Cna Certified Nursing Assistant Fl -- Part 1

Front 1

Acute care facilities provide care to individuals known as
A. patients.
B. residents.
C. clients.
D. patrons.

Back 1

A. patients.

Front 2

Long-term care facilities provide
A. trauma care to acutely ill individuals.
B. obstetrical care to mothers and infants.
C. care for individuals who are undergoing surgery.
D. services to persons with stable chronic illnesses.

Back 2

D. services to persons with stable chronic illnesses.

Front 3

Long-term acute care hospitals
A. are comparable to long-term care nursing facilities.
B. provide services to unstable, short-term patients.
C. accept patients with a good chance for improvement.
D. provide acute, complex care for terminally ill patients.

Back 3

C. accept patients with a good chance for improvement.

Front 4

Health care is financed by all of the following except
A. the Health Care Financing Association.
B. private insurance plans.
C. governmental programs.
D. health maintenance organizations.

Back 4

A. the Health Care Financing Association.

Front 5

Cost containment
A. is not a priority for the health care worker.
B. involves saving money from your paycheck.
C. requires workers to use costly supplies.
D. involves avoiding waste and minimizing expenses.

Back 5

D. involves avoiding waste and minimizing expenses.

Front 6

An important consideration in health care is
A. preserving life at all costs.
B. withholding expensive care from the elderly.
C. maintaining and enhancing quality of life.
D. humanizing care only for young patients.

Back 6

C. maintaining and enhancing quality of life.

Front 7

Medicare payment to the acute care facility is based on
A. the actual cost of providing care.
B. diagnosis related groups.
C. an rate equivalent to private insurance.
D. a uniform procedural payment scale.

Back 7

B. diagnosis related groups.

Front 8

The governmental agency that protects the health and safety of employees is
A. JCAHO.
B. HCFA.
C. health department.
D. OSHA.

Back 8

D. OSHA.

Front 9

The purpose of continuous quality improvement is to
A. write deficiencies on the staff.
B. create a good paper trail.
C. identify and correct problems.
D. develop material safety data sheets.

Back 9

C. identify and correct problems.

Front 10

10. Nursing care is planned and directed by
A. registered nurses.
B. physicians.
C. licensed practical (vocational) nurses.
D. supervisory personnel.

Back 10

A. registered nurses.

Front 11

You report your concerns about patient care to your immediate supervisor, who seems unconcerned and tells you she is too busy to address the problem.You should
A. say nothing.
B. inform the next person in authority.
C. report to the physician.
D. complete an incident report.

Back 11

B. inform the next person in authority.

Front 12

When delivering care,
A. complete only those procedures that you are instructed to do.
B. always do everything that the patient requests.
C. perform procedures that are safely within your scope of practice.
D. assist only the patients listed on your assignment.

Back 12

C. perform procedures that are safely within your scope of practice.

Front 13

The OBRA regulations
A. provide recognition to nursing assistants through registration.
B. define the scope of RN practice in acute care facilities.
C. determine the members of the interdisciplinary team.
D. regulate hospital structure and function.

Back 13

A. provide recognition to nursing assistants through registration.

Front 14

The Patient's Bill of Rights is
A. given to patients only if requested.
B. provided to all patients upon hospital admission.
C. given to clients who are receiving care in the home.
D. not a legally binding document.

Back 14

B. provided to all patients upon hospital admission.

Front 15

Documents that provide instructions about the patient's wishes for treatment—in the event the patient is unable to communicate her wishes are
A. ethical practices.
B. advance directives.
C. the bill of rights.
D. grievances.

Back 15

B. advance directives.

Front 16

Informed consent means that the
A. physician makes health care decisions on behalf of the patient.
B. health care personnel will make decisions in the patient’s best interest.
C. patient makes decisions based on full disclosure of procedures, benefits, and risks.
D. patient has a right to complain if he is unhappy with the outcome of care.

Back 16

C. patient makes decisions based on full disclosure of procedures, benefits, and risks.

Front 17

The rights of residents in long-term care facilities
A. were legislated by OBRA 1987.
B. are identical to hospital patients’ rights.
C. are more restrictive than rights in other health care settings.
D. do not include advance directives.

Back 17

A. were legislated by OBRA 1987.

Front 18

Legal standards are
A. moral codes of conduct.
B. guides to lawful behavior.
C. ethical codes of conduct.
D. voluntary agreements for workers.

Back 18

B. guides to lawful behavior.

Front 19

Ethical standards are
A. guides to legal behavior.
B. actions that constitute illegal behavior.
C. acts of wrongdoing.
D. principles of moral behavior.

Back 19

D. principles of moral behavior.

Front 20

You may discuss confidential patient information with
A. your supervisor.
B. the patient's spouse.
C. the patient's family.
D. your own family.

Back 20

A. your supervisor.

Front 21

If you observe a coworker stealing hospital property and do not report the theft, you are guilty of
A. negligence.
B. aiding and abetting.
C. libel.
D. nothing.

Back 21

B. aiding and abetting.

Front 22

If you threaten to hold or restrain a patient so as to make him cooperate with a procedure, you may be guilty of
A. assault.
B. battery.
C. defamation.
D. slander.

Back 22

A. assault.

Front 23

Use of physical restraints without proper authorization constitutes
A. assault.
B. libel.
C. false imprisonment.
D. negligence.

Back 23

C. false imprisonment.

Front 24

An example of physical abuse is
A. making threats.
B. withholding food or water.
C. swearing at the patient.
D. performing personal hygienic measures on private parts of the body.

Back 24

withholding food or water.

Front 25

Failure to exercise the degree of care considered reasonable under the circumstances, resulting in unintended injury to a patient, is
A. slander.
B. libel.
C. battery.
D. negligence.

Back 25

D. negligence.

Front 26

Forcing the patient to do something against her wishes is
A. neglect.
B. coercion.
C. negligence.
D. libel.

Back 26

B. coercion.

Front 27

A mentally confused patient refuses a bath. You know that the patient’s daughter is named as the attorney in the patient’s durable power of attorney for health care, and the daughter has signed the consents for hospital treatment. You should
A. honor the refusal and not give the bath.
B. return later and try to bathe the patient then.
C. call the daughter and ask her what to do.
D. force the patient to bathe.

Back 27

B. return later and try to bathe the patient then.

Front 28

A nursing assistant delivers a meal tray to the bedside of a patient who cannot speak. He places the tray on the table and leaves the room. The patient is in bed, with the rails up, and cannot get to the tray. When the assistant returns, the patient is sleeping. The patient has not eaten. The assistant removes the tray and documents the appetite as “0.” The assistant’s actions constitute
A. neglect.
B. battery.
C. coercion.
D. negligence.

Back 28

A. neglect.

Front 29

Which of the following is an example of nonverbal communication?
A. Spoken words
B. A written report
C. Smiling
D. Screaming

Back 29

C. Smiling

Front 30

When answering the phone, you should
A. identify the unit, yourself, and your title.
B. take orders from the physician.
C. yell down the hall to locate the person being called.
D. tell the caller to call back later.

Back 30

A. identify the unit, yourself, and your title.

Front 31

Written communications that you will be using are
A. physician progress notes.
B. flow sheets and charts.
C. laboratory notes.
D. medical diagnoses.

Back 31

B. flow sheets and charts.

Front 32

"Report" refers to
A. the nursing assistant giving information to the patient's family.
B. informing the patient about his medical condition.
C. receiving information you will need to carry out your assignment.
D. informing your coworkers about your patients’ personal problems.

Back 32

C. receiving information you will need to carry out your assignment.

Front 33

Computers are used in health care facilities for
A. business and financial functions only.
B. communicating and compiling databases.
C. patient entertainment.
D. tracking data only.

Back 33

B. communicating and compiling databases.

Front 34

Active listening involves
A. stating your opinion.
B. looking at the patient even if you are not paying attention.
C. paying attention.
D. giving advice.

Back 34

C. paying attention.

Front 35

When communicating with a patient who has aphasia,
A. keep conversation to a minimum to avoid confusing the patient.
B. ask questions that require only short responses.
C. speak loudly to compensate for the patient's hearing loss.
D. pretend to understand what the patient tells you.

Back 35

B. ask questions that require only short responses.

Front 36

The message sent through the sender’s __________ is the most meaningful part of a communication.
A. words
B. tone of voice
C. pitch
D. body language

Back 36

D. body language

Front 37

During communication with patients, eye contact
A. is often interpreted as a sign of hostility.
B. communicates caring and concern.
C. is not appropriate in the North American culture.
D. makes less of an impression than spoken words.

Back 37

B. communicates caring and concern.

Front 38

Handoff communication
A. is given when a patient transfers to the care of another worker or department.
B. is not necessary if your shift report and documentation are complete and timely.
C. is given to the patient and family members by the nursing assistant at the time of discharge.
D. should be given by licensed professionals only because this is a highly technical procedure.

Back 38

A. is given when a patient transfers to the care of another worker or department.

Front 39

An effective means of showing you understand a communication is to
A. use your body language.
B. write it down.
C. say, “I understand.”
D. use paraphrasing.

Back 39

D. use paraphrasing.

Front 40

Subjective symptoms are those that you
A. see, feel, and hear.
B. cannot visualize.
C. form opinions about.
D. think, feel, and see.

Back 40

B. cannot visualize.

Front 41

Objective symptoms are those that you
A. think are correct.
B. are told about by the patient.
C. use your senses to detect.
D. suspect may be true.

Back 41

C. use your senses to detect.

Front 42

It is important for you as a nursing assistant to know what normal observations are so that you
A. know when the patient's behavior is normal.
B. have the information needed to perform direct care.
C. can recognize whatever is not normal and report it.
D. can perform good assessments.

Back 42

C. can recognize whatever is not normal and report it.

Front 43

When making observations, it helps to
A. review the patient systematically and use all of your senses.
B. expose the patient's body so that you can check the skin.
C. measure all patients by the same standard.
D. observe only those things that the patient complains of.

Back 43

A. review the patient systematically and use all of your senses.

Front 44

The nursing assistant contributes to the nursing process by
A. performing assessments.
B. initiating the patient's care plan.
C. observing and reporting changes.
D. developing a nursing diagnosis.

Back 44

C. observing and reporting changes.

Front 45

The chart is
A. sent home with the patient upon discharge.
B. a legal document that may be used in court.
C. discarded when the patient is discharged.
D. the physician's legal responsibility.

Back 45

B. a legal document that may be used in court.

Front 46

The correct international time for 7:43 PM is
A. 0743
B. 1743
C. 1943
D. 2043

Back 46

C. 1943

Front 47

The pain assessment (rating) scale is used
A. by staff, to determine the level of a patient’s pain.
B. for record keeping and statistical purposes only.
C. so the nursing assistant knows whether pain should be reported.
D. as a tool for the patient to communicate the pain intensity.

Back 47

D. as a tool for the patient to communicate the pain intensity.

Front 48

The HIPAA rules
A. increase the physicians’ control over patients’ medical records.
B. make the nursing department totally responsible for charting patient information.
C. make patients more accountable for protecting their personal medical data.
D. protect all individually identifiable health information in any form.

Back 48

D. protect all individually identifiable health information in any form.

Front 49

Whose responsibility is it to keep the patient's room safe and clean?
A. The housekeeper's
B. The charge nurse's
C. The nursing assistant's
D. The safety committee's

Back 49

C. The nursing assistant's

Front 50

Comfortable temperature for bathwater is
A. 80 degrees F to 90 degrees F.
B. 90 degrees F to 95 degrees F.
C. 95 degrees F to 105 degrees F.
D. 105 degrees F to 115 degrees F.

Back 50

C. 95 degrees F to 105 degrees F.

Front 51

When the nursing assistant has completed care and is ready to leave the room, the patient's bed should be placed in the
A. highest horizontal position.
B. Trendelenburg position.
C. Fowler's position.
D. lowest horizontal position.

Back 51

D. lowest horizontal position.

Front 52

Which of these represents the best temperature for a patient's room?
A. 55 degrees F.
B. 68 degrees F.
C. 72 degrees F.
D. 85 degrees F.

Back 52

C. 72 degrees F.

Front 53

If the nursing assistant notices a broken piece of equipment, she should
A. say nothing, as this is not her responsibility.
B. Quickly bring it to the maintenance department.
C. report it to the appropriate person.
D. discard it in the biohazardous waste.

Back 53

C. report it to the appropriate person.

Front 54

Examples of fire hazards are
A. radios and televisions.
B. linen and trash in the room.
C. overloaded outlets.
D. smoking in designated areas.

Back 54

C. overloaded outlets.

Front 55

When oxygen is in use,
A. post an "Oxygen in Use" sign at the desk.
B. use cotton blankets and gowns.
C. standard precautions are not necessary.
D. remove the call signal.

Back 55

B. use cotton blankets and gowns.

Front 56

The first thing to do if you discover a fire is to
A. call for help.
B. remove the patient to a safe area.
C. pull the fire alarm in the hallway.
D. close the door to the room to contain the fire.

Back 56

B. remove the patient to a safe area.

Front 57

When using the fire extinguisher, always
A. aim the extinguisher at the base of the fire.
B. point the extinguisher toward the top of the flames.
C. hold the extinguisher steady, with as little movement as possible.
D. leave the pin in place.

Back 57

A. aim the extinguisher at the base of the fire.

Front 58

10. Adapting the environment and using techniques to prevent injury is
A. ergonomics.
B. body mechanics.
C. repetitive motion.
D. a high-risk task.

Back 58

A. ergonomics.

Front 59

The purpose of the MSDS is to
A. inform employees of the location of hazards in the facility.
B. explain how to read chemical labels on hazardous materials.
C. identify the source of information for electrical hazards.
D. list precautions to take in the presence of a chemical hazard.

