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111 Cards in this Set
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The Gain of a differential amplifier is defined as:
A: Output Voltage minus input voltage B: The voltage difference between the inputs C: Input voltage divided by output voltage D: Output voltage divided by input voltage |
D. Output Voltage divided by input voltage
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You do not want to use a power extension cord because:
A: It is a fire hazard B: It will increase your risk of ground leakage C: It will mean that more current could be delivered to the patient if the ground fails D: It may interfere with the operation of other devices in the operating room |
C: It will mean that more current could be delivered to the patient if the ground fails
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If a sound intensity is increased from 20dB to 40dB, then the sound pressure has increased by a factor of:
A: 20 B: 2 C: 10 D: 100 |
C: 10
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The data above were taken during a microvascular decompression of trigeninal nerve. Which of the following is a possible cause for the change in wave V?
A: Drilling of the cranium B: Disruption of the cochlear blood supply C: Manipulation of the trigeminal nerve D: Retraction of the cerebellum |
D: Retraction of the cerebellum
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Which of the following is the generator for the peak marked "A"?
A: Superior Olive B: Inferior colliculus C: Medial geniculate body D: Auditory cortex |
B: Inferior colliculus
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The positive input of a differential amplifier is also called the:
A: Input voltage B: Non-inverting input C: Inverting input D: Active input |
B: Non-inverting input
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Which one of the following is an excitatory neurotransmitter?
A: GABA B: Glutamate C: Glycine D: Phenylalanine |
B: Glutamate
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The stimulation rate is determined by the:
A: Analysis time B: Number of stimulations C: Stimulus intensity D: Nerve conduction velocity |
A: Analysis time
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What cranial nerve is being activated?
A: Oculomotor B: Facial C: Trigeminal D: Orbicularis |
B: Facial
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What is the advantage of using bipolar recording pairs for monitoring of cranial nerve spontaneous EMG?
A: Avoids far-field recording of nearby muscle activity B: Is more sensitive to irritation of cranial nerves C: Maximizes amplitude of recorded EMG D: Less affected by neuromuscular blockade |
A: Avoids far-field recording of nearby muscle activity
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If you can't replace an electrode that has come out during surgery, you?:
A: Ask the surgeon to stop and replace it B: Ignore the missing recording channel and continues to monitor C: Use a duplicate D: Discontinue monitoring |
C: Use a duplicate
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If you get artifact in your subcortical channel, you:
A: Ask anesthesia to increase gases B: Ask surgeon to move retractors C: Disable the subcortical channel D: Use a spare CS5 electrode |
D: Use a spare CS5 electrode
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Which one of the following is an inhibitory neurotransmitter?
A: GABA B: Serotonin C: Dopamine D: Phenylalanine |
A: GABA
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If you receive a shock from the chassis of your machine during monitoring, you should first:
A: Call Biomed B: Turn off the machine C: Save and print your data D: Disconnect the patient |
D: Disconnect the patient
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The minimum required Common Mode Rejection ratio of a differential amplifier is:
A: 10,000 : 1 B: 1,000 : 1 C: 80 : 1 D: 10 :1 |
A: 10,000 : 1
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The recording from the deltoid probably indicates:
A: Stimulus artifact B: Bovie artifact C: Neurotonic Discharge D: Burst EMG |
C: Neurotonic discharge
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The most appropriate ABR interstimulus interval is:
A: 50mS B: 20mS C: 5mS D: 0.2mS |
B: 20mS
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What is the machine that measures current leakage?
