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376 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
  • 3rd side (hint)
name 5 inherited hemostasis disorders
hemo A, B, C, von willebrand dz and ftxr XIII (13) defncy
name the following hemostasis disorder that have the following: defncy of factor 13, sex linked recessive - almost exclusive in men, spontaneous bleeding into the joints & treated with commercial factor 13
hemophilia A
name the following hemostasis disorder that have the following: defcy in factor IX (9), sex linked recessive - almost exclusive in men, clinically identical in inheritance & symptoms to hem A, treated with factor IX concentrates
hemophilia B
name the following hemostasis disorder that have the following: defncy in factor XI (11), incomplete autosomal recessive, wide range of clinical severity, high incidence in Askenzai Jews, and only contact factor associated with bleeding
hemophilia C
name the following hemostasis disorder that have the following: primary defect in von WF, sually find secondary defncy of factor VIII (8), autosomal dominant - (both sexes), platelet adhension defect with prolonged bleeding time, & treated with cryo or DDABP (drug), factor VIII (8) concentrates do NOT contain vWF
von willebrand disease
name the following hemostasis disorder that have the following: automosal recessive, NOT detected by common coag tests, results in significant bleeding disorder & detect with 5M urea test
factor XIII (13) defncy
acquired disorders have inhibitors - usually IGG antibody directed against a ___ or ___
specific factor or phospholipids
describe some characteristics of Lupus anticoagulant (3)
1. direct against phospholipids
2. seen in lupus erythematosis (about 5 - 10%), but also seen in malignancies, infections, drug therapy & other autoimmune disorders
3. use platelet neutralization techx to confirm presence (platelet phospholipid neutralizes antibody)
hint: phospholipids, LE & platelet neutraliztx
describe some characteristics of factor VIII (8) inhibitor (4) how it relates to the hemostatic mechx, its cofactor to, bleeding (+/-) and how APTT is important to the results
Factor VIII (FVIII-C; antihemophilic globulin) is
1. IMPORTANT part of the hemostatic mechanism
2. participating as a COFACTOR in the second burst of THROMBIN generation, which leads to clot formation
3. An isolated deficiency of factor VIII-C is ass w/ a significant bleeding diathesis
4. APTT mixing studies differentiate factor defncy from inhibitors
describe some characteristics of vit K defncy
functional defncy of factors: 2, 7, 9 & 10, PIVKA molecules (proteins in vit K absence) - present but not functional, vit K originates from diet & bacteria in gut, defncy seen in poor diet & with broad spect antibiotic use, same result observed in coumarin & dicoumoral theraphy
describe some characteristics of liver disease (depending on severity)
defncy factor: 1, 2, 5, 7, 9 & 10, factor 7 defncy most pronounced, decrease clearance of plasminogen activators & increase FDP due to fibrin (ogen) lysis
describe some characteristics of DIC (4) ex: how is can be cause, which factors it can consume and positive lab tests
secondary to sepsis or obstetric complications, thrombotic occlusion of microcirculation, RBC fragments, consumption of platelets & factor: 1, 5, 8 and high levels of FDP & D-Dimer
why is sodium citrate the more preferred choice for routine coag studies and how does heparin & EDAT play a role in the coag system
because factor 5 or 8 are more labile (undergoing or likely to undergo change; unstable: a labile compound) in sodium oxalate, herparin neutralizes thrombin & EDTA inhibits the thrombins actions on fibrinogen
sodium oxalate
labile for factor 5 & 8
heparin
neutralizes thrombin
edta does what to fibrinogen
inhibits thrombin act on fibrinogen
what is the ration for anticoag to blood for coag procedures
1:9 (anticoag to blood) - the anticoag supplied in this amount is sufficient to bind all the available calcium thereby preventing clotting
what reagent is used in the PT test
thromboplastin & calcium
which test would be anormal in a patient with Stuart-Prower factor (factor X) defncy
PTT & APTT
name a characteristic of vit K
it is required for carboxylation of glutamate residues of some coag factors
vit K is necessary for activation of which vita K dependent clotting factors
2, 7, 9 and 10
what does the fibrinogen/fibrin degradation product test for (late + early products)
the FDP test detects the late degradation products (fragement D & E) and not the early ones (frag X & Y)
which of the following platelet aggrtx agents demo a monophasic aggrtx curve when used at optimal concentration
collagen (it demo a single wave (monophasic) response preceded by a lag time
what does INR test for
(international normalized ration) it standardizes PT results - it help adjust for the different in thrmboplastin reagents made by diff manufacturers & used by various institutions - INR calc uses the international sensitivity index value & is used to monitor an oral antigcoag such as warfarin
what is referred to as an endogenous activator of plasminogen
tissue plasminogen activator
what is an exogenous (not made in the body) that activates the plasminogen
streptokinase
tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) is an enogenous (produced in the body) activator of plasminogen - where is it released and what does it convert into
it is released from the endothelial cells by the action of protein C and it converts plasminogen to plasmin
which protein is the primary inhibitor of the fibrinolytic system
a2-antiplasm (it inhibits plasmin by forming an 1:1 stoichiometeric complex with any free plasmin in the plasma & therefore prevents the binding of plasmin to fibrin & fibrinogen
what is the test predictive value/result for d-dimer
test has a negative predictive value - a nonspecific screening test widely used to rule out thrombosis (blood clot) or thrombotic (relating to, caused by or characterized by thrombosis)
why should you reject a blood sample if it is not filled up correctly with the blood:coag ratio and how does that affect PT/APTT
because the excess anticoag is an QNS sample binds to the reagent calcium, thereby resulting in a prolonged of PTT & APTT
what is the correct storage time for both the PTT & APTT testing tube
plasma sample for PT testing are stable for 24 hours at room temp if capped, refrigerating the same causes cold activation of factor 7 & therefore shortened PT results, the APTT samples are stable for 4 hours if stored at 4c
in primary fibrinolysis, the fibrinolytic activity results in the response in
spontaneous activation of fibrinolysis
name some of the steps that happens in primarily fibrinolysis (4)
1. rare pathological condtx which a spontaneous systemic firbinolysis occurs
2. plamin is formed in the absence of coag activation & clot formation
3. PF is associated with increased production of plasminogen & plasmin
