days (after returning to his/her home base)
Does the carriage of human organs require flight crew notification? 15-109
No, unless their packaging contains dry ice