A: Ammeter B: Ohmmeter C: Voltmeter D: Photometer |
A: Ammeter
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Having poor ground reistance represents a safety problem because:
A: No, it really is not a safety issue B: Any current leakage to the chassis may find a path to ground through your body C: The machine might not function properly D: It may affect other electrical equipment that have connections to Earth ground |
B: Any current leaking to the chassis may find a path to ground through your body
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ABR condensation clicks from the transducer causes:
A: Movement of the tympanic membrane toward the cochlea B: Movement of the tymplanic membrane away from the cochlea C: Movement toward and away from the cochlea D: A pure tone to be produced |
A: Movement of the tympanic membrane toward the cochlea
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A shocking sensation that occurs throughout the body during neck flexion is called:
A: Tinel's Sign B: L'Hermittes sign C: Fubar syndrome D: Guillaime-Barre syndrome |
B: L'Hermittes sign
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Brown-Sequard syndrome:
A: Degeneration of cortical neurons B: Myopathy C: Vascular disease D: Hemi-spinal cord lesion |
D. Hemi-spinal cord lesion
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An ABR has a normal wave one then delayed wave I-V on one side. What type of surgery is this most consistent with:
A: CPA tumor B: Thalamic tumor C: Cervical spinal tumor D: Tympanomastoidectomy |
A: CPA tumor
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A 10Hz signal passing through a 10Hz locut filter will be:
A: reduced in frequency to approximately 7 Hz B: Affected in no way C: Reduced in amplitude by approximately 30% D: Eliminated |
C: Reduced in amplitude by approximately 30%
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Impedance is:
A: Opposition to direct current flow B: Voltage times current C: Opposition to alternating current flow D: Not an important issue with regard to electrodes |
C: Opposition to alternating current flow
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Where is the ABR wave V generated:
A: Medulla B: Midbrain C: Thalamus D: Temporal Lobe |
B: Midbrain
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Tinel's sign:
A: Cortex B: Peripheral Nerve C: Spinal Cord D: Muscle |
B: Peripheral Nerve
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A major advantage of digital filters over analog filters is:
A: They reduce or eliminate frequencies above or below a given cutoff B: They require digitization of the analog signal C: They operate faster than analog filters D: They impose no phase effects on the recorded signal |
D: They impose no phase effects on the recorded signal
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Lumbar potential is generated from :
A: Pre-synaptic responses B: Post-synaptic responses C: Spinal ganglion D: Sciatic nerve |
B: Post-synaptic responses
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What is the very large amplitude potential following the ABR waves I-V at approximately 15mS?
A: Large latency potential B: Postauricular myogenic response C: Middle latency potential D: Wave VI |
C: Middle Latency potential
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A 60Hz notch filter should not be used for evoked potential recording because of:
A: The ringing artifact that come from distortion of the stimulus artifact B: Aliasing of the signal by the filter C: 60Hz interference coming from the various OR equipement D: Common Mode rejection of 60Hz prior to filtering |
A: The ringing artifact that comes from distortion of the stimulus artifact
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When can the BAEP no longer be successfully performed? After resection of:
A: Tympanic membrane B: Ossicles C: Acoustic nerve D: Vestibular nerve |
C. Acoustic nerve
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Lowering the SSEP hicut filter from 500Hz to 200Hz may cause the cortical peaks to:
A: Appear larger in amplitude B: Appear shorter in latency C: Become insensitive to anesthesia D: Appear longer in latency |
D: Appear longer in latency
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Kyphosis:
A: Side to side curvature of the spine B: Convex curvature of the spine C: Concave curvature of the spine D: Fractured spine |
B: Convex curvature of the spine
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This audiogram indicates that at 2kHz frequency, the patients right ear threshold of hearing was:
A: 40 dB SPL B: 40 dB HL C: 10 dB SPL D: 10 dB HL |
B: 40 dB HL
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Fentanyl infusion will:
A: Have no affect on amplitude or latency B: Decrease amplitude only C: Increase amplitude and increase latency D: Increase latency and decrease amplitude |
D: Increase latency and decrease amplitude
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Which time constant would be most effective for cutting out low frequency noise from your signal?