4. decreased in plasmin removal from circulation & spontaneous bleeding
plasminogen defncy is associated with
thrombosis
plasminogen is important component of fibrinolytic system, why
plasminogen is activated --> plasmin
which is needed for degradtio of fibrin clots to prevent thrombosis
*when plasminogen is deficient, plasmin is not formed = causing a defect in clot lysing processes
name the 5 main hemostatic plug formation
adhesions, aggregation, plug formation, consolidation & fibrin stabilization
name the 5 major system involved in maintaining hemostasis
vascular system, platelelts, coag system, fibrinolytic system & serin protease inhibitors
name the 2 minor system involved in maintaining hemostasis
kinin system & complement system
hint: KfC (minus the f)
which step does this happen in vasoconstriction, platelet adhension to exposed subendothelial cxt tissue, platelet aggretx to form initial plug @ injury site
primary hemostasis
hint: A+A happens here
which step does this happen in coag factors interact on platelet surface to produce fibrin, fibrin stabilization by factor 13 (XIII)
secondary hemostasis
which step does this happen in release tissue plasminogen activator, conversion of plasminogen to plasmin, conversion of fibrin to fibrin degradation products (fibrin split products)
firbrinolysis
name the 3 principal mech of platelet adhesion
vWF, collagen fibers, platelet membrane glycoprotein Ib
what is vWF function
protein systhz in endothelial cells & megakarocytes primarily bind to platelet membrane receptor GPIb, to promote adhesion & carrier for factor 8, provides stability in circulation
fibrin formation
firbrinogen
promotes platelet adhesion
vWF
name the two factors that are cofactor in fibrin formation
factor 5 or 8
cellular adhesion molecule, promotes platelet spreading
fibronectin
activation of the intrinsic pathway via contact
HMWK high molecular weight kininogen
inhibits plasm
a2-antiplasmin
precursor to plasmin, function in fibrinolysis
plasminogen
promotes platelet aggregation (dense granules)
ADP (nometabolic)
primary & secondary messenger regulates platelet activation/aggregation
calcium (dense granules)
promotes vasocontriction
serotonin (dense granules)
regulates blood flow in damaged vessel, increases concentration of biochem to promote platelet activation events
vasoconstriction
signal intracellular activation, leading to platelet plug formation
platelet shape change
platelet to platelet interaction mediated by fibrinogen, ca2+. & platelet membrane activated glycoprotein IIb/IIa complex
platelet aggregation
adhesion & aggregation of platelet to the site of injury
platelet plug
release chemical constituents contains in various granules, amplifies platelet response
platelet secretion
platelet plug stabilized by formation of fibrin mesh over the platelet aggregates
stabilization
factor I
fibrinogen
factor 2
prothrombin
factor 3
tissue thromboplastin (tissue factor)
factor 4
ionized ca2+
factor 5
labile factor (proaccelerin)
factor 6
not assigned
factor 7
stable factor (serum prothrombin conversion accelerator proconvertin)
factor 8
anti-hemophilic factor A
factor 9
christmas factor
factor 10
stuart prower factor
factor 11
plasma thromboplastin antecedent (PTA)
factor 12
hageman factor
factor 13
fibrin stabilizing factor
HMWK or HK
high molecular weight kininogen (fitzgerald factor)
PK
prekallikrein (fletcher factor)
which factor does this relate to: hemophilia b
factor IX - christmas factor
which factor does this relate to: hemophilia a
factor 8 - antihemophliic factor
which factor does this relate to: hemophilia c
factor 11 - PTA - plasma thromboplastic antecedent
which factor does this relate to: needed for glass activation factor, not requried in vivo, no clinical signs of defncy
XII - hagemant factor
stabilizes fibrin clot, defncy leads to poor wound healing, assay by urea solubility test
13 - fibrin stabilizing factor
which factor does this relate to: converted to fibrin by thrombin, normal = 200 - 400 mg/dL
I - fibrinogen
which factor does this relate to: precursor of thrombin
II - prothrombin
which factor does this relate to: molecular weight lipoprotein present in all tissue, liberated by trauma
III - tissue thromboplastin
which factor does this relate to: bound by sodium citrate, must be replaced by reagents
IV - Ca 2+
which factor does this relate to: deteriorates at room temp
V - labile factor
which factor does this relate to: defncy - hemophilia A, most common inherited bleeding abn. labile
VIII - antihemophilic factor
name the coagulation factors from 1 - 13 (note NO factor 6)
(FPT--CLS---AXS---PHF) fibrinogen, prothrombin, tissue thromboplastin, Ca 2+, labile factor, stable factor, antihemophilic factor, x-mas factor, stuart prower factor, plasma thromboplastin antecedent, hagement factor & fibrin stabilizing factor
in plasma coag factors: based on the function which factor is the substrate (1)
factor I - fibrinogen
in plasma coag factors: based on the function which factor is the co-factors that accelerate emz rtx (4)
factors 3, 5 & 8 including factor HMWK (high molecular weight kininogen)
in plasma coag factors: based on the function which factor is the serine proteases - cleave peptide bonds
factors 2, 7, 9, 10, 11 and 12
in plasma coag factors: based on the function which factor is the transmidase
factor 13 only
which tube of blood for coag is preferred 3.8 or 3.2 %
3.2% (Ca 2+ is needed for both coag & platelet aggrtx studies
what is the anticoag ratio
9:1 (blood:anticoag)
which coag tube is better to use plastic or glass and why
use plastic tubes or siliconized glassware because glass activates factor 12 and platelets will adhere to glass
should hemolyzed sp be used and why not
hemolyzed samples should not be used to platelet aggrtx studies because red cell contains ADP
why shouldnt lipemic samples be used for coag & aggrtx studies
may obscure changes in optical density
why shouldnt you use the first tubes using evacuated vacutainers for coag samples
because of contamination with tissue thromboplastin (activates coag) as needle pierces skin (if only test ordered is caog studies, draw small amount in a tube that is discarded)
name three of the clotbusters
streptokinase, urokinase & tissue plasminogen activator (strep UR TP activator)
what does the PT screen for
extrinsic & common pathway
what factors does the PT measures
factor 1, 2, 5, 7 & 10
what does PT monitor
oral anticoagulants (warfarin, coumarin, dicoumarol)
what reagent does PT use
tissue thromboplastin & CaCl2
what is PT sensitive to
vitamin K
what is the reference range for PT
reference range: <14 second
therapeutic goal: 2.0 - 3.5
what does the APPT screen for
instrinsic & common pathway
what does the APTT measure
all factors except 7 and 13
what does APTT monitor
monitors heparin therapy
what are the reagents used for APTT
activator (kaolin, celite or ellagic acid), platelet phospholipid (PF3), & CaCl2