Back 59

D. list precautions to take in the presence of a chemical hazard.

Front 60

When lifting a heavy patient or object,
A. bend at the waist.
B. use your strong leg muscles.
C. keep your feet close together.
D. avoid close contact.

Back 60

B. use your strong leg muscles.

Front 61

When moving a dependent patient in bed,
A. perform this procedure by yourself.
B. use a sheet to turn and reposition the patient.
C. always have two or three other people assist.
D. use the mechanical lift whenever possible.

Back 61

B. use a sheet to turn and reposition the patient.

Front 62

Proper body alignment is
A. positioning the patient in a state of flexion.
B. maintaining the patient in a state of extension.
C. keeping the patient in a position of function.
D. positioning the patient so the toes point downward.

Back 62

C. keeping the patient in a position of function.

Front 63

When positioning a patient in bed, you should
A. use pillows and props for support if necessary.
B. turn the patient from side to side every three hours.
C. avoid the supine position whenever possible.
D. rest the patient's back on the side rail for support.

Back 63

A. use pillows and props for support if necessary.

Front 64

A patient is receiving tube feeding. The nurse instructs you to position the patient in Fowler's position. This means the
A. head of the bed is elevated 20 to 30 degrees.
B. patient is on his side with knees flexed.
C. head of the bed is elevated 45 to 60 degrees.
D. knee rest should be elevated and the head flat.

Back 64

C. head of the bed is elevated 45 to 60 degrees.

Front 65

When moving a patient,
A. use your strong arm muscles to do the heaviest work.
B. bend from the hips and knees and use your leg muscles.
C. bend at the waist to prevent injury to your back.
D. inhale deeply and relax your abdominal muscles.

Back 65

B. bend from the hips and knees and use your leg muscles.

Front 66

When positioning a patient on the side,
A. cross the arms over the chest.
B. place a pillow between the legs.
C. flex the neck as much as possible.
D. raise the side rail near the back.

Back 66

B. place a pillow between the legs.

Front 67

Beginning procedure actions include
A. documenting the procedure.
B. handwashing.
C. always applying gloves.
D. lowering the bed height.

Back 67

B. handwashing.

Front 68

A turning sheet is positioned
A. lengthwise on the bed.
B. under the head and shoulders.
C. from the shoulders to below the hips.
D. from the waist to the knees.

Back 68

C. from the shoulders to below the hips.

Front 69

When turning the patient toward you, you should
A. pull on the patient's wrist and shoulder.
B. extend the legs and arms until they are straight.
C. place your hip against the bed to add leverage.
D. place one hand on the shoulder and one on the hip.

Back 69

D. place one hand on the shoulder and one on the hip.

Front 70

When assisting a patient to move up to the head of the bed, you should
A. keep the head of the bed elevated.
B. leave the pillow under the patient's head.
C. place the pillow against the headboard.
D. raise the knee rest of the bed.

Back 70

C. place the pillow against the headboard.

Front 71

Restraints are
A. medical devices.
B. used for staff convenience.
C. an alternative to bed alarms.
D. applied when the patient wanders.

Back 71

A. medical devices.

Front 72

The logrolling procedure should always be used for patients who
A. are unconscious.
B. have had spinal cord surgery.
C. are paralyzed on the left side.
D. are totally dependent.

Back 72

B. have had spinal cord surgery.

Front 73

Mrs. Hernandez keeps trying to climb over the side rails. The nurse instructs you to put them down. When you enter the room, the patient is ambulating with an unsteady gait, pushing the overbed table. You suggest using a
A. vest restraint.
B. belt restraint.
C. pressure-sensitive bed alarm.
D. geriatric chair.

Back 73

C. pressure-sensitive bed alarm.

Front 74

Which of the following principles should guide the use of restraints?
A. The most restrictive device is used for as long as necessary.
B. The least restrictive device is used for the least time possible.
C. Restraints are used any time the patient will not cooperate.
D. Restraints are used as a means of behavior management.

Back 74

B. The least restrictive device is used for the least time possible.

Front 75

When preparing to transfer a patient who is paralyzed from the bed to the chair, position the chair
A. on the patient's strongest side.
B. on the patient's weakest side.
C. so that it is facing the side of the bed.
D. in vertical alignment at the foot of the bed.

Back 75

A. on the patient's strongest side.

Front 76

When transferring a patient,
A. instruct the patient to lock his hands behind your neck.
B. use a transfer belt whenever possible.
C. place your hands under the patient's shoulders.
D. keep your feet close together.

Back 76

B. use a transfer belt whenever possible.

Front 77

When moving a dependent patient from the bed to a chair,
A. back the chair up against the wall or strong furniture.
B. brace the patient's strongest leg with your leg and foot for support.
C. instruct the patient to keep her feet as close together as possible.
D. bend from the waist and use your arm muscles.

Back 77

A. back the chair up against the wall or strong furniture.

Front 78

When using a mechanical lift,
A. two nursing assistants are needed.
B. place the chair at right angles to the foot of the bed facing the foot of the bed.
C. place the sling under the patient's buttocks and legs.
D. leave the door to the room open, in case help is needed.

Back 78

A. two nursing assistants are needed.

Front 79

When transferring a conscious patient from a stretcher to the bed,
A. lock the wheels of the stretcher only and raise the near rail.
B. remove the bath blanket covering the patient before beginning the transfer.
C. adjust the height of the bed so it is higher than the stretcher.
D. use a sheet, and arrange for others to help.

Back 79

D. use a sheet, and arrange for others to help.

Front 80

When transferring an unconscious patient from a stretcher to the bed, how many nursing assistants are required to safely perform the procedure?
A. Two
B. Three to four
C. Four to five
D. Six to seven

Back 80

B. Three to four

Front 81

33. Before beginning a transfer,
A. always explain what you are going to do and how the patient can help.
B. position the patient so he moves toward the weakest side.
C. instruct the patient to put his hands around your neck.
D. position the chair so the patient makes a 90-degree turn.

Back 81

A. always explain what you are going to do and how the patient can help.

Front 82

Before transferring a dependent patient from bed to chair, you should
A. obtain the mechanical lift.
B. know the patient’s capabilities.
C. have the patient place her arms around your waist.
D. ask at least two other nursing assistants to help.

Back 82

B. know the patient’s capabilities.

Front 83

When applying a transfer belt,
A. fasten the belt in the back.
B. apply the belt as loosely as possible.
C. make sure the belt is below the breasts.
D. slip one hand under the belt so it is not too tight.

Back 83

C. make sure the belt is below the breasts.

Front 84

When administering first aid, your first consideration is
A. maintaining the airway.
B. adequacy of circulation.
C. signs and symptoms of shock.
D. the degree of trauma to the patient.

Back 84

A. maintaining the airway.

Front 85

When providing first aid at the scene of an automobile accident, you should
A. ask bystanders to leave.
B. get everyone out of cars and onto the ground.
C. consider safety hazards at the scene.
D. do nothing until a qualified person directs you.

Back 85

C. consider safety hazards at the scene.

Front 86

You are performing CPR on a patient whom you have found on the floor in an empty lounge area. No one else is in the vicinity. You should get help by
A. running for the nurse.
B. calling out loudly.
C. waiting for someone to find you.
D. looking for a call signal or phone.

Back 86

B. calling out loudly.

Front 87

An indication of complete airway obstruction is
A. the victim tells you he is choking.
B. high-pitched sounds on inhalation.
C. the victim coughing forcefully to expel a foreign body.
D. the victim has his fingers in his mouth.

Back 87

B. high-pitched sounds on inhalation.

Front 88

When performing the Heimlich maneuver, your hands should be placed
A. on the diaphragm.
B. immediately below the ribcage.
C. slightly above the navel.
D. on the lower abdomen.

Back 88

C. slightly above the navel.

Front 89

Chest thrusts are indicated for a choking victim if
A. you are unable to get your arms around the victim.
B. the victim is lying in bed in the supine position.
C. you believe the obstruction is high in the throat.
D. the victim is elderly or paralyzed.

Back 89

A. you are unable to get your arms around the victim.

Front 90

7. If a choking victim loses consciousness, you should
A. position the patient in the supine position, tip the head back, and begin CPR.
B. place the victim in the prone position and apply steady downward pressure on the back.
C. immediately begin rescue breathing once every five seconds.
D. never place your fingers in the victim's mouth.

Back 90

A. position the patient in the supine position, tip the head back, and begin CPR.

Front 91

When an airway obstruction is present in a conscious infant, you should
A. perform 6 to 10 abdominal thrusts in rapid sequence.
B. administer 6 to 10 quick back blows.
C. deliver a combination of back blows and chest thrusts.
D. administer four chest thrusts, then attempt rescue breathing.

Back 91

C. deliver a combination of back blows and chest thrusts.

Front 92

Early signs and symptoms of shock include
A. slow pulse, elevated blood pressure.
B. restlessness, perspiration, rapid pulse.
C. flushed face, hot skin, elevated blood pressure.
D. chest pain, edema, shortness of breath.

Back 92

B. restlessness, perspiration, rapid pulse.

Front 93

10. Late signs and symptoms of shock include
A. mottled skin, decrease in temperature.
B. elevated blood pressure, rapid pulse.
C. warm, moist skin.
D. fever and slow, bounding pulse.

Back 93

A. mottled skin, decrease in temperature.

Front 94

11. Place the patient in which position when shock is suspected?
A. High Fowler's
B. Orthopneic
C. Trendelenburg
D. Sims'

Back 94

C. Trendelenburg

Front 95

Risk factors for heart attacks include
A. cigarette smoking.
B. rapid pulse.
C. hypotension.
D. pollution.

Back 95

A. cigarette smoking.

Front 96

Signs and symptoms of a heart attack include
A. swallowing.
B. chest pain.
C. edema.
D. elevated blood pressure.

Back 96

B. chest pain.

Front 97

If you believe that a patient is having a heart attack, you should
A. elevate the head.
B. begin CPR.
C. run for the nurse.
D. position the patient in the Trendelenburg position.

Back 97

A. elevate the head.

Front 98

Signs and symptoms of a stroke include
A. edema.
B. rapid respirations.
C. slurred speech.
D. chest pain.

Back 98

C. slurred speech.

Front 99

After a seizure, the patient may be
A. agitated.
B. nervous.
C. tired.
D. talkative.

Back 99

C. tired.

Front 100

If a patient is having a seizure, your main objective is to
A. stop the seizure activity.
B. protect the patient from injury.
C. keep the patient awake.
D. restrain the patient.

Back 100

B. protect the patient from injury.

Front 101

The most common cause of airway obstruction is
A. the tongue falling back into the throat.
B. laughing and talking while eating.
C. putting foreign objects into the mouth.
D. allergic reaction to a substance.

Back 101

A. the tongue falling back into the throat.

Front 102

If the patient has a known neck injury, open the airway by
A. hyperextending the neck as far as it will go.
B. flexing the neck forward.
C. using the jaw-thrust maneuver.
D. obtaining an oral airway device.

Back 102

C. using the jaw-thrust maneuver.

Front 103

Room air contains approximately
A. 5 percent oxygen.
B. 21 percent oxygen.
C. 63 percent oxygen.
D. 100 percent oxygen.

Back 103

B. 21 percent oxygen.

Front 104

If vomiting occurs during resuscitation,
A. call for an advanced provider with special airway equipment.
B. ignore the vomitus and continue ventilation.
C. stop and wait until suction arrives to clear the mouth.
D. turn the patient, clear the mouth, and continue.

Back 104

D. turn the patient, clear the mouth, and continue.

Front 105

The “landmark” for hand position in CPR is the
A. center of the chest.
B. ribcage.
C. diaphragm.
D. xiphoid process.

Back 105

A. center of the chest.

Front 106

When doing adult CPR, compress the sternum straight down
A. 1/2 to 1 inch.
B. 1 to 1.5 inches.
C. 1.5to 2 inches.
D. 2.5 to 3.5 inches.

Back 106

C. 1.5to 2 inches.

Front 107

When doing adult CPR, compress the chest
A. at a rate of 80 per minute.
B. 80 actual times per minute.
C. at a rate of 100 per minute.
D. 100 actual times per minute.

Back 107

C. at a rate of 100 per minute.

Front 108

Once you begin CPR, you should not stop until
A. an equally qualified rescuer instructs you to.
B. you believe the CPR will not be effective.
C. the patient’s color improves.
D. you are exhausted and unable to continue.

Back 108

D. you are exhausted and unable to continue.

Front 109

The compression-to-ventilation ratio for one-person CPR in an adult is
A. 30:2.
B. 5:1.
C. 2:5.
D. 1:5.

Back 109

A. 30:2.

Front 110

The compression-to-ventilation ratio for one-person CPR in an infant is
A. 2:15.
B. 1:5.
C. 15:2.
D. 30:2.

Back 110

D. 30:2.

Front 111

When doing infant CPR, compress the chest
A. at a rate of 80 per minute.
B. 80 actual times per minute.
C. at a rate of 100 per minute.
D. 100 actual times per minute.

Back 111

C. at a rate of 100 per minute.

Front 112

The “landmark” for hand position in CPR for an infant is
A. on the sternum directly between the nipples.
B. just below the line between the nipples.
C. on the upper half of the ribcage.
D. on the xiphoid process.

Back 112

B. just below the line between the nipples.

Front 113

The depth of compressions for a child is
A. approximately one-third to one-half the depth of the chest.
B. approximately one-half to three-fourths of the depth of the child’s body.
C. approximately three-fourths of the depth of the child’s body.
D. 1/2 to 1 inch.

Back 113

A. approximately one-third to one-half the depth of the chest.

Front 114

Complications of head injury may not be evident for up to
A. 2 hours.
B. 8 hours.
C. 24 hours.
D. 72 hours.

