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40 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Hemostasis, or normal blood circulation, is maintained by a number of mechanisms, including:
a. keeping platelet counts high
b. producing antithrombin III (AT III)
c. producing proteins C and S
d. b and c


(2006 US Pharmacist quiz q1)
d. b and c
Endogenous anticoagulants include which of the following?
a. heparin sulfate
b. protein C
c. AT III
d. all of the above



(2006 US Pharmacist quiz q2)
d. all of the above
With regard to international normalized ratio (INR) determinations, an appropriate INR value for a patient with venous thrombosis/deep venous thrombosis (DVT) is:
a. 1.5 to 2 times the control value
b. 1.5 to 2
c. 2.0 to 3.0
d. 2.5 to 3.5



(2006 US Pharmacist quiz q3)
c. 2.0 to 3.0
Increases from baseline in the INR value during early stages of warfarin therapy indicate that warfarin is rapidly suppressing which of the following factors?
a. II
b. V
c. VII
d. X



(2006 US Pharmacist quiz q4)
c. VII
The cytochrome P (CYP) enzyme primarily responsible for the S isomer of warfarin is:
a. CYP 1A2
b. CYP 2C
c. CYP 2D6
d. CYP 3A4



(2006 US Pharmacist quiz q5)
b. CYP 2C
The CYP enzyme(s) primarily responsible for the metabolism of the R isomer of warfarin is:
a. CYP 1A2
b. CYP 2C
c. CYP 3A4
d. a and c



(2006 US Pharmacist quiz q6)
d. a and c
Which of the following agents blocks the synthesis of certain clotting factors?
a. heparinoid
b. heparin
c. AT III
d. warfarin



(2006 US Pharmacist quiz q7)
d. warfarin
Warfarin blocks the synthesis of clotting factors dependent on which vitamin:
a. vitamin A
b. vitamin C
c. vitamin D
d. vitamin K



(2006 US Pharmacist quiz q8)
d. vitamin K
Which of the following agents is the best first-line treatment for an overdose of warfarin?
a. heparin
b. protamine sulfate
c. vitamin K
d. protein C



(2006 US Pharmacist quiz q9)
c. vitamin K
A hospitalized pregnant patient has routinely taken warfarin since having aortic heart valve replacement surgery. She is seeing a hospitalist physician for the first time since determining that she is pregnant. Which of the following woul dbe the safest solution to treat her acute DVT?
a. decrease the warfarin dosage to maintain the INR at 1.5
b. discontinue warfarin use
c. keep dose of warfarin at 1 mg/day until after delivery
d. discontinue warfarin and begin unfractionated heparin (UFH)



(2006 US Pharmacist quiz q10)
d. discontinue warfarin and begin unfractionated heparin
Amiodarone interacts with and significantly potentiates the effects of which of the following?
a. heparin
b. low molecular weight heparin (LMWH)
c. danaparoid
d. warfarin



(2006 US Pharmacist quiz q11)
d. warfarin
Grapefruit juice interacts with which of the following drugs?
a. heparin
b. LMWH
c. danaparoid
d. warfarin



(2006 US Pharmacist quiz q12)
d. warfarin
Which of the following drugs has the lowest potential to interact with warfarin?
a. clarithromycin
b. acetaminophen
c. trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
d. metronidazole



(2006 US Pharmacist quiz q13)
b. acetaminophen
The pharmacist evaluates the effectiveness of warfarin therapy with a(n):
a. prothrombin time (PT)
b. activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
c. INR
d. antifactor Xa level



(2006 US Pharmacist quiz q14)
c. INR
Heparin and LMWH agents combine with antithrombin to preferentially block the activation of:
a. factor II
b. factor V
c. factor VII
d. factor X



(2006 US Pharmacist quiz q14)
d. factor X
Which of the following is a true statement?
a. UFH is only given by subcutaneous (SC) administration
b. UFH is a rapid-acting drug when administered IV
c. LMWHs can be given by mouth
d. warfarin can be given by SC administration


(2006 US Pharmacist quiz q16)
b. UFH is a rapid-acting drug when administered IV
The pharmacist evaluates the effectiveness of continuous heparin infusion by reviewing which of the following?
a. aPTT
b. antifactor Xa
c. PT
d. INR



(2006 US Pharmacist quiz q17)
a. aPTT
Which of the following agents is the best first-line treatment for an overdose of UFH?
a. protamine sulfate
b. vitamin K
c. protein C
d. protein S



(2006 US Pharmacist quiz q18)
a. protamine sulfate
A patient with an acute DVT and a documented type II heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) reaction will likely be treated with which of the following?
a. warfarin
b. heparinoid
c. LMWH
d. aspirin



(2006 US Pharmacist quiz q19)
b. heparinoid
Which of the following agents has no effective antidote?
a. heparinoid
b. heparin
c. AT III
d. warfarin


(2006 US Pharmacist quiz q20)
a. heparinoid
Which of the following receptors on the platelet surface is involved in the interplatelet aggregation:
a. GPIa
b. GPIb
c. GPIIb/IIIa
d. Thrombin
e. 5-HT