what the reference range for APTT
reference range: 20 - 40 seconds
therapeutic goal: 1.5 - 2.5 times "normal" or use heparin response curve
APTT = 2 TT remind you of an
H = heparin
PT =
coumarin, vit K factors
what does fibrinogen assay measure
quantitative measure of factor I
what is the reference range for fibrinogen assay
reference range: 200 - 400 mg/dl
what does the thrombin time (aka thombin clotting time)
does not measure intrinsic/extrinsic pathway, affected by the decrease FIBRINOGEN levels & presence of heparin & other anit-thrombin
what is the reference range for thrombin time
reference range: <20 second
what does bleeding time measure
platelet functions & numbers
what are the three different types of bleeding time location
Duke - earlobe: normal 0-6 mins
Ivy - forearm, normal 1-6 mins
Template - forearm, normal 2 - 9.5 mins
name an example that cause bleed time to be prolonged
prolonged with aspirin (effects last 7-10 days) and other drugs
what does clot retraction evaluate (infrequently used)
evaluates platelet function, fibrinogen, red cell volume
based on the clot retraction testing, what would be an abnormal platelet count
<100,000 mm3
what two things would cause a DECREASE in clot retraction
anemia & hypofibrinogenmia
what would cause an INCREASE in clot retraction
rapid dissolution of clot = INCREASE fibrinolytic activity (ex: DIC)
what happens in clot retraction with Glanzmann Thrombasthenia
no clot retraction
define Glanzmann thrombasthenia and how does it effect coag system
is a genetic platelet disorder in which the platelet glycoprotein IIb/IIIa (GP IIb/IIIa) complex is either deficient or present but dysfunctional. The genes of both of these proteins are on chromosome 17, and 50% activity of each protein is enough to support normal platelet aggregation. Defects in the GP IIb/IIIa complex leads to defective platelet aggregation and subsequent bleeding
differentiating platelet disorders - Glanzman assay checks out what
abnormal aggrtx (all agents decrease) & vWF normal
differentiating platelet disorders - Bernard Soulier assy checks out what
morph: giant platelets, abnormal ADHESION, (ristocetin decrease) & vWF normal
differentiating platelet disorders - von willebrand assay checks out what
abnormal adhension (ristocetin decrease) & vWF abnormal
what is ristocetin
It causes platelet agglutination and blood coagulation and is used to assay those functions in vitro, e.g., to diagnose von Willebrand disease (vWD) or the Bernard-Soulier syndrome. Platelet agglutination caused by ristocetin can occur only in the presence of large multimers of von Willebrand factor, so if ristocetin is added to blood lacking the factor/receptor - it will not coagulate
what can cause an abnormal bleeding time
prolonged with: 1. platelet abn, 2. vascular disease & 3. aspirin
what is important about clot retraction
decrease with thrombocytopenia & qualitative platelet defects, rarely performed
what is important about platelet aggrtx
test of platelet adhesion, aggrtx, & secretion, detect qualitative platelet defects
what is important about prothrombin time
detect defncy in extrinsic & common pathway. used to monitor coumadin therapy, report in INR 2.0 - 3.5 >5 increase in bleeding
what is important about activated partial thromboplastin time
detect defncy in intrinsic & common pathway, most common test to monitor heparin theraphy
what is important about activate coag time (act)
use for bedside monitoring of heparin therapy
what is important about thrombin clotting time (tct)
little used test to monitor heparin therapy
what is important about fibrinogen
estimtx of fibrinogen level
what is important about urea solubility
factor 13 screening test (fibrin stabilizing factor)
what is important about d-dimer
Pos + = dic, deep vein thrombosis, pulmonary embolism, & after lytic therapy
Neg - = primary fibrinolysis
what is important about fdp/fsp
present in dic, primary fibrinolysis, deep vein thrombosis, pulmonary embolism, after lytic therapy
what is important about plasminogen & how does it react with lytic therapy, DIC and primary fibrinolysis
precursor of plasmin, decrease folloing lytic therapy (clot busting drug delivered to veins), DIC, primary fibrinolysis
what is important about anti-thrombin III (AT-III)
heparin cofactor, defncy associated with thrombosis
what is important about protein C & protein S
inhibitors of coagulation, deficiency ass with thromboembolic disorders
define fibrinolysis
is normal body process that occur continuously to keep naturally occurring blood clots from growing & causing problems, however, the break down of fibrin can increase under certain conditions
whats the diff from primary to secondary fibrinolysis
primary fibrinolysis - norm blood clots
secondary fibrinolysis - breakdown of blots & poss abn bleeding due to another medical disorder
name that factor deficiency & treatment - factor I
a/hypo/dys-fibrinogenemia
cryo (contains: 8, fibrinogen, vwf, 13)
name that factor deficiency & treatment - factor 2
prothrombin defncy
ffp (contains: coag fxtr, fibrinolytic & complement factors)
name that factor deficiency & treatment - factor 5
labile factor defncy (owen's dz)
ffp (contains: coag fxtr, fibrinolytic & complement factors)
name that factor deficiency & treatment - factor 7
factor 7 defncy, plasma or prothrombin complex
name that factor deficiencies & treatment - factor 8 (hem A)
hemophilia a
cyro, factor 8 concentrate, 1-desamino-8-d-arginine vasopressin (DDAVP)
one of the most common inherited coag disorders, sex linked recessive occur in men, mothers are carriers
name that factor deficiencies & treatment - factor 8 (vwd)
cryo, 1-desamino-8-d-arginine vasopressin (DDAVP) - defncy in VW factor (part of factor 8 complex) autosomal dominant, bother sexes are affected
name that factor deficiencies & treatment - factor 9
christmas = hemophilia B, plasm or commercial concentrates
sex linked recessive
name that factor deficiencies & treatment - factor 10
stuart prower factor defncy - ffp or prothrombin complex
name that factor deficiencies & treatment - factor 11
hemophilia C - ffp
name that factor deficiencies & treatment - factor 12
hageman trait - no treatment & no bleeding disorders
name that factor deficiencies & treatment - factor 13
fibrin-stabilizing factor defncy - plasma or lyophilized placental factor 13
1. idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) can cause severe ___
2. how would that affect the pat's platelet
3. what happens to megakarocytes in normal cellularity
most common disorders causing severe isolated thrombocytopenia & cause by an autoantibody to pat's platelets (increase megakkaryocytes with norm cellularity)
name 7 examples of congential disorders ass with decrease platelet productions
alport synd, chediak higashi, hermansky-pudlak, may hegglin anomaly, tar synd & wiskott aldrich (herMay ate TAR w/ al & che)
these following factors affect which acquired conditions:
mild 2, 7, 9, 10
mod 5, 8
severe also 1
liver disease
these following factors affect which acquired conditions:
factor: 2, 7, 9 & 10
vit K defncy & coumadin therapy
these following factors affect which acquired conditions:
factor: 1, 5, 8 and platelets
disseminated intravascular coag
these following factors affect which acquired conditions:
factor 1, 5 & 8
primary fibrinolysis
thrombolytic therapy - whats the purpose
to activate fibrinolytic syste, used to treat acute MI, deep vein thrombosis, pulmonary emboli
thrombolytic therapy - what drugs are used
streptokinase, urokinase, tissue plasminogen activator (TPA), pro-urokinase (pro-uk), aclated plasminogen streptokinase activated complex (apsac)
thrombolytic therapy - whats the baseline tests/studies
pt, aptt, cbc & fibrinogen
thrombolytic therapy - what happens when changes induced by therapy
DECREASE in fibrinogen, plasminogen, a2-antiplasmin, factors: 5, 7, 9, 11, 12
INCREASE in plasmin, FDP, d-dimer, aptt, pt & prothrombin time
thrombolytic therapy - what are some precautions
limit venipuncture, apply pressure following venipuncture to stop bleeding
what is thrombolytic therapy
treatment to breakup clots inside the body (blood vessels)
what is MI
death/damage to heart muscles (result from coronary thrombosis)
what is DVT
formation of thrombus w/in the deep veins (leg/pelvis)
what is PE
emobolism of pulmonary artery - blood clot originating from the vein of leg/pelvis
what is FDP
aka crime evidence - are substx left behind when clots dissolve in the blood
what is the difference between heparin & coumadin when it comes to administration & action of the drug
hep - subcutaeous or iv & antithrombin effect
cou- oral & vit K antagonist
what is the difference between heparin & coumadin when it comes to effect & duration
hep: immediate & short
cou: slow acting & long
what is the difference between heparin & coumadin when it comes to testing for monitoring
hep: APTT (in)
cou: PT (ex)
what is the difference between heparin & coumadin when it comes to reversed by what & other info needed to know
hep: reversed by protamine sulfate & requires AT-III to be effective
cou: reverse by vit K with DECREASE in production: 2, 7, 9, 10
how is the liver and vit K related to one another
liver uses vit K to make blood clotting proteins, vit K plays important role in your bodys natural clotting process
what would change in blood in room temp do to: MCV
increase - due to RBC sweeling
what would change in blood in room temp do to: HCT
increase - due to INCREASE in MCV
what would change in blood in room temp do to: MCHC
(opposite of MCV/HCT) decrease due to increase in HCT
what would change in blood in room temp do to: osmotic fragility
increase
what would change in blood in room temp do to: wbc count
decrease
what would change in blood in room temp do to: wbc morphology
necrobiotic cells, karyorrhexis (nuclear distintegration), degranulation, vacuolization
lab finding for the following coag abn would indicate which disease:
decrease in factor 8
APTT prolonged
PT normal
BT = normal
Plate count = normal
hemophillia A
lab finding for the following coag abn would indicate which disease:
APTT prolonged
PT normal
BT = normal
Plate count = normal
hemophilia B (sex linked & xmas disease)
lab finding for the following coag abn would indicate which disease:
BT = proloned
Plate aggrtx = abn w/ristocentin
factor 8 may decrease
APTT = may be prolonged
PT = normal
Plate count = norm
VW Disease
lab finding for the following coag abn would indicate which disease:
Clot retraction = abnormal
BT = prolonged
Plate count = normal
Plat aggrtx = abn w/ADP, collagen, thrombin, epinephrine
glanzmann's thrombasthenia (disorder of platelet function cz by abn/fefncy of the membrane GP IIb/IIa complex
lab finding for the following coag abn would indicate which disease:
BT = prolonged
Giant platelets
Plate count = decrease
Clot retraction = normal
Bernard soulier synd (disorder cz by defncy of platelet GPIb/IX complex - goes h2h/gpv)
what is the function of GPIIb/IIa
protein that are heterodimers - chrom 17
mediates the binding of fibrinogen, vwf, & fibronection --> activates platelets
serves 2 connect adhesive protein to contractile protein of the platelet after activation thereby facilitating clot retraction, ca2+ act as a stabilizer to the complex
what would happen if tech ran for PT & APTT and the the sample was clotted, what would happen to the results of PT & APTT
in vitro, blood clots results in CONSUMPTION of the clotting factors & therefore PROLONG of PT/APTT. if the clotting factors have been activated but the clot formation is INCOMPLETE, it may result in SHORTENING the PT/APTT
a plasma sample submitted to the lab for PT testing has been stored for 25 hours at 4c, the PT result is SHORTENED, what is the probably cause
activation of factor 7 due to exposure to cold temp (samples for eval for PT are stable for 24 hours if kept at room temp - prolonged exposure to cold will activate factor 7 resulting in a DECREASE in PT results
the APTT results are not elevated in pat getting heparin, which factor may be associated with the lack of response to heparin therapy in this patient
anti-thrombin defncy - AT defncy is patient getting heparin therapy may lead to heparin RESISTANCE & therefore lack of PROLONGATION of APTT results, AT is heparin COFACTOR & as such INCREASE heparin activity by 1000-fold, the defncy of AT is associated with a POOR RESPONSE to heparin therapy
why should heparin be monitored so closely
heparin has a half life and is decreased in extended thrombosis & the anticoag activites of heparin change based upon nonspecific binding of heparin to plasma protein
what kind of test can monitor heparin (3)
APTT or activated clotting time (ACT) and platelet count - since decrease in platelet count to 50% below the baseline value is important & may be ass with HIT
Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)
what is the proper protocol to eva patients receiving heparin therapy
a baseline APTT & platelet count, APTT testing every 6 hours til the target is reached
60yo patient was admitted to the hospital for a LIVER BIOPSY, the coag revealed PT = prolong with INR = 4.5, what is the most appropriate course of action
cancel the procedure & start the patient on vit K therapy, repeat the PT test 4 days after starting vit K admin, & cancel the biopsy until the patient's PT returns to normal
why is vit K therapy important to a patient that is going to have a liver biopsy with PT= prolong and a HIGH INR & how is vit K related to the liver
liver biopsy in a patient with PT = prolonged and high INR could be LIFE THREATENING, in this patient, the PROLONG PT is likely caused by the liver disease, vit K is stored in the liver & is essential for activation of factors: 2, 7, 9 & 10 for its absorption. in liver disease characterize by obstruction, bile is not secreted into the GI tract & therefore vit K is poorly absorbed.