Back 114

D. 72 hours.

Front 115

The normal respiratory rate is determined by age.
A. True
B. False

Back 115

A. True

Front 116

Abnormal respirations are often a warning of an impending crisis.
A. True
B. False

Back 116

A. True

Front 117

When opening the airway, position the patient on the back and support with a pillow.
A. True
B. False

Back 117

B. False

Front 118

Patients with injuries of the head and face often have neck injuries as well.
A. True
B. False

Back 118

A. True

Front 119

Most health care facilities encourage staff to use mouth-to-mouth ventilation to treat patients who are in respiratory arrest.
A. True
B. False

Back 119

B. False

Front 120

The benefits of early defibrillation in cardiac arrest have not been proven.
A. True
B. False

Back 120

B. False

Front 121

When doing abdominal thrusts, pressing on the patient’s ribs with your forearms could cause serious injury to the internal structures, including the liver.
A. True
B. False

Back 121

A. True

Front 122

If there are two rescuers, the preferred hand placement for chest compressions in an infant is to encircle the chest and back with the hands, then compress downward with the thumbs.
A. True
B. False

Back 122

A. True

Front 123

In the unconscious patient with an obstructed airway, probe the airway with your fingers to determine if a foreign body is present.
A. True
B. False

Back 123

B. False

Front 124

Allow the patient in shock to drink only cold water.
A. True
B. False

Back 124

B. False

Front 125

When an elderly person has a very tiny bleed inside the head, it can take up to six weeks before the patient shows symptoms.
A. True
B. False

Back 125

A. True

Front 126

The speed with which defibrillation is performed in cardiac arrest is the key to success.
A. True
B. False

Back 126

A. True

Front 127

Tilting the head forward is the easiest way to maintain an open airway.
A. True
B. False

Back 127

B. False

Front 128

Injuries are likely to be more severe if the victim of accidental injury is unconscious.
A. True
B. False

Back 128

A. True

Front 129

Shock is not preventable in trauma victims.
A. True
B. False

Back 129

B. False

Front 130

Shock may cause death.
A. True
B. False

Back 130

A. True

Front 131

Electrical shocks may result in severe burns.
A. True
B. False

Back 131

A. True

Front 132

Victims of a heart attack will always require CPR.
A. True
B. False

Back 132

B. False

Front 133

If you have initiated first aid procedures, you are responsible for continuing them until a physician arrives.
A. True
B. False

Back 133

B. False

Front 134

Assistive devices are used to
A. help the staff in ambulating the patient.
B. compensate for problems the patient has with walking.
C. keep the patient from walking too fast, which may cause a fall.
D. prevent back injuries in health care workers.

Back 134

B. compensate for problems the patient has with walking.

Front 135

To use standard crutches, an adult must have
A. paralysis on one side of the body.
B. stable legs.
C. two strong arms.
D. the ability to walk long distances.

Back 135

C. two strong arms.

Front 136

When a cane fits the patient properly, the
A. hand is even with the waist.
B. hand is even with the top of the leg.
C. wrist is bent at a 90-degree angle.
D. wrist is even with the hip joint.

Back 136

D. wrist is even with the hip joint.

Front 137

When a patient uses a cane with a three-point gait, the
A. weight is distributed evenly between the feet and the cane.
B. cane and the strong leg move at the same time.
C. patient holds the cane approximately 6 inches away from the body.
D. patient holds the cane on the weak side of the body.

Back 137

A. weight is distributed evenly between the feet and the cane.

Front 138

When a patient uses a cane with a two-point gait, the
A. cane and the strong leg move at the same time.
B. cane and the weak leg move at the same time.
C. strong leg always moves first.
D. patient holds the cane in the weak hand.

Back 138

B. cane and the weak leg move at the same time.

Front 139

Patients who sit in wheelchairs should be taught to shift their weight every
A. 15 minutes.
B. 30 minutes.
C. hour.
D. 2 hours.

Back 139

A. 15 minutes.

Front 140

When a patient is properly positioned in a wheelchair
A. the hips are positioned at a 90 degree angle, at the back of the chair.
B. the arms are on the armrests with the shoulders slightly elevated.
C. there should be at least an inch between the backs of the knees and the seat.
D. the inner thighs should be internally rotated to reduce pressure on the buttocks.

Back 140

A. the hips are positioned at a 90 degree angle, at the back of the chair.

Front 141

The health care worker who is responsible for taking vital signs is the
A. nursing assistant.
B. physician.
C. charge nurse.
D. team leader.

Back 141

A. nursing assistant.

Front 142

Body temperature is closest to the core temperature at the
A. mouth.
B. rectum.
C. skin.
D. tympanic membrane.

Back 142

D. tympanic membrane.

Front 143

58. Body temperature may be affected by
A. mental status.
B. mood.
C. hydration.
D. behavior.

Back 143

C. hydration.

Front 144

59. The average oral Fahrenheit temperature is
A. 95.8 degrees.
B. 101.4 degrees.
C. 98.6 degrees.
D. 103.6 degrees.

Back 144

C. 98.6 degrees.

Front 145

60. A rectal temperature registers
A. one degree higher than oral.
B. one degree lower than oral.
C. one degree higher than axillary.
D. one degree lower than axillary.

Back 145

A. one degree higher than oral.

Front 146

61. You are assigned to take Mr. Lippincott's temperature orally every four hours. At 8:00 AM it is 99.2 degrees F. At 12:00 PM it is 102. degrees F. You should
A. document it on the clipboard or flow sheet at the end of your shift.
B. continue taking temperatures on the other patients you are assigned to.
C. report Mr. Lippincott's temperature to the nurse at once.
D. refill the water pitcher and instruct the patient to drink plenty of ice water.

Back 146

C. report Mr. Lippincott's temperature to the nurse at once.

Front 147

What color is the dot at the end of the stem on a rectal thermometer?
A. Red
B. Yellow
C. Green
D. Blue

Back 147

A. Red

Front 148

63. Each short line on the glass thermometer marks
A. a degree.
B. two degrees.
C. 2/10 of a degree.
D. 2/5 of a degree.

Back 148

C. 2/10 of a degree.

Front 149

64. Do not take an oral temperature if the patient is
A. diabetic.
B. confused.
C. alert.
D. oriented.

Back 149

B. confused.

Front 150

65. The pulse
A. varies in different parts of the body.
B. indicates how well the cardiovascular system is working.
C. is a measurement of the velocity of the blood.
D. indicates how well the tissue absorbs oxygen.

Back 150

B. indicates how well the cardiovascular system is working.

Front 151

66. Bradycardia is
A. a slow pulse.
B. a normal pulse rate.
C. a fast pulse.
D. an irregular heart rate.

Back 151

A. a slow pulse.

Front 152

67. The character of the pulse is the
A. rate.
B. volume.
C. speed.
D. main indicator of illness.

Back 152

B. volume.

Front 153

68. An apical pulse is checked
A. for one full minute.
B. after the nurse gives a heart medication.
C. on children 12 or younger.
D. on patients over age 65.

Back 153

A. for one full minute.

Front 154

The average pulse rate in an infant is
A. 80 to 100 beats per minute.
B. 100 to 120 beats per minute.
C. 140 to 180 beats per minute.
D. 120 to 160 beats per minute.

Back 154

C. 140 to 180 beats per minute.

Front 155

Apnea is
A. Noisy respirations.
B. difficult or labored respirations.
C. rapid and shallow respirations.
D. no respiration.

Back 155

D. no respiration.

Front 156

72. The average respiratory rate for adults is
A. 12 to 24 per minute.
B. 14 to 22 per minute.
C. 12 to 20 per minute.
D. 18 to 26 per minute.

Back 156

C. 12 to 20 per minute.

Front 157

73. The site at which the pulse is most commonly taken is the
A. radial artery.
B. pedal vein.
C. carotid capillary.
D. apical venule.

Back 157

A. radial artery.

Front 158

74. When counting respirations,
A. count each inhalation and each expiration and add them together.
B. wear gloves.
C. count one inhalation and one expiration as one respiration.
D. tell the patient what you are doing.

Back 158

C. count one inhalation and one expiration as one respiration.

Front 159

Blood pressure depends on the
A. rate of the heartbeat.
B. force of the heartbeat.
C. respiratory rate.
D. amount of oxygen in the blood.

Back 159

B. force of the heartbeat.

Front 160

76. Blood pressure is usually measured over the
A. radial artery.
B. carotid artery.
C. brachial artery.
D. temporal artery.

Back 160

C. brachial artery.

Front 161

When taking the blood pressure, the highest point at which sound is heard is called
A. diastolic pressure.
B. systolic pressure.
C. tachypneic pressure.
D. pulse deficit.

Back 161

B. systolic pressure.

Front 162

Hypertension is
A. high blood pressure.
B. low blood pressure.
C. normal blood pressure.
D. absence of blood pressure.

Back 162

A. high blood pressure.

Front 163

79. Hypotension is when the blood pressure is
A. 120/80 or above.
B. 130/70 or below.
C. 110/70 or above.
D. 100/60 or below.

Back 163

D. 100/60 or below.

Front 164

80. When reading a mercury blood pressure gauge,
A. view the gauge at eye level.
B. slightly tilt the gauge.
C. read the gauge in the center.
D. deflate the cuff rapidly.

Back 164

A. view the gauge at eye level.

Front 165

81. The blood pressure cuff should be applied
A. one inch above the elbow.
B. two inches above the elbow.
C. three inches above the elbow.
D. four centimeters above the elbow.

Back 165

A. one inch above the elbow.

Front 166

82. When inflating the blood pressure cuff
A. quickly inflate the cuff until it reaches 150mm Hg.
B. inflate the cuff until you can no longer feel the pulse, add 30mm, then release.
C. always inflate the cuff to 200mm Hg.
D. inflate the cuff to at least 150, add 40, then release.

Back 166

B. inflate the cuff until you can no longer feel the pulse, add 30mm, then release.

Front 167

83. If you are unable to hear the blood pressure and must repeat the procedure,
A. wait 30 to 60 seconds.
B. wait one to two minutes.
C. wait three to five minutes.
D. take the blood pressure again immediately.

Back 167

B. wait one to two minutes.

Front 168

The lower bar of the upright scale is calibrated in increments of
A. 1 pound.
B. 5 pounds.
C. 25 pounds.
D. 50 pounds.

Back 168

D. 50 pounds.

Front 169

When weighing a patient on a wheelchair scale,
A. walk the patient up the ramp, then transfer to the chair.
B. lock the wheels when the patient is on the scale.
C. lock the ramp in the closed position when weighing the patient.
D. transfer the patient to the sling on the scale.

Back 169

B. lock the wheels when the patient is on the scale.

Front 170

86. The reason the patient's height and weight are obtained on admission is
A. to order the proper diet.
B. because it is part of routine vital signs taken on all patients.
C. to obtain a baseline reading for comparison purposes.
D. so the medical record is complete.

Back 170

C. to obtain a baseline reading for comparison purposes.

Front 171

87. When weighing a patient on a bed scale,
A. keep the patient's body in contact with the bed for safety.
B. reassure the patient that he will not fall.
C. maintain the lift in the closed-leg position.
D. have the patient sit in the sling with feet on the bed.

Back 171

B. reassure the patient that he will not fall.

Front 172

88. The small lines on the upper bar of the balance scale indicate
A. 1/4 pound.
B. 1/2 pound.
C. 3/4 pound.
D. 1 pound.

Back 172

A. 1/4 pound.

Front 173

Mrs. Tang weighs 110 pounds. You will record this on the flow sheet as
A. 110".
B. 110'.
C. 110 lb.
D. 110 kg

Back 173

C. 110 lb.

Front 174

Mrs. Seriya is 5 feet, 2 inches tall. You will record this on the flow sheet as
A. 52".
B. 5'2".
C. 5"2'.
D. 52'.

Back 174

B. 5'2".

Front 175

91. Your facility requires you to chart the patient's height in inches. You will record Mrs. Seriya's height as
A. 52 inches.
B. 55 inches.
C. 60 inches.
D. 62 inches.

Back 175

D. 62 inches.

Front 176

When beginning a procedure, it is not necessary to provide privacy if no one else is in the room.
A. True
B. False

Back 176

B. False

Front 177

Wash your hands after you remove gloves.
A. True
B. False

Back 177

A. True

Front 178

94. When turning a patient away from you, place one hand under the head and one hand under the hip.
A. True
B. False

Back 178

B. False

Front 179

95. When using a draw sheet to move a patient, roll the edges of the draw sheet close to the patient's sides.
A. True
B. False

Back 179

A. True

Front 180

96. When logrolling a patient, turn the patient as a unit.
A. True
B. False

Back 180

A. True

Front 181

97. Some plants are poisonous if ingested.
A. True
B. False

Back 181

A. True

Front 182

98. Thermal injuries result from chemicals splashing on the skin.
A. True
B. False

Back 182

B. False

Front 183

99. For good posture and even weight distribution, the patient’s feet should be at a 45 degree angle to the lower legs when she is seated in a chair.
A. True
B. False

Back 183

B. False

Front 184

100. Procedures prioritize and order your responsibilities when doing the patient care specified in the task.
A. True
B. False

Back 184

A. True

Front 185

During communication with patients, eye contact
A. is often interpreted as a sign of hostility.
B. communicates caring and concern.
C. is not appropriate in the North American culture.
D. makes less of an impression than spoken words.

Back 185

B. communicates caring and concern.

Front 186

Handoff communication
A. is given when a patient transfers to the care of another worker or department.
B. is not necessary if your shift report and documentation are complete and timely.
C. is given to the patient and family members by the nursing assistant at the time of discharge.
D. should be given by licensed professionals only because this is a highly technical procedure.