(2004 exam 4 q29)
c. GPIIb/IIIa
Which of the following blood components is expected to be decreased in its concentration in the blood of a person with vitamin K deficiency:
a. fibrinogen
b. prothrombin
c. factor XIII
d. t-PA
e. Ca2+


(2004 exam 4 q30)
b. prothrombin
Treatment of a patient with the following drugs will significantly increase the prothrombin time except:
a. factor X
b. warfarin
c. enoxaparin
d. phenprocoumon
e. hirudin


(2004 exam 4 q31)
a. factor X
Which of the following plasminogen activators causes antibody production when administered:
a. urokinase
b. anistreplase
c. t-PA
d. alteplase
e. reteplase


(2004 exam 4 q34)
b. anistreplase
Which of the following statements is not true:
a. t-PA is an endogenous substance produced by endothelial cells
b. t-PA can be used in the treatment of acute MI
c. t-PA can bind to fibrin
d. due to its tight binding to fibrin, it shows very little side effects such as intracranial bleeding
e. t-PA can digest plasminogen in the absence of fibrin


(2004 exam 4 q35)
d. due to its tight binding to fibrin, it shows very little side effects such as intracranial bleeding
The following are antithrombotic drugs except:
a. aspirin
b. ticlopidine
c. timolol
d. abciximab
e. danazol


(2004 exam 4 q36)
c. timolol
Antidote for heparin overdose:
a. protamine sulfate
b. vitamin K1
c. warfarin
d. factor II
e. t-PA


(2004 exam 4 q37)
a. protamine sulfate
The following are factors that potentiate oral anticoagulants except:
a. drugs that induce hepatic P450 enzyme
b. drugs that displace warfarin from plasma albumin binding
c. drugs that inhibit reduction of vitamin K
d. drugs that inhibit platelet function


(2004 exam 4 q38)
a. drugs that induce hepatic P450 enzymes
Comparison in anticoagulant activity between heparin 1 (MW 30,000) and heparin 2 (MW 2,000): MW stands for molecular weight.
a. heparin 1 is more potent than heparin 2
b. heparin 1 is less potent than heparin 2
c. heparin 1 is equipotent with heparin 2
d. potency cannot be determined due to differences in MW


(2003 exam 4 q13)
a. heparin 1 is more potent than heparin 2
The anticoagulant that acts specifically and directly on thrombin is:
a. hirudin
b. danaparoid
c. coumarin
d. warfarin
e. none of the above


(2003 exam 4 q14)
a. hirudin
Warfarin affects the biosynthesis of the following proteins except:
a. factor II
b. factor V
c. factor VII
d. factor X
e. protein C


(2003 exam 4 q15)
b. factor V
Which of the following statements is not true about warfarin?
a. is a coumarin derivative
b. cannot cross the placental barrier
c. inhibits regeneration of reduced vitamin K in the liver
d. can cause a decrease in teh concentration of factor IIa
e. inhibits synthesis of factor X in the liver


(2003 exam 4 q16)
b. cannot cross the placental barrier
In a patient who is taking cimetidine, the effect of warfarin will be:
a. potentiated
b. lessened
c. not significantly changed


(2003 exam 4 q17)
a. potentiated
Broad spectrum antibiotics potentiate oral anticoagulants mainly by:
a. binding to plasma albumin
b. inducing hepatic enzymes
c. inhibiting platelet function
d. decreasing the availability of vitamin K
e. all of the above


(2003 exam 4 q18)
d. decreasing the availability of vitamin K
Which of the following blood coagulation tests gives the shortest time range?
a. PT of normal blood
b. aPTT of normal blood
c. calcification of the normal blood
d. PT for blood from a patient treated with warfarin
e. PT for blood containing heparin


(2003 exam 4 q19)
a. PT of normal blood
Which of the following drugs blocks platelet GP IIb/IIIa receptors?
a. dipyridamole
b. ticlopidine
c. tirofiban
d. aspirin
e. a and b


(2003 exam 4 q20)
c. tirofiban
The peptide sequence present on fibrinogen which is essential for binding to GPIIb/IIIa is:
a. Gly-Ser-Asp
b. Gly-Arg-Glu
c. Asp-Gly-Arg
d. Arg-Gly-Asp
e. none of the above


(2003 exam 4 q21)
d. Arg-Gly-Asp
A fibrinolytic drug that requires binding to fibrin clots for its maximum activity:
a. t-PA
b. streptokinase
c. anistreplase
d. u-PA
e. a and b


(2003 exam 4 q22)
a. t-PA
The antidote for an overdose of t-PA:
a. alteplase
b. reteplase
c. u-PA
d. tranexamic acid
e. c and d


(2003 exam 4 q23)
d. tranexamic acid
A thrombolytic which is prepared by deleting a large portion of recombinant t-PA:
a. alteplase
b. duteplase
c. reteplase
d. anistreplase
e. a and c


(2003 exam 4 q24)
c. reteplase