what is the proper storage for APTT sample and what temp should it be kept at and when should it be tested and what would happen to factor 5 & 8 and what wold happen tot he APTT results
samples for APTT should be centrifuged & tested within 2 HOURS after collection, however the sample is table for 4 hours if stored at 4c, factors 5 & 8 are cofactors necessary for FIBRIN formation --however both are both LABILE, storage beyong 4 hours causes falsely elevated APTT results
name some of the other "new" brand names for anticoag drugs besides heparin & wafarin and what would some of the effects of these drugs do to the lab tests
ex: hirduin, which inhibits thrombin and danapariod which inhibits factors Xa -- some of these new drugs have antithrombin effect and therefore increases PT, APPT & TT results
what would cause a platelet aggregation to be falsely negative
HIT testing may give false negative result due to the neutralization of antibody to heparin
neutralization
what is the anticoag to blood ratio formula (this should be adjust with patient with severe anemia)
(0.00185)(V)(100-H) = C
V = volume of blood
H = HCT
C = volume of antiCoag
if one performs an APTT on a patient with HIGH DOSE WARFARIN therapy, we would expect that the result would be
increase because of other factor deficiencies
prolong bleeding time & giant platelets best describes
Bernard Soulier syndrom
which of the following wold one suspect in AFIBRINOGENEMIA
BT = abnormal
Reptilase time = abnormal
TT = abnormal
which disease cause: an immune medicated condition characterize by a LOW PLATELET count & found primarily in CHILDREN
idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura
what is idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura
an immune mediated disorder characterized by an abrupt onset & spontaneous remission in several weeks, it is found primarily in children
what is thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpura
is a NON-IMMUNE mediated condtx usually characterized by MICROANGIOPATHIC anemia, thrombocytopenia, fever, renal disease & neurological abnormalities
what is May Hegglin
is a NONIMMUNE mediated condtx characterize by THROMBOCYTOPENIA with small HYPOGRAULAR platelets
describe conditions ass w/ Wiscott Aldrich, its characterize by which defncy cell, decrease in --- and how it affect dense bodies
1. an IMMUNOLOGIC condition
2. characterize by immune defncy (T & B cells)
3. thrombocytopenia w/ severely shortened platelet survival
4. platelet with absent dense bodies are ass with this disease
arterial events are drive by
platelets driven (arthlerosclerosis, prosthetic heart devices)
venous events are caused by these (2 things)
1. blood flow problems (superficial or deep vein thrombosis) & clot inhibitors defncy
name 2 clot inhibitor deficiency (about 20%)
1. antithrombin III
2. protein C
1. name some characteristics of Antithrombin III (3) when it comes to active coag protease
2. where is it produced
3. its activated by ____
1. principle antagonist of active coag proteases
2. produced in the LIVER
3. activated by HEPARIN SULFATE on the endothelial cells & by heparin as therapeutic drug
name some characteristics of protein C (4)
1. vit K dependent serine protease
2. activated by THROMBOMODULIN on the endothelial cell
3. requires PROTEIN S cofacter
4. INACTIVATES factor 5 & 8
name some characteristics of Protein S (4)
1. vit K dependent
2. Co-factor for Protein C
3. bound & FREE state
4. only free protein S is functional so measure TOTAL & FREE
name some characteristics of Factor 5 Leiden (3)
1. MUTANT factor 5
2. RESIST of action of protein C & S
3. activated Protein C Resistance Test
name some characteristics of Antiphospholipid syndrome (3)
any of 3 classes of antibodies
1. anticardiolipin antibodies
2. Lupus anticoag
3. Specific antibody (ex: beta 2 glycoprotein)
name some characteristics of Prothrombin mutation (5)
1. mutation at position 20210
2. first described in 1996
3. 1-2% general population are heterozygotes
4. result in INCREASE thrombin formation
5. INCREASE in risk of thrombotic even
what would the result be for primary vs secondary (dic) when it comes to platelet count
primary - normal
secondary (dic) - DECREASE
what would the result be for primary vs secondary (dic) when it comes to red cell morphology
primary - normal
secondary (dic) - RBC fragments
what would the result be for primary vs secondary (dic) when it comes to PT & APTT
primary - ABNORMAL
secondary (dic) - ABNORMAL
what would the result be for primary vs secondary (dic) when it comes to protamine sulfate
primary - NEGATIVE
secondary (dic) - POSITIVE
what would the result be for primary vs secondary (dic) when it comes to FDP
primary - POSITIVE
secondary (dic) - POSITIVE
what would the result be for primary vs secondary (dic) when it comes to euglobulin clot lysis test
primary - POSITIVE
secondary (dic) - negative
what would the result be for primary vs secondary (dic) when it comes to D-dimer
primary - negative
secondary (dic) - POSITIVE
what would the result be for primary vs secondary (dic) when it comes to platelet count
primary - normal
secondary (dic) - DECREASE
what would the result be for primary vs secondary (dic) when it comes to red cell morphology
primary - normal
secondary (dic) - RBC fragments
what would the result be for primary vs secondary (dic) when it comes to PT & APTT
primary - ABNORMAL
secondary (dic) - ABNORMAL
what would the result be for primary vs secondary (dic) when it comes to protamine sulfate
primary - NEGATIVE
secondary (dic) - POSITIVE
what would the result be for primary vs secondary (dic) when it comes to FDP
primary - POSITIVE
secondary (dic) - POSITIVE
what would the result be for primary vs secondary (dic) when it comes to euglobulin clot lysis test
primary - POSITIVE
secondary (dic) - negative
what would the result be for primary vs secondary (dic) when it comes to D-dimer
primary - negative
secondary (dic) - POSITIVE
thrombin has many functions, name some that are related to factor 5 & 8, platelets and throm-bom-o-dulin
1. feed back to "potentiate" factors 5 & 8
2. recruits & aggrtx platelets
3. turns on e. cell THROMBOMODULIN (receptor/activator for Protein C & S system) to INACTIVATE factor 5 & 8)
what does aspirin do to platelet aggtrx curve
aspirin inhibits secondary wave of aggtrx (DESTROYS CYCLO-O-XY-GENASE) --it keeps the curve at a HIGH constant and doesnt dip (normal PA curve starts out HIGH and eventually dips low)
what would cause an ABNORMAL RICTOCETIN-induce aggrtx (2)
1. Bernard Soulier
2. vo Willebrand
differentiating platelet disorder - in Glanzmann what would the assay test look like
1. Abn aggtrx
2. all agents DECREASE (adp, collagent etc)
3. vWf - normal
differentiating platelet disorder - in Bernard Soulier what would the assay test look like
1. Abn ADHENSION
2. DECREASE - RISTOCETIN
3. vWf - normal
differentiating platelet disorder - in vW what would the assay test look like
1. Abn ADHENSION
2. DECREASE - RISTOCETIN
3. vWf - ABNORMAL
what is the range for Factor Assay and what does it measure
1. range 40-150% = normal --this test is used for PT/APTT tests performed with SPECIFIC FACTOR DEFICIENT plasma
2. % activity & amount of correction w/ normal plasma determined
what does the Stypven time test with and what type of test is it used for & which defncy factors would be prolonged