Back 186

A. is given when a patient transfers to the care of another worker or department.

Front 187

An effective means of showing you understand a communication is to
A. use your body language.
B. write it down.
C. say, “I understand.”
D. use paraphrasing.

Back 187

D. use paraphrasing.

Front 188

Subjective symptoms are those that you
A. see, feel, and hear.
B. cannot visualize.
C. form opinions about.
D. think, feel, and see.

Back 188

B. cannot visualize.

Front 189

Objective symptoms are those that you
A. think are correct.
B. are told about by the patient.
C. use your senses to detect.
D. suspect may be true.

Back 189

C. use your senses to detect.

Front 190

It is important for you as a nursing assistant to know what normal observations are so that you
A. know when the patient's behavior is normal.
B. have the information needed to perform direct care.
C. can recognize whatever is not normal and report it.
D. can perform good assessments.

Back 190

C. can recognize whatever is not normal and report it.

Front 191

43. When making observations, it helps to
A. review the patient systematically and use all of your senses.
B. expose the patient's body so that you can check the skin.
C. measure all patients by the same standard.
D. observe only those things that the patient complains of.

Back 191

A. review the patient systematically and use all of your senses.

Front 192

The nursing assistant contributes to the nursing process by
A. performing assessments.
B. initiating the patient's care plan.
C. observing and reporting changes.
D. developing a nursing diagnosis.

Back 192

C. observing and reporting changes.

Front 193

The chart is
A. sent home with the patient upon discharge.
B. a legal document that may be used in court.
C. discarded when the patient is discharged.
D. the physician's legal responsibility.

Back 193

B. a legal document that may be used in court.

Front 194

The correct international time for 7:43 PM is
A. 0743
B. 1743
C. 1943
D. 2043

Back 194

C. 1943

Front 195

47. The pain assessment (rating) scale is used
A. by staff, to determine the level of a patient’s pain.
B. for record keeping and statistical purposes only.
C. so the nursing assistant knows whether pain should be reported.
D. as a tool for the patient to communicate the pain intensity.

Back 195

D. as a tool for the patient to communicate the pain intensity.

Front 196

48. The HIPAA rules
A. increase the physicians’ control over patients’ medical records.
B. make the nursing department totally responsible for charting patient information.
C. make patients more accountable for protecting their personal medical data.
D. protect all individually identifiable health information in any form.

Back 196

D. protect all individually identifiable health information in any form.

Front 197

49. Principles of growth and development include
A. individuals grow at their own rate.
B. development ceases during middle adulthood.
C. individuals learn the same developmental tasks.
D. all of the above.

Back 197

A. individuals grow at their own rate.

Front 198

50. A three-month-old infant
A. has Moro, rooting, and grasp reflexes.
B. understands simple commands.
C. is fearful of strangers.
D. is able to smile.

Back 198

D. is able to smile.

Front 199

51. The toddler
A. is able to interact and play with other children of the same age.
B. does not know the difference between right and wrong.
C. may react with frustration and other misbehavior if disciplined.
D. becomes sexually curious.

Back 199

C. may react with frustration and other misbehavior if disciplined.

Front 200

An adolescent is
A. 12 to 14 years of age.
B. 12 to 16 years of age.
C. 16 to 18 years of age.
D. 14 to 20 years of age.

Back 200

D. 14 to 20 years of age.

Front 201

Middle-aged adults are
A. 35 to 65 years old.
B. 40 to 60 years old.
C. 45 to 65 years old.
D. 50 to 65 years old.

Back 201

D. 50 to 65 years old.

Front 202

According to Maslow, needs on the lowest level
A. must be satisfied before other needs become important.
B. include safety and security needs.
C. are not important as long as needs at the other levels are satisfied.
D. include the need to be loved by others.

Back 202

A. must be satisfied before other needs become important.

Front 203

55. The most basic human needs are
A. oxygen and nutrition.
B. safety and security.
C. giving and receiving love.
D. self-respect and approval.

Back 203

A. oxygen and nutrition.

Front 204

56. The elderly
A. do not like to be touched.
B. need to be touched.
C. view being touched as a sexual advance.
D. should be touched only if gloves are worn.

Back 204

B. need to be touched.

Front 205

57. A patient who complains frequently may be
A. fearful.
B. angry with the staff.
C. angry with you.
D. mentally ill.

Back 205

A. fearful.

Front 206

58. The patient has religious beliefs that your church teaches are wrong. You should
A. explain why the patient's beliefs are incorrect.
B. ask your pastor to visit the patient.
C. respect the patient's beliefs, and say nothing.
D. invite the patient to attend services at your church.

Back 206

C. respect the patient's beliefs, and say nothing.

Front 207

59. Pain is
A. a warning of something wrong.
B. normal in aging individuals.
C. the nurses’ responsibility.
D. normal in ill individuals.

Back 207

A. a warning of something wrong.

Front 208

60. Acute pain
A. usually lasts more than six months.
B. occurs suddenly due to tissue damage or injury.
C. is imaginary pain that occurs as a result of amputation.
D. always radiates to surrounding areas of the body.

Back 208

B. occurs suddenly due to tissue damage or injury.

Front 209

61. Chronic pain
A. occurs without warning due to tissue damage.
B. may be intermittent or continuous.
C. radiates from the site of origin.
D. is less of a concern than acute pain.

Back 209

B. may be intermittent or continuous.

Front 210

62. The nursing assistant’s report of pain should always be
A. subjective.
B. arbitrary.
C. erratic.
D. objective.

Back 210

D. objective.

Front 211

63. The awareness and appreciation of the needs of others is
A. culture.
B. sensitivity.
C. ethnicity.
D. race.

Back 211

B. sensitivity.

Front 212

64. Members of an ethnic group have which of the following in common?
A. Heritage
B. Values
C. Religion
D. Food preferences

Back 212

D. Food preferences

Front 213

65. Cultural mores influence
A. language.
B. ethnicity.
C. customs.
D. genetics.

Back 213

C. customs.

Front 214

66. When caring for patients from other cultures, remember that
A. cultural customs influence how care is given.
B. the sex of the caregiver usually does not matter.
C. disrobing is unacceptable in all cultures.
D. most patients prefer to be dependent on caregivers.

Back 214

A. cultural customs influence how care is given.

Front 215

67. When caring for patients from other cultures, the nursing assistant should
A. assume that all patients should be treated the same.
B. never make exceptions because of culture or ethnicity.
C. recognize that cultural beliefs are easily changed during illness.
D. be willing to modify care in keeping with the patient’s culture.

Back 215

D. be willing to modify care in keeping with the patient’s culture.

Front 216

68. Your patient holds an unusual-looking religious item when he prays. You should
A. handle the item with care and respect.
B. avoid touching the item.
C. pretend not to see the item.
D. remove the item and store it in a drawer.

Back 216

A. handle the item with care and respect.

Front 217

69. Microorganisms that cause disease are called
A. microbes.
B. flora.
C. pathogens.
D. bacilli.

Back 217

C. pathogens.

Front 218

70. Microorganisms that cause infection grow best
A. at body temperature.
B. in the sunlight.
C. where it is dry.
D. in cool conditions.

Back 218

A. at body temperature.

Front 219

71. Bacteria that cause disease are identified by
A. signs and symptoms of the disease.
B. their shape and arrangement as seen under a microscope.
C. the attending physician when she orders antibiotics.
D. the mode of transmission.

Back 219

B. their shape and arrangement as seen under a microscope.

Front 220

72. The smallest microbe is a
A. virus.
B. bacterium.
C. yeast.
D. spirochete.

Back 220

A. virus.

Front 221

73. Examples of illnesses caused by viruses are
A. syphilis and gonorrhea.
B. AIDS and hepatitis.
C. malaria and amebiasis.
D. ringworm and athlete’s foot.

Back 221

B. AIDS and hepatitis.

Front 222

74. Individuals who can transmit a disease but do not show symptoms of the disease are known as
A. immunosuppressed.
B. carriers.
C. incubators.
D. saprophytes.

Back 222

B. carriers.

Front 223

75. Microorganisms get into the body through
A. portals of entry.
B. portals of exit.
C. fomites.
D. common vehicles.

Back 223

A. portals of entry.

Front 224

76. An example of indirect contact with a pathogen is
A. person-to-person contact.
B. hand contact with a contaminated object.
C. contact with an insect that transmits a disease.
D. body fluids or sexual contact.

Back 224

B. hand contact with a contaminated object.

Front 225

77. An example of droplet transmission of a disease is by
A. coughing, sneezing, or talking.
B. germs carried through the ventilation system.
C. microbes carried by moisture and dust in the air.
D. inhaling the odor of unpleasant excretions.

Back 225

A. coughing, sneezing, or talking.

Front 226

78. Body defenses against infection include
A. fingernails and toenails.
B. hair on the head.
C. mucous membranes.
D. nonintact skin.

Back 226

C. mucous membranes.

Front 227

79. Health care workers who have direct patient contact are advised to take the
A. AIDS vaccine.
B. hepatitis B vaccine.
C. herpes vaccine.
D. staphylococcus vaccine.

Back 227

B. hepatitis B vaccine.

Front 228

80. A patient who is immunosuppressed
A. has low resistance to disease.
B. has higher-than-normal resistance to disease.
C. is always elderly.
D. is immune to disease.

Back 228

A. has low resistance to disease.

Front 229

81. Signs and symptoms of tuberculosis include
A. weight gain and weakness.
B. edema and night sweats.
C. high blood pressure and coughing.
D. hemoptysis and fever.

Back 229

D. hemoptysis and fever.

Front 230

82. A patient who had chickenpox as a child may develop which disease later in life?
A. Herpes
B. Shingles
C. MRSA
D. TB

Back 230

B. Shingles

Front 231

83. Hepatitis B is transmitted by
A. blood and body fluid exposure.
B. feces or saliva.
C. contaminated seafood.
D. contaminated meat.

Back 231

A. blood and body fluid exposure.

Front 232

84. Hepatitis C is transmitted by
A. blood and body fluid exposure.
B. feces or saliva.
C. contaminated seafood.
D. contaminated meat.

Back 232

A. blood and body fluid exposure.

Front 233

85. HIV is transmitted by
A. blood and body fluids.
B. the airborne method.
C. indirect contact.
D. vectors and vehicles.

Back 233

A. blood and body fluids.

Front 234

86. Smallpox is
A. a bacterial illness that was eradicated in the 1990s.
B. spread by direct, indirect, and airborne contact.
C. a minor illness similar to flu.
D. not a preventable condition.

Back 234

B. spread by direct, indirect, and airborne contact.

Front 235

87. Early signs and symptoms of smallpox include
A. high fever, feeling very tired.
B. rash with pustules.
C. sore throat and nasal drainage.
D. blisters on the hands and feet.

Back 235

A. high fever, feeling very tired.

Front 236

The purpose of infection control is to
A. remind all staff to wear gloves.
B. encourage good handwashing.
C. disrupt the chain of infection.
D. isolate patients with diseases.

Back 236

C. disrupt the chain of infection.

Front 237

89. Spores
A. can live in the environment for a long time.
B. are easily eliminated with alcohol hand cleaner.
C. cannot live long outside the human body.
D. are not a common concern in health care.

Back 237

A. can live in the environment for a long time.

Front 238

SARS is believed to be spread by
A. airborne and direct contact methods.
B. fomites and vectors.
C. inhalation and contact methods.
D. common vehicles and inhalation.

Back 238

C. inhalation and contact methods.

Front 239

91. Scabies are spread by
A. ticks.
B. mites.
C. bacteria.
D. fleas.

Back 239

B. mites.

Front 240

92. Medical asepsis refers to
A. absence of all germs from the environment.
B. practices that limit the spread of pathogens.
C. environmental barriers that confine pathogens to a single patient room.
D. measures taken to sterilize instruments that could spread pathogens.

Back 240

B. practices that limit the spread of pathogens.

Front 241

93. The nursing assistant practices medical asepsis by
A. wearing gloves for all patient contact.
B. sterilizing equipment after each use.
C. following the guidelines for handwashing.
D. wiping environmental surfaces daily.

Back 241

C. following the guidelines for handwashing.

Front 242

94. The most important step of the handwashing procedure is
A. applying germicidal soap.
B. using very hot water.
C. friction.
D. using a towel to touch the faucet.

Back 242

C. friction.

Front 243

95. Handwashing should be performed for a minimum of
A. 5 to 10 seconds.
B. 10 to 15 seconds.
C. 15 to 20 seconds.
D. 20 to 30 seconds.

Back 243

C. 15 to 20 seconds.

Front 244

96. Handwashing should be performed before and after
A. direct patient care.
B. touching an environmental surface.
C. passing each meal tray.
D. handling clean linen.

Back 244

A. direct patient care.

Front 245

97. Standard precautions are used for
A. contacting blood and body fluids.
B. passing meal trays.
C. documentation.
D. giving report to the nurse.

Back 245

A. contacting blood and body fluids.

Front 246

98. Who is responsible for ensuring that health care workers use standard precautions?
A. The health care facility
B. The Department of Labor
C. The health care worker
D. OSHA

Back 246

C. The health care worker

Front 247

99. The most important method of preventing the spread of infection is
A. use of a gown.
B. handwashing.
C. wearing gloves.
D. wearing a mask.

Back 247

B. handwashing.

Front 248

100. Gloves must be worn
A. for all patient care.
B. when transferring a patient from bed to chair.
C. only when caring for patients in isolation.
D. for contact with blood or body fluids.

Back 248

D. for contact with blood or body fluids.

Front 249

101. The proper name for an infection acquired by a patient in a health care facility is a
A. pathogenic disease.
B. nosocomial infection.
C. drug-resilient infection.
D. toxic disease.