A: 10ms B: 100ms C: 1 s D: 10 s |
A: 10ms
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What is the required horizontal resolution of an evoked potential system:
A: At least 8 bits per data point B: 20uS per data point or less C: At least 20uS per data point D: At least twice the Nyquist frequency |
B: 20uS per data point or less
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Which of the following will result in significantly elevated SSEP latencies:
A: Positive patellar reflex B: Brown-Sequard syndrome C: Charcot-Marie Tooth disease D: Carotid Stenosis |
C: Charcot-Marie Tooth disease
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The vertical resolution of an evoked potential system depends primarily on:
A: The analysis period B: The sampling rate C: The filter settings D: The number of bits in the A/D converter |
D: The number of bits in the A/D converter
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During a thoracic laminectomy, a rapid loss of the right PTN cortical responses occurs. The cervical response is too poor to evaluate, and the popliteal fossa responses remain unchanged. What should you do first?
A: Run MN and check anesthetic levels B: Inform the surgeon immediately and indicate that changes are consistent with a right hemi-cord injury C: Check the right stimulator output with a bar electrode D: Reset the amplifier, check your recording parameters, and wait to see if the responses return |
B: Inform the surgeon immediately and indicate that the changes are consisent with a right hemi-cord injury
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The most frequent source of patient infection in the OR derives from:
A: The patients own endogenous flora B: Non-sterile instruments C: Bacteria from the surgical staff D: Bacteria from the operating room environment |
A: The patients on endogenous flora
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The main source of airborne bacteria in the OR is from:
A: Plume resulting from electrocautery B: OR personnel talking, laughing and coughing C: Exfoliated skin particles from the OR staff D: Flies in the OR |
C: Exfoliated skin particles from the OR staff
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After-discharge occur after what:
A: Seizure B: Transcranial motor stimulation C: Direct cortical stimulation D: Phase reversal |
C: Direct cortical stimulation
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A 10-bit A/D converter has how many discrete voltage values in its range:
A: 256 B: 512 C: 1024 D: 2048 |
C: 1024
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What is the minimum required vertical resolution of an evoked potential system:
A: 8 bits B: 16 bits C: 80 bits D: 256 bits |
A: 8 bits
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Electrical amplitude of the SEP is:
A: 0.1 to 10uV B: 10 to 100uV C: 100 to 1000uV D: 1,000 to 10,000uV |
A: 0.1 to 10uV
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Which of the following is most consistent with a discrete lesion of the medial geniculate body:
A: Loss of wave V B: Loss of waves III-V C: Loss of waves II-V D: No changes in waves I-V |
D: No changes in waves I-V
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The facial nerve CMAP response has a latency of approximately:
A: 3 msec B: 5 msec C: 7 msec D: 10 msec |
C: 7 msec
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Cotrel-Dubousset instrumentation involves which of the following:
A: Sublaminar Wires B: Derotation C: Distraction D: Intervertebral Diskectomy |
B: Derotation
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The primary risk to the spinal cord during Luque instrumentation is:
A: Placement of bone graft B: Insertion of pedicle screws C: Placement of wires D: Derotation of the rod |
C: Placement of wires
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If the bin width of your system is 20uS, then the highest frequency signal that can be resolved is:
A: 50KHz B: 25KHz C: 20KHz D: 100KHz |
B: 25KHz
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Harrington rod instrumentation uses:
A: Hooks and a rod B: Rods and screws C: Wires and rods D: Rods, hooks and screws |
A: Hooks and a rod
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What EEG changes would you expect after intra-carotid sodium amytal?