1. Russell's viper venom
2. diff factor 7 defncy from common pathway defncy
a. factor 7 deficient plasma = normal
b. deficiency of factor 10, 5, 2 = prolonged
between the Stypven time and Reptilase time, what venom does each test uses
1. Stypven time = russell viper venom
2. Reptilase time = snake vemon
what is use in Reptilase Time and what does it test for
snake venom emz - this test sim to Thrombin time, but is NOT inhibited by HEPARIN (good to use for patient on herparin) rr: 18-22 seconds)
in fibrinolysis testing - FDP/FSP uses what type of testing and what would it be positive for
it uses latex beads coated with ANTI-FIBRINOGEN and positive screen = DIC
in fibrinolysis testing - latex D-Dimer uses what type of antibody and what would it be positive for
monoclonal antibody to crx link D FRAGMENT, positive = DIC, DVT, & PE
thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) is characterized by
increase platelet aggregation
thrombocytopenia & hyper-plenism have what is common
HYPER-plenism - in this condition up to 90% of platelets can be sequestered in the SPLEEN, causing DECREASE in circulatory PLATELETS
name some examples (3) that can be can cause THROMBOCYTOSIS (increase in platelet)
postsplenectomy, acute blood loss & increase proliferation of pluripotential stem cells
what is thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
quantitate platelet disorder ass w/increase platelet activation & aggregation = thrombocytopenia, the PT & APTT = normal in TTP
aspirin prevents platelet aggrtx by inhibiting the action of which emz
cyclo-OXYGENASE
if aspirin inhibits CYCLO-OXYGENASE, what step would that interfere next in the platelet aggrtx
this inhibits prevents the formation of THRMOBOXANE A2 (TXA2) which serves as a potent platelet aggrtx
normal platelet adhesion depends upon
glyco-protein Ib
glyco-protein Ib teams up with ___ for normal platelet aggrtx
glyco-protein Ib is a platelet RECEPTOR for VWF, both are necessary for the normal platelet adhesion. other proteins plays a role in platelet adhesion are GLYCO-PROTEI 5 & 9 (V & IX)
what test result is normal in a patient with classical VWD
platelet count & red cell morph is normal
what is VWD
inherited, qualitative PLATELET disorder resulting in INCREASE in BLEEDING, APTT = P, and DECREASE factor VIII:C & VWF levels
define thrombocytopenia
persist DECREASE in blood PLATELET that is often ass w/ HEMORRHAGIC conditions
Bernard Soulier is associated with
1. thrombocytopenia
2. giant platelets
what is B. Soulier defncy in & name some of the test assay results (ex: Platelet aggrtx & BT)
GLYCOPROTEIN IB - B Soulier syndrome,
1. platelet aggrtx to ADP = NORMAL
2. BT = P
3. factor 8 assay is NOT indicated for this diagnosis
when performing platelet aggregation studies, which set of platelet aggrtx results would most likely be ass with B. Souiler syndrome
1. Platelet aggrtx = N = ADP, Collagem & Epinephrine
2. DECREASE/ABN aggrtx to RISTOCETIN
when performing platelet aggregation studies, which set of platelet aggrtx results would most likely be ass with Glanzmann thrombasthemia
1. Platelet aggrtx = ABN = ADP, Colalgen & Epinephrine
2. Ristocetin = N
which of the following is a characteristic of acute IDIOPATHIC THROMBOCYTOPENIC PURPURA
it is characterized by abrupt onset & spontaneous remission within a few weeks
what is acute IDIOPATHIC THROMBOCYTOPENIC PURPURA & how/what is it caused by
AITP - IMMUNE mediated disorder found PO in children, it is commonly ass/ w infection (primarily VIRAL)
TTP APTT results differ from DIC that is
APTT = N = TTP (thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpura)
APTT = P = DIC
what are the lab results for DIC (PT, APTT, PC & smear)
PT = P
APTT = P
PC = DECREASE
Smear = SCHISTOCYTES
what are the lab results for TTP (PT, APTT, PA & smear)
(thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpura)
PT = N
APTT = N
Smear = schistocytes, result from MICROANGIOPATHIC hemolytic anemia
PA = INCREASE resulting in thrombocytopenia
several hours after birth, a baby boy develops petechaie & purpura & hemorrhagiv diathesis - the PC 18x10 9/L, explain the low platelet count
ISOIMMUNE NEONATAL THROMBOCYTOPENIA
what is ISOIMMUNE NEONATAL THROMBOCYTOPENIA and what causes it
INT is sim to HDN - it results from immunization of the mom by FETAL PLATELET ANTIGEN. the maternal antibody produced is most often directed against the platelet A1 (P1A1) antigen on the fetal red cells. the mom AB crx the placenta = thrombocytopeina (rare with P1A2)
what is usually associated with post transfusion purpura (PTP)
immune mediated thrombocytopenia/ALLOANTIBODIES
what is post transfusion purpura (PTP)
an alloantibody mediated thrombocytopenia - which occurs about 1 week after transfusion w/ PLATELET contaminated products. PTP is beleived to result from ANAMNESTIC immune response - in the majority of cases the alloantibody produced is against platelet antigen A1 (P1A1) aka HPA-1a
hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) is ass with
e. coli 0157:H7
what is hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) & what is it characteristics
caused by E COLI 0157 (contaminated foods), commonly seen in chlidren. the clinical symp: fever, diarrhea, THROMBOCYTOPENIA, microangiopathic hemolytic anemia & renal failure
storage pool defnct are defect of
platelet granules (most commonly, a decrease in platelet dense granules is present with DECREASE in ADP, ATP, Ca 2+ & Serotonin from platelet dense granules
lumi aggregation measures
platelet aggrtx & ATP realease
how is platelet aggrtx & ATP release measured
PA = measure by impedance
ATP release = measured by addition of LUCIFERIN to blood sample (there are NOT ATP in storage pool defncy)
neurological finding may be commonly ass w/
TTP is characterized by: neru problems, fever, thrombocytopenia, microangiopathic hemolytic anemia & renal failure
what is Hypersplenism
Hypersplenism is a disorder that causes the spleen to rapidly and prematurelydestroy blood cells.
what kind of disease is acquired thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura, what kind of autoantibody is it associated with & what would happen to results: thrombocy2penia, plasma vwf & PA
autoimmune disease - ass w/ autoantibodies produced against vWF cleaving emz (ADAMTS-13), this defncy would cause thromboocytopenia = increase
plasma vWf = increase
PA = increase
hereditary hemorrhagic telangiextasia is a disorder of
(aka: Osler Weber Rendu synd) connective tissue disorder ass w/ TELANGIECTASES of the mucous membranes & skin
name some of the symptoms of hereditary hemorrhagic telangiextasia
connective tissue disorder that develop lesions on tongue, lips, palate, face, hands, nasal mucosa & throughout the GI tract - this disorder is autosomal dominant conditions that is usually manifests itself in adolescence or early adulthood
what is a classic characteristic of hem A when it comes to bleeding (+/-), how it relates to factor VIII:C, BT & PT results
mild to serve bleeding episodes - depends upon the concentration of factor VIII:C (sex link dz)
BT = N
PT = N
PT = P
APTT = P
PC = DECREASE
BT = INCREASE
DIC (diffuse intravascular generation of thrombin ---> fibrin) as a result, coag factors & platelets are CONSUMED, resulting in
Platelet = DECREASE
PT/APTT/BT = INCREASE