Back 249

B. nosocomial infection.

Front 250

102. If your eyes, nose, or mouth contact blood or other potentially infectious materials, the first thing you should do is
A. wash with soap and water for 15 minutes.
B. report to your supervisor immediately.
C. rinse the area well with clear water immediately.
D. contact your personal physician immediately.

Back 250

C. rinse the area well with clear water immediately.

Front 251

103. When using a waterless hand cleaner,
A. dispense the product into your hand and allow it to air-dry.
B. rub the product into all surfaces of the hands until it dries.
C. dispense the product, then wipe it off with a paper towel.
D. apply 15 mL of waterless hand cleaner, then rinse with warm water.

Back 251

B. rub the product into all surfaces of the hands until it dries.

Front 252

104. When applying the principles of standard precautions, you must use
A. isolation technique.
B. negative pressure ventilation.
C. personal protective equipment.
D. universal and body substance standards.

Back 252

C. personal protective equipment.

Front 253

105. While you were washing dishes last night, a glass broke and nicked your hand. When you care for patients, you should
A. wear gloves.
B. apply hand lotion frequently.
C. use plenty of alcohol gel.
D. avoid getting the injury wet.

Back 253

A. wear gloves.

Front 254

106. You are assigned to assist with a procedure in which there is a high risk of splashing of secretions. Select the correct personal protective equipment for this task.
A. Gown, mask, gloves, head covering
B. Gloves, mask, eye protection, gown
C. Mask, eye protection, gown, shoe covers
D. Gown, gloves, HEPA mask, paper cap

Back 254

B. Gloves, mask, eye protection, gown

Front 255

107. Practices designed to interrupt the spread of certain highly transmissible diseases are
A. standard precautions.
B. transmission-based precautions.
C. negative pressure precautions.
D. universal precautions.

Back 255

B. transmission-based precautions.

Front 256

108. When entering a room in which airborne precautions are used, wear a
A. surgical mask and gown.
B. HEPA mask or equivalent.
C. gown, gloves, and face shield.
D. HEPA mask and gown.

Back 256

B. HEPA mask or equivalent.

Front 257

109. You are assigned to bathe Mrs. Long, a patient in contact precautions. Select the correct personal protective equipment.
A. HEPA mask, gown, face shield
B. Gown and gloves
C. Surgical mask and face shield
D. Surgical mask and gown

Back 257

B. Gown and gloves

Front 258

110. There are no large isolation gowns on the unit, and a patient in a contact precautions room needs the bedpan. Six small size gowns are available. You should:
A. apply gloves without a gown, which is not needed since patient contact will be limited.
B. apply a small gown (with the opening in back) and gloves.
C. apply 2 small gowns (one covering the front and one covering the back) and gloves.
D. apply a small isolation gown and put a second patient nightgown on backwards.

Back 258

C. apply 2 small gowns (one covering the front and one covering the back) and gloves.

Front 259

111. Intestinal microbes can cause infection if they are accidentally spread to the urinary tract.
A. True
B. False

Back 259

A. True

Front 260

112. A person who harbors an infectious organism is known as a host.
A. True
B. False

Back 260

A. True

Front 261

113. Some microbes are helpful in maintaining health.
A. True
B. False

Back 261

A. True

Front 262

114. The condition of the immune system affects how a person reacts to microorganisms in the environment.
A. True
B. False

Back 262

A. True

Front 263

115. Eating yogurt increases the balance of helpful, normal flora in the bowel.
A. True
B. False

Back 263

A. True

Front 264

116. Many individuals have no signs and symptoms of illness, yet they are able to transmit hepatitis to others.
A. True
B. False

Back 264

A. True

Front 265

117. Many individuals could be infected by a biological weapon before exposure is detected and diagnosed.
A. True
B. False

Back 265

A. True

Front 266

118. Some of the diseases that can potentially be used as biological weapons have been considered eradicated for years and most health care professionals have never seen or treated them.
A. True
B. False

Back 266

A. True

Front 267

119. All patients should be considered potentially infectious.
A. True
B. False

Back 267

A. True

Front 268

120. Items that have touched the floor are contaminated.
A. True
B. False

Back 268

A. True

Front 269

Suffixes are terms added to the
A. beginning of a word.
B. end of a word.
C. middle of a word.
D. combining form of a word.

Back 269

B. end of a word.

Front 270

2. Word roots are
A. terms with a specific meaning, regardless of where they are placed in a word.
B. terms that connect two medical words together.
C. prefixes.
D. suffixes.

Back 270

A. terms with a specific meaning, regardless of where they are placed in a word.

Front 271

3. A combining form is
A. a noun that is added to the beginning of the suffix.
B. the shortened form of a word.
C. a vowel that is added to the beginning of the word root.
D. the foundation of a medical term.

Back 271

C. a vowel that is added to the beginning of the word root.

Front 272

4. Abbreviations are
A. terms that change a word's meaning.
B. the foundation of medical terminology.
C. added to the ends of words to change their meanings.
D. shortened forms of words.

Back 272

D. shortened forms of words.

Front 273

5. Prefixes are
A. terms added to the end of a word.
B. words that refer to the part of the body being treated.
C. terms added to the beginning of a word.
D. vowels that combine two medical words into one.

Back 273

C. terms added to the beginning of a word.

Front 274

6. Which is not included in the anatomic position?
A. Facing the observer
B. Arms at the sides with palms forward
C. Standing erect
D. Standing with the back to the observer

Back 274

D. Standing with the back to the observer

Front 275

7. Lateral refers to body parts
A. close to the midline.
B. away from the midline.
C. behind the midline.
D. in front of the midline.

Back 275

B. away from the midline.

Front 276

8. Proximal refers to body parts that are
A. closest to the point of attachment.
B. away from the midline.
C. farthest away from the point of attachment.
D. points of attachment for ligaments.

Back 276

A. closest to the point of attachment.

Front 277

9. How many quadrants are in the abdomen?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four

Back 277

D. Four

Front 278

10. Functions of cells include
A. support and protection.
B. nutrition and elimination.
C. coordination of body function.
D. production and transport of hormones.

Back 278

B. nutrition and elimination.

Front 279

11. The function of nervous tissue is to
A. carry messages and regulate body function.
B. protect body organs and tissues.
C. secrete hormones and chemicals.
D. manage fluid and electrolytes.

Back 279

A. carry messages and regulate body function.

Front 280

12. Organs that work together to perform a special function are
A. tissues.
B. cells.
C. connections.
D. systems.

Back 280

D. systems.

Front 281

13. The function of the circulatory system is to
A. manage fluids and electrolytes and eliminate waste.
B. regulate body temperature and eliminate waste.
C. produce hormones and absorb nutrients.
D. transport oxygen and nutrients and remove waste.

Back 281

D. transport oxygen and nutrients and remove waste.

Front 282

14. The function of the integumentary system is to
A. coordinate body functions, carry oxygen, and remove carbon dioxide.
B. maintain fluid and electrolyte balance.
C. protect the body, regulate body temperature, and eliminate waste.
D. support and protect body parts.

Back 282

C. protect the body, regulate body temperature, and eliminate waste.

Front 283

15. The heart, blood vessels, and spleen are parts of what system?
A. Circulatory
B. Integumentary
C. Endocrine
D. Nervous

Back 283

A. Circulatory

Front 284

16. Which of the following is not part of the respiratory system?
A. Pharynx
B. Esophagus
C. Trachea
D. Bronchi

Back 284

B. Esophagus

Front 285

17. The etiology of an illness is the
A. expected outcome of the illness.
B. signs and symptoms of the disease.
C. cause of the illness.
D. progression of the disease.

Back 285

C. cause of the illness.

Front 286

18. The prognosis is the
A. expected outcome of a disease.
B. cause of an illness.
C. causative factor.
D. presenting signs and symptoms.

Back 286

A. expected outcome of a disease.

Front 287

19. Symptoms of a disease are
A. noticed only by the patient.
B. observed by others.
C. risk factors for the development of a condition.
D. the cause of the illness.

Back 287

A. noticed only by the patient.

Front 288

Signs of a disease are
A. noticed only by the patient.
B. observed by others.
C. risk factors for the development of a condition.
D. the cause of the illness.

Back 288

B. observed by others.

Front 289

Conditions that have the potential to cause the patient’s health to worsen are
A. risk factors.
B. exacerbations.
C. etiologies.
D. acute imbalances.

Back 289

A. risk factors.

Front 290

An increase in the severity of signs and symptoms of a chronic disease is a/an
A. prognosis.
B. acute exacerbation.
C. etiology.
D. immune response.

Back 290

B. acute exacerbation.

Front 291

A localized protective reaction of tissue to irritation, injury, or infection that is characterized by pain, redness, and swelling is
A. immune response.
B. exacerbation.
C. inflammation.
D. progression.

Back 291

C. inflammation.

Front 292

A condition that impedes blood flow in the body is a/an
A. inflammation.
B. autoimmune reaction.
C. obstruction.
D. metabolic imbalance.

Back 292

C. obstruction.

Front 293

Immune response
A. protects the body against specific infections.
B. does not spread.
C. causes death if untreated.
D. is a common sign of malignancies.

Back 293

A. protects the body against specific infections.

Front 294

26. Early signs and symptoms of malignancies include
A. sudden loss of bladder control.
B. indigestion or difficulty in swallowing.
C. development of a wart.
D. increased inflammation.

Back 294

B. indigestion or difficulty in swallowing.

Front 295

27. A condition that makes the original condition more serious is a/an
A. development.
B. complication.
C. agenesis.
D. hypersensitivity.

Back 295

B. complication.

Front 296

Congenital abnormalities are
A. highly contagious.
B. always fatal.
C. diseases of the elderly.
D. present at birth.

Back 296

D. present at birth.

Front 297

29. The term "benign" describes
A. a cancerous condition.
B. a noncancerous condition.
C. chronic diseases.
D. acute illnesses.

Back 297

B. a noncancerous condition.

Front 298

30. Invasive tests
A. are performed on the surface of the body.
B. always use special imaging techniques.
C. penetrate body surfaces.
D. always analyze blood chemistry.

Back 298

C. penetrate body surfaces.

Front 299

31. Examples of body defenses against disease are
A. unbroken skin.
B. muscles and bones.
C. red blood cells.
D. cerebral fluid.

Back 299

A. unbroken skin.

Front 300

32. Signs of acute inflammation are
A. cool skin that is blue in color.
B. swelling and warmth of the skin.
C. absence of sensation and function.
D. all of the above.

Back 300

B. swelling and warmth of the skin.

Front 301

33. A URI is an infection of the
A. throat and lungs.
B. bronchi and bronchioles.
C. nose, sinuses, and throat.
D. nasal passages and lungs.

Back 301

C. nose, sinuses, and throat.

Front 302

34. Pneumonia is a
A. serious inflammation of the lungs caused by pathogens.
B. chronic disorder that is the result of allergies.
C. minor disorder that will go away with rest and antipyretics.
D. disease related to loss of elasticity in the bronchi.

Back 302

A. serious inflammation of the lungs caused by pathogens.

Front 303

35. COPD refers to all of the following except
A. emphysema.
B. asthma.
C. bronchitis.
D. pneumonia.

Back 303

D. pneumonia.

Front 304

36. COPD results from
A. acute infection in the lungs.
B. impaired gas exchange.
C. a response to stress.
D. a malignancy.

Back 304

B. impaired gas exchange.

Front 305

37. Chronic bronchitis is the result of
A. COPD and respiratory distress.
B. prolonged irritation.
C. asthma.
D. exposure to a pathogen.

Back 305

B. prolonged irritation.

Front 306

38. In emphysema, the alveoli
A. are distended.
B. are unable to expand.
C. are not affected.
D. exchange gases normally.

Back 306

A. are distended.

Front 307

39. COPD places additional strain on the
A. brain.
B. spinal cord.
C. heart.
D. pancreas.

Back 307

C. heart.

Front 308

40. When caring for a patient who is receiving oxygen therapy,
A. adjust the oxygen flow rate to patient comfort.
B. allow the patient to adjust the rate as needed.
C. never check the flow meter, as this is the nurse's responsibility.
D. check the flow rate each time you are in the room.

Back 308

D. check the flow rate each time you are in the room.

Front 309

41. The licensed professional who specializes in the care of patients with disorders of the cardiopulmonary system, respiration, and sleep disorders is the
A. Respiratory Care Practitioner (RCP).
B. Professional Respiratory Technician (PRT).
C. Respiratory Practitioner Technologist (RPT).
D. Oxygenation Specialist Practitioner (OSP).

Back 309

A. Respiratory Care Practitioner (RCP).

Front 310

42. The patient in respiratory distress may find it easier to breathe in the
A. prone position.
B. supine position.
C. orthopneic position.
D. Sims' position.

Back 310

C. orthopneic position.

Front 311

43. When collecting a sputum specimen,
A. collect 2 to 4 tablespoons of saliva from the mouth.
B. avoid contaminating the outside of the container.
C. use a suction catheter.
D. rinse the mouth with mouthwash before collecting the specimen.

Back 311

B. avoid contaminating the outside of the container.

Front 312

The patient who has had the larynx removed because of cancer
A. can speak normally.
B. normally feels very frustrated.
C. must be tube-fed.
D. breathes mainly through the nose.

Back 312

B. normally feels very frustrated.

Front 313

Esophageal speech involves
A. using an electronic device to speak.
B. regurgitating air in order to speak.
C. speaking nasally.
D. learning a form of sign language.

Back 313

B. regurgitating air in order to speak.

Front 314

When caring for patients who are receiving oxygen,
A. PPE is not necessary.
B. change the flow rate if the patient requests it.
C. check the flow rate when in the room.
D. keep the elastic straps fastened tightly.