A: Diffuse decrease B: Ictal discharges C: Contralateral decrease in high frequency D: Ipsilateral decrease in high frequency |
D: Ipsilateral decrease in high frequency
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Which of the following is true of transcranial magnetic stimulation:
A: Stimulation is painful B: The technique is invasive C: The myogenic response is resistant to anesthetic effects D: Responses are sensitive to positioning of the magnetic coils |
D: Responses are sensitive to positioning of the magnetic coils
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Cranial nerve XII can be monitored using electrodes inserted into the:
A: Vocalis muscle B: Trapezius muscle C: Tongue D: Soft palate |
C: Tongue
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Why do we use electrodes with the same metals:
A: To ensure high impedance B: To ensure low impedance C: To prevent electrode polarization D: To get electrode polarization |
C: To prevent electrode polarization
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Your initial signal amplitude is 0.5uV inside a background noise of 2uV, what will the signal noise ratio be after 400 averages:
A: 0.25 B: 1 C: 5 D: 100 |
C: 5
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The primary risk associated with sublaminar wire placement is:
A: Nerve root damage B: Subluxation C: Dorsal Column injury D: Blood Loss |
C: Dorsal column injury
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Horizontal dipole:
A: EP B: N13 C: N18 D: N34 |
B: N13
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You want to have matching impedances so that:
A: Vertical resolution will be optimized B: Horizontal resolution will be optimized C: You can maximize your common mode rejection D: You can minimize your common mode rejection |
C: You can maxamize your common mode rejection
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Midazolam is what type of drug:
A: Opioid B: Neuromuscular blocker C: Halogenated gas D: Benzodiazepine |
D: Benzodiazepine
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Cranial nerve X can be monitored using electrodes inserted into the:
A: Vocalis muscle B: Trapezius muscle C: Tongue D: Soft palate |
A: Vocalis muscle
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Somatosensory evoked potentials are less reliable in patients with:
A: Severe scoliosis B: History of nicotine abuse C: A tethered spinal cord D: Neuromuscular disease |
D: Neuromuscular disease
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You want your vertical resolution to:
A: Be 10% of your input B: Match the amplitude of your input to maximize the signal C: Match the horizontal resolution to maximize the signal D: Be 1% of your input |
B: Match the amplitude of your input to maximize the signal
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Which of the following drugs has an appreciable effect on peripheral nerve APs:
A: Sufentanil B: Vecuronium C: Desflurane D: None of the above |
D: None of the above
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The change seen at trace "E" is most likely caused by:
A: Brachial plexus compression B: Cervical spinal cord injury C: Middle cerebral artery infarct D: Anterior cerebral artery infarct |
C: Middle cerebral artery infarct
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If the OR is very cold, what component of your median SSEPs would you most likely expect to see changes in latency:
A: N20 B: N13 C: N9 D: All waveforms |
D: All waveforms
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Which of these electrodes is regarded as an effective stimulator during facial nerve recordings:
A: Silver disk electrodes B: Spinal epidural electrodes C: Bipolar concentric EMG needle D: Nasopharyngeal probe |
C: Bipolar concentric EMG needle
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Desflurane has more rapid onset and recovery than Isoflurane because:
A: Desflurane has a lower blood solubility than Isoflurane B: Desflurane has a higher blood solubility than Isoflurane C: Desblurane is injected directly into the blood stream D: A MAC of Desflurane is several times that of Isoflurane |
A: Desflurane has a lower blood solubility than Isoflurane
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What would you monitor for microvascular decompression of the Vth cranial nerve:
A: Sternocleidomastoid B: Masseter C: Superior Oblique D: Medial rectus |
B: Masseter
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Cranial nerve IV can be monitored using electrodes inserted into the:
A: Lateral rectus B: Inferior oblique C: Superior oblique D: Trochlea |
C: Superior oblique
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The EEG traces above are observed just minutes prior to clamping of the internal carotid during a carotid endarterectomy procedure. This is most likely due to:
A: Bolus of thiopental B: Transient occlusion of the carotid C: A schizoid embolism D: Heparin injection |
A: Bolus of thiopental
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If you have a lot of high frequency noise in your BAEPs you can change your filter from:
A: 10 to 30 Hz B: 10 to 200 Hz C: 2500 to 150 Hz D: 2500 to 1500 Hz |
D: 2500 to 1500 Hz
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What type of electrode is recommended for monitoring facial nerve:
A: Hook-wire B: Surface C: Ring electrode D: Cueva Nerve electrode |
A: Hook-wire
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This type EEG is called:
A: Raw EEG B: Condensed Spectral Array C: Density Spectral Array D: Power Spectral Array |
B: Condensed Spectral Array
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The EEG change observed at 14:22 is most likely caused by:
A: An injection of sodium penothal B: A failure of the left stimulator C: Cross-Clampling of the left carotid D: Any of the above |
C: Cross-clamping of the left carotid
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A decrease in the poser spectral edge indicates:
A: Nothing B: Insufficient brain perfusion C: Increased anesthesia D: A greater proportion of EEG power at the lower frequencies |
D: A greater proportion of EEG power at the lower frequencies
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Why are SSEP and MEP used simultaneously:
A: Spinal cord damage can occur in only one track causing loss of MEP but not SSEP B: Because MEPs indicate spinothalamic tract function C: Because SSEP monitoring alone is not very sensitive to changes in spinal cord function D: All of the above |
A: Spinal cord damage can occur in only one track causing loss of MEP but not SSEP
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Stimulating PTN contracts:
A: Toe Flexors B: Toe extensors C: Gastrocnemius D: Tibialis anterior |
A: Toe Flexors
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The responses recorded at 13:17 could be the result of:
A: Turning the Nitrous oxide off B: Relieving pressure on the cervical spinal cord C: Repositioning the patient's right arm D: Unclamping the left carotid artery |
D: Unclamping the left carotid artery
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When doing a C5 decompression involving the axillary nerve which muscle shouldyou record from:
A: Trapezius B: Biceps C: Deltoid D: Triceps |
C: Triceps
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The integrity of the facial nerve in acoustic neuroma surgery is determined by:
A: Spontaneous EMG B: Proximal CMAP C: Distal CMAP D: Stagnara wake-up test |
B: Proximal CMAP
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The Tibial and common peroneal nerves form from what nerve:
A: Sural B: Saphenous C: Femoral D: Sciatic |
D: Sciatic
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Stimulating the median nerve at the wrist yields an Erbs point response at 10mS and a NCV of 60mS. What is the distance between cathode and the Erbs point recording electrode:
A: 50cm B: 60cm C: 166cm D: Cannot be determined with this information |
B: 60cm
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Stimulation of the median nerve at the wrist will activate which muscle:
A: Abductor Digiti Minimi B: Abductor Pollicis Brevis C: Biceps D: Deltoid |
B: Abductor Pollicis Brevis
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Asynchronous bilateral stimulation:
A: will yield the sume of left and right responses B: Allows one to monitor left and right responses on a single channel C: Will cause asymmetric responses D: Is insensitive to unilateral response changes |
B: Allows one to monitor left and right responses on a single channel
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Which of the following peaks will be most affected by Desflurane:
A: P37 B: P100 C: N20 D: Wave V |
B: P100
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You record spinal potential to:
A: Proof of stimulation B: Monitor for positional limb problems. C: Assess temperature effects D: Establish an AP |
D: Establish an AP
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What is the most important step to setting up ABRs:
A: Cleaning the ear canal with betadine B: Placing the foam inserts C: Sealing the ear closed D: Filing the silastic tubing with saline |
B: Placing the foam inserts
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Alternating clicks can be used to:
A: Eliminate stimulus artifact B: Decrease noise C: Increase wave I artifact D: Evaluate left and right sides simultaneously |
A: Eliminate stimulus artifact
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The resting membrane potential of a neuron is primarily maintained by:
A: Passive diffusion of charged ions B: The Sodium-Potassium pump C: Action Potentials D: The opening of sodium channels |
B: The Sodium-Potassium pump
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The central conduction time for median nerve SSEPs is:
A: N9 - N20 B: P14 - P23 C: P14 - N20 D: N13 - N18 |
C: P14 - N20
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What montage will help you discern wave IV and V in BAEP:
A: Ipsi ear - FZ B: Cz - Fz C: Cz - Contra ear D: Ipsi ear - Contra ear |
C: Cz - Contra ear
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The median nerve data above are most consistent with:
A: Failure of the left stimulator B: Lesion in the right pons C: Ischemia of the anterior cerebral artery D: Cervical spinal cord lesion |
B: Lesion in the right pons
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The asymmetry of the Erbs point responses is most likely due to:
A: Inadequate right stimulation B: Poor arm positioning C: Peripheral neuropathy D: Electrode placement |
D: Electrode placement
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In the A1-FPZ montage, the peak marked "1" probably represents:
A: Thalamic responses B: Stationary cervical cord response C: Caudal medial lemniscus activity D: Far-field brachial plexus activity |
C: Caudal medial lemniscus activity
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Regarding Wave I of the ABR, the proposed generator is:
A: Superior Olivary Complex B: Inferior Colliculus C: Cranial Nerve VIII D: Tympanic membrane |
C: Cranial Nerve VIII
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What is the MAXIMUM time in which to expect EEG changes following cross clamping of the carotid:
A: 30 sec B: 1 min C: 2 min D: 5 min |
C: 2 min
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What is the initial event that occurs when the action potential threshold of a neuron is reached:
A: The ATP pump shuts down B: Voltage-gated sodium channels open C: Voltage-gated sodium channels close D: Sodium rapidly diffuses out of the cell |
B: Voltage-gated sodium channels open
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What is the period of a 200 Hz signal:
A: 200 mS B: 50 mS C: 5 mS D: 2 mS |
C: 5 mS
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An EPSP will cause what to happen:
A: Depolarization of the post-synaptic membrane B: Hyperpolarization of the post-synaptic membrane C: Propagation of an action potential D: Inhibition of all action potentials |
A: Depolarization of the post-synaptic membrane
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How many waves of a 6Hz signal should you see in a 250mS sweep:
A: 4 B: 12 C: 15 D: 20 |
C: 15
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If you have a 5uV signal amplitude and a 20uV noise amplitude, how many averages would you need to get a signal to noise ratio of 2:1?:
A: 16 B: 20 C: 64 D: 100 |
C: 64
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The Sodium-Potassium Pump:
A: Pumps NA into the cell and K out of the cell B: Pumps both Na and K out of the cell C: Pumps K into the cell and Na out of the cell D: Pumps both Na and K into the cell |
C: Pumps K into the cell and Na out of the cell
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A 60Hz artifact would most likely be caused by:
A: Pneumatic drill B: Blanket warmer C: Infusion pump D: Ultrasonic aspirator |
C: Infusion pump
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An optimal rep rate for BAEPs is:
A: 4.47 Hz B: 2.67 Hz C: 31 Hz D: 56 Hz |
C: 31 Hz
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Cardiac activity appears on the CSA/DSA display as:
A: Delta activity B: Alpha activity C: Beta activity D: Burst Suppression |
A: Delta activity
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What is the noise reduction technique that best reduces EKG artifact:
A: Artifact reject B: Hicut filter C: Common Mode rejection D: Averaging |
A: Artifact reject
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During a median nerve preoperative study, a patient has discomfort at the wrist. Stimulation electrodes are 10mm gold disk, stimulus intensity is 20mA, and stimulus duration is 100uS. Which of the following would likely reduce the patients discomfort while maintaining adequate stimulation:
A: Increase stimulation duration B: Decrease number of repititions C: Use smaller stimulating electrodes D: Decrease stimulus intensity below motor threshold |
B: Decrease number of repititions
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What cranial nerves monitoring will be ideal for Cerebellopontine (CP) angle tumor:
A: V & VII B: VII & VIII C: VIII & IX D: VII, VIII, XII |
B: VII & VIII
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