which predisposing condition can develop for DIC
adeno-carinoma - it can liberate procoagulant (thromboplastic - a clot) subtx that can activate prothrombin intravascularly
what is ITP
a thrombocytopenia caused by an AUTOANTIBODY
what is PTP (post transfusion purpura)
is a thrombocytopenia caused by an ALLOANTIBODY directed vs antigen positive transfused platelets
what is HIT (heparin induce thrombocytopenia)
results from an ANTIBDOY to HEPARIN-PF4 complex causing thrombocytopenia in 1-5% in patients who are on heparin therapy (thrombosis may occur)
what is adeno-carinoma
cancer that originates in glandular tissue & also in epi tissue
factor 12 defency is associated with
(hagemen) increase thrombosis. 13 also plays a role in the FIBRINOLYTIC system by activating
plasminogen ---> plasmin
hermorrhagic manifestations are NOT ass w/ 12 defny cz thrombin generated by the EXTRINSIC pathway can activate factor 11 to 11a and factor 7a/TF ---> factor 9 to 9z
BT = P
PC = N
PT = N
APTT = P
vWd (platelet ADHESION disorder ass w/ decrease in VWF & factor 8 causing prolong BT & APTT
BT = N
APTT = P
hem A & hem B
glansmann thrombasthenia (a platelet aggrtx defect) would have what kind of APTT result
APTT = N
when performing a factor 8 activity assay, a pat plasma is mixed with
factor 8 deficient plasma
what is coag factor assay based on
they are based upon the ability of pat's plasma to correct any specific factor deficient plasma (normal range 50 - 150%)
the most suitable product for treatment of factor 8 defncy
factor 8 concentrate (human or recombinant) - FFP contains factor 8 however, it is NO longer used as the PRIMARY treatment for factor 8 defncy
**PROTHROMBIN complex concentrate is used for patient with factor 8 INHIBITOR
BT = P
PA = Abnormal
afibrinogenemia - rare inherited blood disorder in which the blood does not clot normally due to lack or malfunction of fibrinogen
- both platelet functions (BT = P & PA = Abnormal)
___ this plasma protein is essential for platelet aggrtx & fibrin formation
fibrinogen
PT = N
APTT = P
BT = INCREASE
PC = N
PA to Ristocetin = abnormal
vWD (platelet count is NOT affected in VWF defncy)
which results are ass w/ Hem A (APTT & PT)
APTT = P
PT = N
(hint: factor 8 is in the IN pway, not in the EX pway - so it would not be affected)
fibrin monomers are increased in which condtx
increase fibrin monomers result from coag activation. DIC is an acquired contx ass w/ spontaneous activation of coag & fibrinolysis. in PRIMARY fibrinolysis the FIBRNOLYTIC system is ACTIVATED & FIBRIN MONOMERS = N
what would cause a multiple factor defncy and why
liver disease because most of the clotting factors are made in the liver
an inherited disorder of coat is commonly ass w/
single factor defncy
lupus anticoagulant is directed against
phospholipd dependent coag factor
dysfirbrinogenemia results from a defect of what
an abnormal fibrinogen molecule
PT = N
APTT = N
in patient w/ a poor wound healing may be ass w
factor 13 defncy can lead to impaired would healing & may cause severe bleeding problems - 13 = fibrin stabilizing factor that changes the fibrinogen bonds in fibrin polymers to stable covalent bonds. factor is NOT inv in the process of fibrin formation, therefore PT & APTT is NORMAL
fletcher factor (prekallikrein) defncy may be ass with
thrombosis - prekalli is a CONTACT factor, activated prekalli is name kallikrein & is inv in activation of factor 12 to 12a, like 12 defncy - fletcher factor defncy may be ass w/ thrombosis
one of the complications ass w/ hem A is
hemarthrosis (hemorrage of the joints that are caused be severe bleeding diathesis)
what is the most common subtype of classic vWD
type I
name the 4 different subtype of VWD & their own characteristics
Type 1 - most common (70-80%) ass w/ mild bleeding
Type 3 - inv the TOTAL ABSENT of the vW molecule = severe bleeding
Type 2A (10 - 12%) & 2B (3 - 6%) = defncy of intermediated or high molecular weight protion of the vW molecule
define dysfibrinogenemia
group of autosomal (non sex chrom) dominant disorder of qual abn fibrinogens
define fletcher factor
a prekallikrein inv w/ blood clotting act by enhancing the activity of factor Hageman (12)
what is a characteristic of antithrombin (AT) (3)
1. its a cofactor to HEPARIN
2. most important naturally occurring physiological inhibitor of blood coag
3. it represents about 75% of antithrombotic activity & is an a2 globuli made by the liver
which lab test is affected by heparin therapy
thrombin time (heparing is an anti-THROMBIN drug & therefore INCREASE the TT test
does heparin have an affect on fibrinogen assay or bleeding time
no effect on either test
how does Reptilase relates itself to fibrinogen and is it affect heparin
Reptilase is a thrombin like snake venom protease that converts fibrinogen to fibrin. RT has not affect by heparin
how is an APTT = abnormal cause by
pathological circulating anticoag affected/corrected
not corrected with normal plasma. these anticoag are pathological subtx & are endogenously produced. they are either direct against a specific clotting factor or vs a group of factors.
APTT = P due to a factor defncy is corrected when mixed w/ normal plasma
the lupus anticoag is directed vs
LA reacts against phospholipids rather than clotting proteins & therefore interferences w/ phospholipid dependent coag assay
why is'nt coumadin recommended for pregnant/breast feeding mothers
coumadin crx the placenta & is present in human milk. warfarin is a vitamin K antagonist drugs that retards sythz of the active form of vit K dependents (2,5,7,9,10). Antithrombin is heparin cofactor. INR is used to monitor dosage
antithrombin is a cofactor to
heparin
name some characteristic for Protein C (2)
1. its activity is enhanced by Protein S (protein S functions as a COFACTOR to protein C)
2. activated protein C inactivates factor 5a & 8a
what type is appropriate screening test for the diagnosis of lupus anticoag
Diluted Russell's viper venom test (DVVT)
thrombin time eva
fibrinogen
FDP & D dimer eva
fibrinogen & FDP
Russells viper venom reagent contains which factors that are strongly dependent on phospholipids
factor 5 & 10, activating emz that are strongly phospholipid dependent
Russells viper venom reagent contains (3)
1. RVV
2. ca 2+ ions
3. phospholipids
in the present of LA, the reagent's phospholipid is partially neutralize causing a PROLONGATION of clotting time
which is most commonly disease ass with activated protein C resistance (APCR)
thrombosis
what is activated protein C resistance (APCR)
hemostatic disorder characterize by POOR ANTICOAG response to activate protein (this is the most common inherited thrombosis - main cause: gene mutation of factor 5)
50YOM, been on heparin for the past 7 days, which combo of test is expected to be abnormal
PT, APTT & TT
patient receiving heparin therapy the PT, APTT, TT are all PROLONGED
quantative fibrinogen assay is NOT affected by heparin
what does heparin do and which factors does it affect
heparin is a therapeutic anticoag w/ an ANTI-THROMBIN activity, it inhibits factors: 12a, 11a, 10a, 9a (all the beginning IN pway)
Mrs Smith with lab results with NO BLEEDING history
APTT = P
APTT: results on a 1:1 mixture of pat plasma + normal plasma are
Preincubation: APTT = P
2 hour incubation: APTT = P
Lupus anticoag
I am associated w/ bleeding
APTT = prolonged