Back 314

C. check the flow rate when in the room.

Front 315

The oxygen concentrator
A. stores oxygen and delivers it at a preset rate.
B. removes impurities and other gases from the air.
C. delivers more oxygen than other sources.
D. should be used for emergencies.

Back 315

B. removes impurities and other gases from the air.

Front 316

The patient in the orthopneic position
A. is elevated 30 to 40 degrees.
B. is propped up on one or two pillows to extend the neck.
C. dangles to make breathing easier.
D. sits upright and leans forward.

Back 316

D. sits upright and leans forward.

Front 317

49. To suspend the ball in the incentive spirometer, the patient
A. inhales.
B. exhales.
C. coughs.
D. swallows.

Back 317

A. inhales.

Front 318

A device used to deliver medication or moisture deep into the lungs is the
A. incentive spirometer.
B. oxygen concentrator.
C. nebulizer.
D. tracheostomy.

Back 318

C. nebulizer.

Front 319

Most of the patients who are at high risk for hypoxemia
A. are in the intensive or coronary care units.
B. have had their risk identified on admission.
C. are on medical, surgical, or other hospital units.
D. have orders for precautions to prevent complications.

Back 319

C. are on medical, surgical, or other hospital units.

Front 320

The purpose of the Passy-Muir valve is to
A. enable a ventilator patient to breathe.
B. enable a tracheostomy patient to speak.
C. assist a laryngectomee to swallow.
D. measure the oxygen in a breathing tube.

Back 320

B. enable a tracheostomy patient to speak.

Front 321

All of the following are signs and symptoms of emphysema except
A. fatigue.
B. chronic oxygen deprivation.
C. nasal congestion and drainage.
D. loss of appetite and weight loss.

Back 321

C. nasal congestion and drainage.

Front 322

54. Patients with emphysema are at high risk of
A. pneumonia.
B. pressure ulcers.
C. contractures.
D. pain.

Back 322

A. pneumonia.

Front 323

55. The most common sign of respiratory problems in a patient with emphysema is
A. chest pain.
B. headache.
C. edema.
D. cough.

Back 323

B. headache.

Front 324

56. The best approach for the nursing assistant to take in the care of the patient with COPD is
A. giving total care so the patient gets as much rest as possible.
B. providing lots of high-fat and high-carbohydrate snacks.
C. pushing the patient in a wheelchair so she does not have to walk.
D. providing fluids the patient likes and encouraging her to drink.

Back 324

D. providing fluids the patient likes and encouraging her to drink.

Front 325

57. The external opening on the skin surface through which a patient with a tracheostomy breathes is the
A. adapter.
B. cannula.
C. stoma.
D. cuff.

Back 325

C. stoma.

Front 326

58. A tube that maintains patency of the airway until the tracheostomy has healed open is the
A. cannula.
B. stoma.
C. adapter.
D. cuff.

Back 326

A. cannula.

Front 327

59. An inflatable cuff
A. maintains airway patency.
B. reduces air to the nose and throat.
C. is used for administering feedings.
D. is used for emergency suctioning.

Back 327

B. reduces air to the nose and throat.

Front 328

60. You are serving lunch trays and find that Mr. Hmong’s tracheostomy cuff is not inflated. You should
A. inflate the cuff.
B. serve the lunch tray and leave the room.
C. call the RN or RCP to inflate the cuff.
D. ask the patient if he is having trouble breathing.

Back 328

C. call the RN or RCP to inflate the cuff.

Front 329

When caring for patients with COPD, the nursing assistant should do all of the following except
A. help the patient conserve energy.
B. limit raising arms over the head.
C. pace the schedule, allow for rest.
D. always use aerosol deodorants.

Back 329

D. always use aerosol deodorants.

Front 330

The patient with a laryngectomy will not be able to
A. communicate by talking.
B. take a deep breath.
C. make his needs known.
D. drink from a glass.

Back 330

A. communicate by talking.

Front 331

If a patient has had a laryngectomy, the
A. patient will be able to smell unpleasant odors.
B. procedure will be reversed when breathing improves.
C. upper airway is no longer connected to the trachea.
D. patient will be able to drink from a straw.

Back 331

C. upper airway is no longer connected to the trachea.

Front 332

When a person breathes normally, the structures in the nose and mouth do all of the following except
A. trap foreign particles.
B. moisten the inhaled air.
C. warm and humidify the air.
D. cool and dry the air.

Back 332

D. cool and dry the air.

Front 333

When caring for a patient with a tracheostomy or laryngectomy, an important consideration is to
A. encourage the patient to use a straw for water.
B. make sure that nothing enters the stoma.
C. deflate the cuff at mealtime.
D. deflate the cuff so the patient can gargle.

Back 333

B. make sure that nothing enters the stoma.

Front 334

When caring for a patient with chest tubes, you should
A. make sure the tubing is clamped off at all times.
B. position the drainage bottles above the heart.
C. turn the patient, but avoid traction on the tube.
D. keep the head of the bed flat at all times.

Back 334

C. turn the patient, but avoid traction on the tube.

Front 335

You serve a meal tray to a patient who is wearing an oxygen mask. You should
A. put the tray down and leave the room.
B. remove the mask and give the patient the tray.
C. remove the tray because the patient cannot eat.
D. ask the nurse if the patient can use a cannula while eating.

Back 335

D. ask the nurse if the patient can use a cannula while eating.

Front 336

If a liquid oxygen bottle tips over in the patient’s room, you should
A. remove the patient and close the door.
B. remain with the patient and call for help.
C. pick the bottle up and set it upright.
D. leave the room as quickly as possible.

Back 336

A. remove the patient and close the door.

Front 337

A patient with a CPAP mask is swallowing air and belching, which causes discomfort. You should
A. inform the RCP immediately.
B. elevate the head.
C. reposition the mask.
D. remove the mask and call the RN.

Back 337

B. elevate the head.

Front 338

The third time Mr. Maciejewski uses a Passy-Muir valve, he becomes slightly diaphoretic and his respiratory rate increases to 28 per minute. You should
A. do nothing, as this is a normal reaction.
B. apply gloves and remove the valve.
C. use the call signal to notify the nurse.
D. take the patient’s blood pressure.

Back 338

C. use the call signal to notify the nurse.

Front 339

71. Patients with chronic diseases may have times when they are free of symptoms.
A. True
B. False

Back 339

A. True

Front 340

72. Ischemia refers to adequate blood supply to body tissues.
A. True
B. False

Back 340

B. False

Front 341

73. Malignant tumors are not cancerous.
A. True
B. False

Back 341

B. False

Front 342

The medical diagnosis is the name given to a disease process.
A. True
B. False

Back 342

A. True

Front 343

75. Surgery is a form of therapy.
A. True
B. False

Back 343

A. True

Front 344

76. Inflammation is a natural defense of the body.
A. True
B. False

Back 344

A. True

Front 345

77. Nursing care for patients with respiratory disease is directed toward prevention of infection and relief of respiratory distress.
A. True
B. False

Back 345

A. True

Front 346

Fever is usually absent in patients with URI.
A. True
B. False

Back 346

B. False

Front 347

The changes in the lungs in patients with COPD are irreversible.
A. True
B. False

Back 347

A. True

Front 348

81. An oxygen tank must always be secured so that it cannot fall.
A. True
B. False

Back 348

A. True

Front 349

Patients with bronchitis have minimal lung secretions.
A. True
B. False

Back 349

B. False

Front 350

A patient in respiratory distress will find it easiest to breathe in the supine position.
A. True
B. False

Back 350

B. False

Front 351

83. Microscopic examination of tissue removed from the patient is a biopsy.
A. True
B. False

Back 351

A. True

Front 352

84. When obtaining a sputum specimen, instruct the patient to expectorate mucus from the mouth into the collection cup.
A. True
B. False

Back 352

B. False

Front 353

85. Malignancies can develop anywhere in the respiratory system.
A. True
B. False

Back 353

A. True

Front 354

86. The prongs from the nasal cannula can be irritating.
A. True
B. False

Back 354

A. True

Front 355

87. The straps securing the oxygen cannula or mask should be as loose as possible.
A. True
B. False

Back 355

B. False

Front 356

88. CPAP treatments involve pressurized oxygen treatments administered by the nursing assistant.
A. True
B. False

Back 356

B. False

Front 357

89. Remove and clean the filter on the oxygen concentrator weekly.
A. True
B. False

Back 357

A. True

Front 358

90. Emphysema is a moist condition with large amounts of sputum production.
A. True
B. False

Back 358

B. False

Front 359

91. Death will result if levels of acid and carbon dioxide in the bloodstream become too high.
A. True
B. False

Back 359

A. True

Front 360

92. Care of the tracheostomy cuff is not a nursing assistant responsibility.
A. True
B. False

Back 360

A. True

Front 361

93. Patients with a cuffless tube are able to breathe through the nose, mouth, and tracheostomy.
A. True
B. False

Back 361

A. True

Front 362

94. A stoma provides a direct, unfiltered passageway to the lungs for irritating foreign substances and pathogens.
A. True
B. False

Back 362

A. True

Front 363

95. The patient with a tracheostomy will not be able to talk, smell, blow her nose, whistle, gargle, or suck on a straw.
A. True
B. False

Back 363

B. False

Front 364

96. Oxygen is a prescription item.
A. True
B. False

Back 364

A. True

Front 365

97. If a patient is having trouble breathing, try to ask "yes" or "no" questions.
A. True
B. False

Back 365

A. True

Front 366

98. The bed linen will absorb the oxygen being administered to the patient.
A. True
B. False

Back 366

A. True

Front 367

99. Never seal the cap or vent port on a liquid oxygen canister.
A. True
B. False

Back 367

A. True

Front 368

Never modify an oxygen system to make the parts fit together.
A. True
B. False

Back 368

A. True

Front 369

1.The functions of the skin include all of the following except
A. excretion of waste.
B. hormone production.
C. temperature maintenance.
D. sensory perception.

Back 369

Correct Answer: B

Front 370

2.Pressure ulcers are caused by

A. rough handling during transfers.
B. anything that interferes with circulation.
C. scrubbing with a washcloth during bathing.
D. using too much soap on the skin.

Back 370

Correct Answer: B

Front 371

3. The first sign of pressure ulcer formation is
A. skin appears pale.
B. blister formation.
C. red or blue-gray discoloration.
D. a tear in the skin.

Back 371

Correct Answer: C

Front 372

4. Aging changes in the skin include
A. enhanced circulation and elasticity.
B. increased oil production.
C. thermoregulation improves.
D. dryness and thinning increase.

Back 372

Correct Answer: D

Front 373

5. The nursing assistant should change the patient's position
A. every shift.
B. every 2 hours or more often.
C. every 3 hours.
D. every 4 hours if the patient looks uncomfortable.

Back 373

Correct Answer: B

Front 374

6. If you note formation of a Stage I pressure ulcer, you should
A. massage the area.
B. apply heat to the area.
C. notify the nurse.
D. apply cold to the area.

Back 374

Correct Answer: C

Front 375

7. An important factor to consider in pressure ulcer prevention and healing is
A. nutrition.
B. medication.
C. use of adaptive devices.
D. massage.

Back 375

Correct Answer: A

Front 376

8. The skin over a Stage II pressure ulcer is
A. deeply eroded.
B. blistered or superficially broken.
C. blue in color.
D. intact but discolored.

Back 376

Correct Answer: B

Front 377

9. A Stage III pressure ulcer shows
A. full-thickness skin loss extending to the muscle, tendon, or bone.
B. a highly defined area or red, shiny, intact skin.
C. full-thickness skin loss with damage of subcutaneous tissue.
D. partial-thickness skin loss with an abrasion or blistered surface.

Back 377

Correct Answer: C

Front 378

10. A Stage IV pressure ulcer appears as
A. full-thickness skin loss extending to the muscle, tendon, or bone.
B. partial-thickness skin loss with an abrasion or blistered surface.
C. full-thickness skin loss with damage of subcutaneous tissue.
D. a highly defined area or red, shiny, intact skin.

Back 378

Correct Answer: A

Front 379

11. The outer layer of skin is the
A. epidermis.
B. dermis.
C. subcutaneous tissue.
D. sebaceous layer.

Back 379

Correct Answer: A

Front 380

Rubbing away or scraping the skin causes an injury called a/an
A. pressure ulcer.
B. abrasion.
C. edema.
D. atrophy.

Back 380

Correct Answer: B

Front 381

In a dark-skinned person, a S

A. red or pink.
B. black or blue.
C. white or tan.
D. yellow or brown.
tage I pressure ulcer appears

Back 381

Correct Answer: B

Front 382

When caring for patients with s

A. vigorously scrub the lesions with a washcloth when bathing.
B. wear gloves when contact with lesions is likely.
C. use a large amount of soap on the lesions to prevent infection.
D. massage the lesions well with lotion after bathing.
kin lesions

Back 382

Correct Answer: B

Front 383

The nursing assistant prevents

A. turning the patient at least every 4 hours.
B. using very warm water and friction for bathing.
C. avoiding pressure, shearing, and friction.
D. assisting the patient to be in the chair instead of bed.
pressure ulcers by

Back 383

Correct Answer: C

Front 384

An intact blister is an example

A. Stage I pressure ulcer.
B. Stage II pressure ulcer.
C. Stage III pressure ulcer.
D. Stage IV pressure ulcer.
of a

Back 384

Correct Answer: A

Front 385

17. Deep tunneling can occur in a
A. Stage I pressure ulcer.
B. Stage II pressure ulcer.
C. Stage III pressure ulcer.
D. contusion or abrasion.

Back 385

Correct Answer: C

Front 386

The most important way to to prevent pressure ulcers is to

A. apply padding to the chair.
B. prevent incontinence.
C. turn residents every 3 hours.
D. keep pressure off bony prominences.
event pressure ulcers is to

Back 386

Correct Answer: D

Front 387

19. A red area that does not go away when pressure is relieved for 30 minutes is a
A. bony prominence.
B. Stage I pressure ulcer.
C. skin tear.
D. Stage II pressure ulcer.

Back 387

Correct Answer: B

Front 388

20. Friction commonly occurs when
A. dirt, oils, and perspiration are not removed from the skin.
B. the patient is positioned directly on a body prominence.
C. a patient is dragged across a sheet or other surface.
D. the patient is moved by using a lifting sheet.

Back 388

Correct Answer: C

Front 389

21. Shearing is
A. scrubbing the skin with an abrasive cloth, substance, or chemical.
B. sliding a patient from the bed to the chair with adaptive equipment.
C. dragging the heels across the bed surface when moving with a lifting sheet.
D. stretching the skin in one direction while the bone moves in the opposite direction.

Back 389

Correct Answer: D

Front 390

22. Dark purple bruises on the forearms and back of hands that are common in elderly individuals are
A. senile purpura.
B. senile petechia.
C. senile hematomas.
D. senile contusions.

Back 390

Correct Answer: A

Front 391

23. Shallow, irregularly shaped injuries that commonly occur in elderly individuals and involve a break in the epidermis are
A. incisions.
B. skin tears.
C. abrasions.
D. lacerations.

Back 391

Correct Answer: B

Front 392

24. The rash from scabies causes intense
A. pain.
B. burning.
C. itching.
D. drainage.

Back 392

Correct Answer: C

Front 393

25. Lice and scabies are commonly spread by
A. jumping from one person to another.
B. running very fast.
C. the airborne method.
D. direct contact method.

Back 393

Correct Answer: D

Front 394

26. Lice and scabies are both
A. fomites.
B. microbes.
C. parasites.
D. pathogens.

Back 394

Correct Answer: C

Front 395

27. All of the following are true about the lesions of Kaposi’s sarcoma (KS) except
A. they can be internal or external.
B. they are spread by direct and indirect contact.
C. they are common in HIV disease and AIDS.
D. they are probably caused by a herpes virus.

Back 395

Correct Answer: B

Front 396

28. A localized mass of blood that is confined to one area is a/an
A. hematoma.
B. skin tear.
C. abrasion.
D. laceration.

Back 396

Correct Answer: A

Front 397

29. Prevent pressure ulcers on the heels and feet by
A. applying heel protectors when the patient is in bed.
B. putting socks on the feet when the patient is in bed.
C. putting pillows under the feet.
D. suspending the feet off the surface of the bed.

Back 397

Correct Answer: D

Front 398

30. Peripheral vascular disease
A. does not affect heart function.
B. involves diminished blood flow to the extremities.
C. causes extremities to feel warm to the touch.
D. is reversible with drugs and surgery.

Back 398

Correct Answer: B

Front 399

31. Patients with peripheral vascular disease
A. heal poorly.
B. have strong pulses.
C. have high blood pressure.
D. have thin toenails.

Back 399

Correct Answer: A

Front 400

32. Atherosclerosis
A. causes dilation of the blood vessels.
B. produces atheromas that can obstruct blood flow.
C. is caused by too much protein in the diet.
D. causes diabetes and obesity.

Back 400

Correct Answer: B

Front 401

33. Risk factors that predispose individuals to vascular disease include all of the following except
A. high-fat diet.
B. stress and hypertension.
C. low sodium diet.
D. heredity and obesity.

Back 401

Correct Answer: C

Front 402

34. Hypertension
A. increases stress on the heart and damages blood vessels.
B. increases cerebrospinal fluid production.
C. improves blood flow to nourish body parts.
D. causes a rapid, irregular pulse.

Back 402

Correct Answer: A

Front 403

35. A heart attack occurs when the
A. coronary arteries are blocked.
B. cerebral veins are blocked.
C. carotid arteries are blocked.
D. jugular vein is blocked.

Back 403

Correct Answer: A

Front 404

36. Signs and symptoms of congestive heart failure include
A. chest pain.
B. low blood pressure.
C. edema.
D. irregular pulse.

Back 404

Correct Answer: C

Front 405

37. Treatment for a patient with congestive heart failure includes
A. sodium and fluid restrictions.
B. CPAP treatments.
C. positioning in the semi-Fowler's position.
D. exercise and stimulation.

Back 405

Correct Answer: A

Front 406

38. Signs and symptoms of anemia include
A. lack of energy.
B. constipation.
C. confusion.
D. dehydration.

Back 406

Correct Answer: A

Front 407

39. Leukemia is
A. highly contagious.
B. a form of cancer.
C. usually hereditary.
D. not curable.

Back 407

Correct Answer: B

Front 408

40. Patients with peripheral vascular disease are at risk for all of the following except
A. gangrene.
B. ulceration.
C. calluses.
D. amputation.

Back 408

Correct Answer: C

Front 409

41. Nursing assistant care for the patient with peripheral vascular disease includes
A. making sure there is no pressure on the feet.
B. keeping the toenails trimmed short to prevent injury.
C. assisting the patient to ambulate in socks.
D. washing the feet in hot water to prevent infection.

Back 409

Correct Answer: A

Front 410

42. Patients with leukemia are
A. terminally ill.
B. at high risk of infection.
C. at risk for pressure ulcers.
D. usually on fluid restriction.

Back 410

Correct Answer: B

Front 411

43. The purpose of a stent is to
A. dissolve fatty deposits.
B. prevent stroke.
C. enhance oxygen to the brain.
D. keep an artery open.

Back 411

Correct Answer: D

Front 412

44. A transient ischemic attack (TIA)
A. interrupts blood flow to the heart.
B. disrupts oxygen in the extremities.
C. interrupts blood flow to the brain.
D. causes permanent damage.

Back 412

Correct Answer: C

Front 413

45. Patients who have had a TIA are at great risk of
A. heart attack.
B. stroke.
C. PVD.
D. atherosclerosis.

Back 413

Correct Answer: B

Front 414

46. A collection of fluid in the abdomen is
A. ascites.
B. atheroma.
C. atherosclerosis.
D. angina.

Back 414

Correct Answer: A

Front 415

47. One purpose of using T.E.D. hose is to
A. prevent pressure ulcers.
B. slow diuresis.
C. prevent blood clots.
D. reverse orthopnea.

Back 415

Correct Answer: C

Front 416

48. A patient informs you that she is having angina. You should
A. have her stop activity and assume a comfortable position.
B. monitor for bleeding and document your findings.
C. take the vital signs, then give her a drink of ice water.
D. administer oxygen, then go for the nurse immediately.

Back 416

Correct Answer: A

Front 417

49. The arteries
A. are thin vessels that connect veins and venules.
B. carry oxygenated blood away from the heart.
C. carry blood in which the nutrients have been used.
D. carry deoxygenated blood to the heart.

Back 417

Correct Answer: B

Front 418

50. If the patient does not get adequate exercise, all of the following will occur except
A. bones lose minerals and muscles atrophy.
B. contractures and deformities develop.
C. body circulation is slowed.
D. osteoporosis will cause bones to break.

Back 418

Correct Answer: D

Front 419

51. When you are assigned to perform range-of-motion exercises on a patient, you should
A. force the joint as far as it will go.
B. repeat each exercise five times.
C. repeat each exercise two times.
D. reassure the patient if pain develops.

Back 419

Correct Answer: B

Front 420

52. Treatment for a patient with bursitis includes
A. cold applications to relieve pain.
B. vigorous exercise.
C. heat applications to promote healing.
D. stretching the joint to relieve spasticity.

Back 420

Correct Answer: C

Front 421

53. Rheumatoid arthritis is believed to be
A. hereditary.
B. caused by infection.
C. an autoimmune response.
D. triggered by an injury.

Back 421

Correct Answer: C

Front 422

54. Fractures should always be
A. immobilized.
B. casted.
C. pinned.
D. treated with traction.

Back 422

Correct Answer: A

Front 423

55. When caring for a patient with an arm sling, the nursing assistant should do all of the following except
A. make the patient comfortable so he can wear the sling at all times.
B. monitor the skin behind the neck for irritation and breakdown.
C. monitor the skin under the arm for irritation and breakdown.
D. wash the underarm and keep the area clean and dry.

Back 423

Correct Answer: A

Front 424

56. When caring for a patient with a recent surgical repair of a hip fracture, you should
A. position the patient carefully in adduction.
B. avoid the supine position.
C. avoid internal and external rotation.
D. keep the patient prone as much as possible.

Back 424

Correct Answer: C

Front 425

57. Points where bones come together and permit movement are
A. joints.
B. ligaments.
C. sockets.
D. points of attachment.

Back 425

Correct Answer: A

Front 426

58. Moving an extremity away from the midline is
A. flexion.
B. extension.
C. abduction.
D. adduction.

Back 426

Correct Answer: C

Front 427

59. Moving an extremity toward the midline is
A. flexion.
B. extension.
C. abduction.
D. adduction.

Back 427

Correct Answer: D

Front 428

60. Small sacs of fluid around the joints that reduce friction during movement are
A. muscles.
B. bursae.
C. tendons.
D. ligaments.

Back 428

Correct Answer: B

Front 429

61. The most common symptom of osteoarthritis is
A. deformity.
B. pain.
C. weakness.
D. spasticity.

Back 429

Correct Answer: B

Front 430

62. The type of arthritis that is caused by increased uric acid levels is
A. gout.
B. rheumatoid arthritis.
C. osteoarthritis.
D. osteoporosis.

Back 430

Correct Answer: A

Front 431

63. Patients with arthritis are at high risk of
A. falls.
B. infection.
C. spasticity.
D. contractures.

Back 431

Correct Answer: D

Front 432

64. The two primary goals of treatment for osteoporosis are controlling pain and preventing
A. pressure ulcers.
B. deformities.
C. fractures.
D. weakness.

Back 432

Correct Answer: C

Front 433

65. Fractures are classified by
A. type of break and whether the skin is broken.
B. location of fracture and extent of damage.
C. severity of fracture and pattern of injury.
D. size of fracture and whether the skin is broken.

Back 433

Correct Answer: A

Front 434

66. When a hip fracture is present, the affected leg is commonly
A. lengthened and externally rotated.
B. shortened and internally rotated.
C. lengthened and internally rotated.
D. shortened and externally rotated.

Back 434

Correct Answer: D

Front 435

67. After hip replacement surgery, the patient should be instructed to
A. use the trapeze and lift by pushing down with the affected leg.
B. keep the legs in a position of abduction as much as possible.
C. avoid crossing the legs when in the bed or chair.
D. maintain the extremity in flexion as much as possible.

Back 435

Correct Answer: B

Front 436

68. A patient who has had hip surgery is at very high risk of
A. heel ulcers.
B. nausea.
C. constipation.
D. depression.

Back 436

Correct Answer: A

Front 437

69. If a patient has had hip surgery, never elevate the head of the bed more than
A. 90 degrees without specific permission.
B. 75 degrees without specific permission.
C. 45 degrees without specific permission.
D. 30 degrees without specific permission.

Back 437

Correct Answer: C

Front 438

70. “Hip fracture” is the term used to describe
A. a fracture of the pelvic bone, sacrum, or ischium.
B. a fracture in the upper third or head of the femur.
C. a fracture in the lower third of the femur or knee.
D. a fracture directly over the ilium or upper ischium.

Back 438

Correct Answer: B

Front 439

71. All of the following are true about contractures except
A. contractures make caring for the patient more difficult.
B. joint movement becomes painful because the muscles have shortened.
C. contractures are easily reversible complications of prolonged immobility.
D. there is a direct relationship between contractures and pressure ulcers.

Back 439

Correct Answer: C

Front 440

72. The endocrine system
A. produces axons and dendrites.
B. controls body activities and growth.
C. produces cerebrospinal fluid.
D. controls the neurotransmitters.

Back 440

Correct Answer: B

Front 441

73. When caring for patients with hyperthyroidism, the patient's room should be kept
A. warm and dark.
B. quiet and cool.
C. hot and quiet.
D. dark and cool.

Back 441

Correct Answer: B

Front 442

74. Following a thyroidectomy, the patient should be positioned in the
A. orthopneic position.
B. Fowler's position.
C. semi-Fowler's position.
D. supine position.

Back 442

Correct Answer: C

Front 443

75. Hypothyroidism can be caused by lack of
A. magnesium.
B. calcium.
C. phosphorus.
D. iodine.

Back 443

Correct Answer: D

Front 444

76. Hypersecretion of parathormone results in
A. low levels of blood calcium.
B. development of renal calculi.
C. increased production of insulin.
D. excess production of ADH.

Back 444

Correct Answer: B

Front 445

77. Hyposecretion of parathormone results in
A. severe muscle spasms.
B. loss of bone calcium.
C. abnormal muscle-nerve interaction.
D. excess calcium production.

Back 445

Correct Answer: A

Front 446

78. Cushing's syndrome is characterized by
A. low blood sugar.
B. irritability and nervousness.
C. hyperglycemia and edema.
D. rapid pulse and weight loss.

Back 446

Correct Answer: C

Front 447

79. Predisposing factors for diabetes include
A. chemical exposure.
B. pollution.
C. obesity.
D. smoking.

Back 447

Correct Answer: C

Front 448

80. The patient with diabetes
A. cannot use glucose properly.
B. excretes potassium rapidly.
C. has high sodium levels.
D. loses bone calcium.

Back 448

Correct Answer: A

Front 449

81. Type 1 diabetes
A. is treated with oral medication.
B. is treated with daily insulin injections.
C. first appears after the age of 40.
D. is the most common type.

Back 449

Correct Answer: B

Front 450

82. Hypoglycemia
A. is low blood sugar.
B. usually develops slowly.
C. occurs as the result of overeating.
D. seldom occurs in IDDM.