1: preincubation: could be corrected after mixing pat plasma + normal plasma
what disease am i
factor 8 defncy
I am a bleeder
I am sensitive to: time & temp
APTT = P
1. preincubation: may be corrected immediate after mixing
2. 2hour incubation: become ABNORMAL/Prolonged after incuation
who am I
factor 8 inhibitor
I don't bleed
APTT = P
1. preincubation: APTT = P
2. 2 hour incubation APTT = P
who am I
lupus anticoag
what symptoms or test diff lupus anticoag & factor 8 inhibitor
lupus anticoag = bleeder
factor 8 inhibitor = NO BLEEDING
same
APTT = P
1. preincubation APTT = P
2. 2 hour incubation APTT = P
thrombin thrombomodulin complex is needed for activation of
Protein C
what is thrombomodulin (TM) and how does it relate to thrombin & protein C
TM is a transmembrane protein that accelerates protein C activation 1000 fold by forming a complex with thrombin
what happens when thrombin binds to TM thrombomodulin
it loses its clotting function, inc activation of factor 5 & 8. activated protein C deactivates factors 5a and 8a
what test is commonly used to monitor warfarin therapy
INR
what clotting factor (cofactors) are inhibited by Protein S
factor 5a & 8a are deactivated by protein S and activated by protein C
what drug promotes fibrinolysis
urokinase is a thrombolytic drug commonly used to treat acute arterial thrombosis, venous thromboembolism, MI & clotted catheters
whats the diff between warfarin, heparin & aspirin
warfarin & heparin = anticoag drug
aspirin = prevents PLATELET AGGREGATION by inhibiting cyclo-oxygenase
diagnosis of LA is confirmed by what criteria
neutralization of the antibody by high concentration of platelets (LA is not sensitive to time & temp unlike factor 8 inhibitor)
what is a characteristic of low molecular weight heparin
has a LONGER half life than unfractionated heparin
low molecular weight heparin is derived from & what causes it to have a longer half life
small glyco-samino-glycan that is derived from unfractional heparin (UFH) - LMWH has a low affinity for plasma proteins & endothelial cell therefore has a longer half life
low molecular weight heparin has an inhibitory effect what which factors
10a & 2a and does not require monitoring unless patient is kid
which test is most likely to be abnormal in patient taking aspirin
bleeding time (aspiring: anti-PLATELET drug therefore preventing platelet aggrtx causing BT = P
PC = N
platelet morph = N
clotting factors = no affect
what is ass with antithrombin defncy
thrombosis
antithrombin is a physiological anticoag that inhibits
factors: 2a, 9a, 11a, & 13a
thrombotic events may be primarily (in the absent of trigger factor) or may be ass w/ other risk factors (pregny/surgery)
what is ass w/ thrombotic event
decrease in Protein C
Protein C is a physiological ihibitor of coag, it is activated by thrombin-thrombomodulin complex
bleeding would be ass w/ (3)
increased fibrinolysis
afibrinogenemia & ITP
aspiring resistance may be ass w/
thrombosis - up to 22% of pat taking aspirin become resistance to aspirin's anti-platelet effect. people who are aspirin resistance have a higher rate of thrombosis (heart attack & strokes)
TT = P
Reptilase time = N
heparin therapy (anti-THROMBIN drug)
RT = sim thrombin like snake venom protease that is able to CLOT FIBRINOGEN & has no affect on heparin or LMWH
name two disorder that would cause a
Reptilase time = P
1. hypofibrinogenemia
2. antifibrinogenemia
screening test for thrombophilia should be performed when
on patients with thrombotic events occurring at a young age
Prothrombin G20210A is characterized by what cause
single MUTATION of prothrombin molecule/thrombosisand common cause of inherited HYPERCOAGULABILITY (behind factor 5 Leiden)
what would Prothrombin G20210A do to plasma prothrombin
Prothrombin G20210A is single point mutation of the PROTHROMBIN gene, resulting
Plasma prothrombin = Increase (concentration) & thereby a risk for thrombosis
Factor 5 Leiden promotes thrombosis by preventing
deactivation of factor 5a
what does factor 5, 5a & protein C have in common
factor 5 Leiden is a single point mutation in the factor 5 gene that inhibits factor 5a inactivation by protein C, activated protein C enhances deactivation of factor 5a & 8a
the incidence of antiphospholipids antibodies in the general population is
2%
which test is helpful in the diagnosis of aspirin resistance
platelet aggregation
in aspirin resistance, PA is not inhibited by aspirin ingestion, aspirin resistance has no effect on PC & morphology
what complication may occur as a result of DECREASE tissue factor pathway inhibitor (TFPI)
increased thrombotic risk
factor 8 inhibitors occurs in ___ % of patient in F8 defncy
10-20 %
what is commonly caused after a patient with factor 8 defncy receives factor 8 replacement
their body produces factor 8 inhibitors (antibodies)
which therapy & resulting mode of action are appropriate for the treatment of a pat with HIGH TITER to factor 8 inhibitors
recombinant factor 7a (rVIIa) to activate the common pathway
the Bestheda assay is used for which determination
factor 8 inhibitor titer
B8
hyper-homo-cystein-emia may be a risk factor for
thrombosis
what is hyper-homo-cystein-emia
abn large level of homocyteine (amino acid) in the blood
hirudin may be used for treatment of what
DVT (hirudin alternative to heparin) & can be used for thromboembolism in patients who have developed heparin induce thrombocytopenia
reaction of these two things are ass w/ heparin induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) results in
antibodies to heparin + PF4 complex
which drug may be ass w/ DVT deep vein thrombosis
oral contraceptives are acquired risk factors for thrombosis (aspiring & plavix are anti-platelet drugs & tPa is a fibrinolytic drug use for treatment of thrombosis)
elevated plasma homocysteine is a risk factor for
the development of venous thrombosis (homocysteine is inherited/acquired) acquired homo cz = dietary def in vit B6, B12 & folic acid
which lab test is used to screen activated protein C reistance
modified APTT with & w/out activated protein C
ecarin clotting time may be used to monitor
hirudin therapy (ECT = a snake venom based clotting assay)
which test may interfere w/ the activated protein C resistance (APCR) screen test & why
lupus anticoag because APCR screening assay is based on the APTT ratio & with LA having a PROLONGED APTT, that wold render a invalid test
thrombophilia may be ass with what disorder
hyperfibrinogenemia
name 3 disease are associated with bleeding
factor 8 inhibitors
hypofibrinogenemia
arfibrinogenemia
fibrinogen is an acute phase reactant and may be increased when
inflammatio, stress, obseity, smoking & meds (ex oral contraceptives)
heparin is monitor by
APTT
warfarin therapy is monitor by
INR
fibrinolytic therapy is monitor by
D-dimer & fibrinogen assay
name two disorder that can be caused by immune processed cause by the production of antibodies to heparin PF4 complex
heparin induce thrombocytopenia & thrombosis --this immune complex binds to platelet fc receptors cz platelet activation & formation of platelet microparticles that in turn INDUCE hyper-COAGULABILITY & THromBocytopenia
what is thrombo-philia
is the propensity 2 dev THROMBOSIS (blood clots) due to abnormal in system of coagulation (process by which blood form clots) ==hypercoagulability==