Back 450

Correct Answer: A

Front 451

83. Hyperglycemia
A. develops rapidly.
B. occurs when insulin is insufficient for metabolic needs.
C. occurs as the result of skipping meals.
D. is rare in persons with NIDDM.

Back 451

Correct Answer: B

Front 452

84. The most commonly used and accurate method for home blood sugar testing is
A. urine testing.
B. stool testing.
C. blood testing.
D. saliva testing.

Back 452

Correct Answer: C

Front 453

85. Testing for acetone is done by obtaining a
A. urine specimen.
B. stool sample.
C. blood sample.
D. saliva specimen.

Back 453

Correct Answer: A

Front 454

86. In diabetes, the problems with insulin cause the body to be unable to
A. properly process food into energy.
B. excrete sodium and potassium.
C. digest sugar and starch.
D. absorb calcium in the bones.

Back 454

Correct Answer: A

Front 455

87. Bedside glucose testing is done by obtaining a blood sample from a/an
A. vein.
B. capillary.
C. artery.
D. venule.

Back 455

Correct Answer: B

Front 456

88. The normal fasting blood sugar range is between
A. 65 and 120.
B. 40 and 105.
C. 80 and 150.
D. 120 and 200.

Back 456

Correct Answer: A

Front 457

89. Signs and symptoms of potential blood sugar problems that should be reported include all of the following except
A. inadequate food intake.
B. refusal of meals.
C. nausea and vomiting.
D. blood sugar of 96.

Back 457

Correct Answer: D

Front 458

90. Ketone bodies cause
A. abnormally low blood sugar.
B. a chemical imbalance.
C. signs of hypoglycemia.
D. nervousness and shakiness.

Back 458

Correct Answer: B

Front 459

91. The A1C test will show the patient’s blood sugar for the previous
A. day,
B. week.
C. 30 days.
D. 90 days.

Back 459

Correct Answer: D

Front 460

92. Signs and symptoms of increased intracranial pressure include
A. sinus drainage.
B. stiff neck.
C. change in pupil size.
D. rapid pulse and respirations.

Back 460

Correct Answer: C

Front 461

93. In caring for patients with head injuries, you should report to the nurse immediately if the patient displays
A. changes in responsiveness.
B. temperature of 99.2 degrees F.
C. talkativeness.
D. warm, dry skin.

Back 461

Correct Answer: A

Front 462

94. Nursing care for the patient with a head injury involves
A. prevention of pressure ulcers.
B. monitoring of blood sugar.
C. encouraging fluids.
D. high-calorie, high-protein diet.

Back 462

Correct Answer: A

Front 463

95. When caring for patients who have had a CVA, you know that they
A. are always mentally confused.
B. have brain damage opposite the side of paralysis.
C. will remain paralyzed for the rest of their lives.
D. will not regain bowel and bladder control.

Back 463

Correct Answer: B

Front 464

96. A stroke is caused by
A. a blockage in the heart muscle.
B. neurological problems.
C. loss of blood flow to part of the brain.
D. inflammation, infection, and edema.

Back 464

Correct Answer: C

Front 465

97. Damage to the left side of the brain will affect the patient's ability to
A. remember.
B. speak.
C. tell time.
D. move the left arm.

Back 465

Correct Answer: B

Front 466

98. The overall goal of nursing care for a patient who has recently suffered a stroke is to
A. prevent complications caused by immobility.
B. assist the patient to regain the ability to speak.
C. assist the patient to regain the ability to eat.
D. reverse brain damage caused by the stroke.

Back 466

Correct Answer: A

Front 467

99. Rehabilitation from a stroke
A. may be very frustrating for the patient.
B. does not address aphasia, which is permanent.
C. involves reversing hemianopsia and edema.
D. focuses on unilateral neglect and lability.

Back 467

Correct Answer: A

Front 468

100. A patient with Parkinson's disease will have
A. frequent episodes of vomiting.
B. headaches.
C. muscle tremors and rigidity.
D. numbness and vertigo.

Back 468

Correct Answer: C

Front 469

101. A patient with advanced Parkinson's disease may have
A. Lhermitte’s sign.
B. nystagmus.
C. dementia.
D. vertigo.

Back 469

Correct Answer: C

Front 470

102. Signs and symptoms of multiple sclerosis include all of the following except
A. pill-rolling fingers.
B. paralysis.
C. slurred speech.
D. visual disturbances.

Back 470

Correct Answer: A

Front 471

103. If you find a patient having a seizure, you should
A. run for the nurse.
B. protect the patient from injury.
C. insert something in the mouth.
D. apply a restraint immediately.

Back 471

Correct Answer: B

Front 472

104. You should monitor the skin closely in patients with paralysis because
A. their skin is very dry and thin.
B. these patients are often emaciated.
C. they cannot feel pain and pressure.
D. the patient has numbness and tingling.

Back 472

Correct Answer: C

Front 473

105. Patients with paraplegia and tetraplegia are at high risk for all of the following except
A. urinary tract infection.
B. contractures.
C. vertigo and edema.
D. pressure ulcers.

Back 473

Correct Answer: C

Front 474

106. Signs and symptoms of meningitis include
A. diarrhea.
B. stiff neck.
C. palpitations.
D. abdominal pain.

Back 474

Correct Answer: B

Front 475

107. After the patient has had a spinal tap,
A. the head of the bed should be flat for 8 hours.
B. elevate the head with a small pillow.
C. place the patient in the prone position.
D. assist the patient to maintain the semi-Fowler's position.

Back 475

Correct Answer: A

Front 476

108. Nursing care of the patient who has just had cataract surgery includes
A. changing the dressings.
B. minimizing strain.
C. irrigating the eye.
D. maintaining bedrest.

Back 476

Correct Answer: B

Front 477

109. When caring for a patient who is deaf or hearing impaired,
A. keep the pitch of your voice low.
B. raise the pitch of your voice as much as possible.
C. stand with the light facing your back.
D. speak as loudly as possible.

Back 477

Correct Answer: A

Front 478

110. A score of less than 8 on the Glasgow scale indicates
A. that the condition is improving.
B. minor dysfunction.
C. moderate dysfunction.
D. a neurological crisis.

Back 478

Correct Answer: D

Front 479

111. The patient with ALS will
A. be mentally alert.
B. have a shuffling gait.
C. develop hemiplegia.
D. live a long life.

Back 479

Correct Answer: A

Front 480

112. Postpolio syndrome is marked by
A. incontinence and confusion.
B. weakness and fatigue.
C. spasticity and tremor.
D. speech and hearing problems.

Back 480

Correct Answer: B

Front 481

113. The patient with ALS is
A. at high risk of choking.
B. usually bedridden.
C. usually incontinent.
D. at risk of heart problems.

Back 481

Correct Answer: A

Front 482

114. After a tonic-clonic seizure,
A. stimulate the patient to reverse confusion.
B. the patient will have involuntary movement.
C. the patient will be tired and want to sleep.
D. do not leave the patient alone.

Back 482

Correct Answer: C

Front 483

115. Status epilepticus
A. lasts for 2 to 20 seconds.
B. is mild and may go unnoticed.
C. does not cause unconsciousness.
D. is a life-threatening condition.

Back 483

Correct Answer: D

Front 484

116. Treatment for a patient with paralysis includes all of the following except
A. preventing complications of immobility.
B. giving total care, which is easier for the patient.
C. preventing musculoskeletal deformities.
D. restoring as much independence as possible.

Back 484

Correct Answer: B

Front 485

117. The most common cause of autonomic dysreflexia is
A. involuntary movement.
B. numbness and tingling.
C. overfull bladder.
D. pressure ulcers.

Back 485

Correct Answer: C

Front 486

118. Weakness on one side of the body that may develop after a stroke is
A. hemiparesis.
B. quadriplegia.
C. hemiplegia.
D. paraparesis.

Back 486

Correct Answer: A

Front 487

119. Most strokes are
A. hemorrhagic.
B. ischemic.
C. spastic.
D. paralytic.

Back 487

Correct Answer: B

Front 488

120. Creating an artificial opening in the abdominal wall and bringing a section of the colon to it for elimination purposes is called a/an
A. colectomy.
B. colostomy.
C. ileostomy.
D. gastrectomy.

Back 488

Correct Answer: B

Front 489

121. When a patient has ulcerative colitis, you know that
A. there is an ulcer in the stomach.
B. the patient may have frequent vomiting.
C. the patient may be malnourished and dehydrated.
D. the patient will be constipated.

Back 489

Correct Answer: C

Front 490

122. The patient with ulcerative colitis will be on a diet that is low in
A. protein.
B. calories.
C. residue.
D. fat.

Back 490

Correct Answer: C

Front 491

123. Cholecystitis is
A. inflammation of the colon.
B. stones in the bladder.
C. caused by constipation.
D. inflammation of the gallbladder.

Back 491

Correct Answer: D

Front 492

124. An enema is given
A. to remove feces from the colon and rectum.
B. to flush the stomach before surgery.
C. cleanse the stoma and ostomy.
D. immediately after a meal.

Back 492

Correct Answer: A

Front 493

125. The best position for the patient to receive an enema is
A. orthopneic.
B. prone.
C. Sims’.
D. semi-Fowler's.

Back 493

Correct Answer: C

Front 494

126. The temperature of the water in an enema solution should be
A. 95 degrees F.
B. 105 degrees F.
C. 115 degrees F.
D. 160 degrees F.

Back 494

Correct Answer: B

Front 495

127. The tip of the enema tubing should be inserted into the anus
A. 1 to 2 inches.
B. 2 to 6 inches.
C. 2 to 4 inches.
D. 6 to 8 inches.

Back 495

Correct Answer: C

Front 496

128. Signs and symptoms of fecal impaction include
A. headache.
B. cough and dysphagia.
C. liquid stool.
D. sweating profusely.

Back 496

Correct Answer: C

Front 497

129. Cystitis is particularly common in women because
A. they are more susceptible to yeast infections.
B. bacteria grow best in a warm, moist, dark environment.
C. the urethra is so short that bacteria readily reach the bladder.
D. the female anatomy is easily contaminated.

Back 497

Correct Answer: C

Front 498

130. Signs and symptoms of cystitis include
A. headache.
B. frequency of urination.
C. chills.
D. high fever.

Back 498

Correct Answer: B

Front 499

131. Nephritis
A. is an acute infection of the bladder.
B. causes hypertension and edema.
C. is an acute infection of the urethra.
D. increases urine production.

Back 499

Correct Answer: B

Front 500

132. When caring for a patient with nephritis, you know
A. accurate intake and output is important.
B. the patient will be on a low-residue diet.
C. the patient should be as active as possible.
D. strain all urine to check for stones.

Back 500

Correct Answer: A

Front 501

133. Renal calculi are
A. a form of infection.
B. an acute inflammation.
C. kidney stones.
D. highly contagious.

Back 501

Correct Answer: C

Front 502

134. Hydronephrosis
A. destroys kidney cells.
B. causes frequent urination.
C. results in increased urine output.
D. is caused by infection.

Back 502

Correct Answer: A

Front 503

135. When caring for a patient who receives dialysis treatments,
A. intake and output monitoring is not necessary.
B. never take the blood pressure on the arm with the graft.
C. the patient will produce excessive urine after dialysis.
D. weigh the patient three times a day.

Back 503

Correct Answer: B

Front 504

136. The Foley catheter is held in place by
A. tape.
B. gravity.
C. tubing.
D. a balloon.

Back 504

Correct Answer: D

Front 505

137. When caring for a patient with an indwelling catheter,
A. secure the catheter to the leg or abdomen at all times.
B. fasten the catheter to the patient’s body when in bed.
C. avoid fastening the catheter to the patient’s body.
D. fasten the catheter to the patient’s body when out of bed.

Back 505

Correct Answer: A

Front 506

138. When performing catheter care on a male patient,
A. cleanse from the shaft of the penis to the meatus.
B. cleanse from the meatus of the penis to the shaft.
C. cleanse the distal two inches of the penis only.
D. begin at the scrotum and wash up the shaft.

Back 506

Correct Answer: B

Front 507

139. When performing catheter care on a female patient,
A. wipe from front to back.
B. wipe from back to front.
C. scrub back and forth.
D. wash up and down each side.

Back 507

Correct Answer: A

Front 508

140. When disconnecting a catheter,
A. clamp the tubing securely.
B. gloves are not necessary.
C. insert a sterile plug into the catheter.
D. loop the tubing through the side rail.

Back 508

Correct Answer: C

Front 509

141. A condom catheter is
A. inserted into the urethra.
B. a closed drainage system.
C. an external drainage system.
D. emptied into a urinal.

Back 509

Correct Answer: C

Front 510

142. When a leg bag is attached to a condom catheter, the bag should be secured to the
A. knee.
B. external thigh.
C. inner calf or thigh.
D. back of the thigh.

Back 510

Correct Answer: C

Front 511

143. The best time of day to collect a urine specimen is
A. first thing in the morning.
B. at bedtime.
C. 3:00 AM.
D. 3:00 PM.

Back 511

Correct Answer: A

Front 512

144. After collecting a urine specimen, take it to the lab
A. immediately.
B. within an hour.
C. within 2 hours.
D. at the end of the shift.

Back 512

Correct Answer: A

Front 513

145. When collecting a urine specimen from a female patient who uses the bedpan, instruct the patient to dispose of the toilet tissue in
A. the specimen collection container.
B. a plastic bag.
C. the bedpan.
D. the wastebasket.

Back 513

Correct Answer: B

Front 514

146. When collecting specimens, always use
A. universal precautions.
B. sterile technique.
C. standard precautions.
D. body substance precautions.

Back 514

Correct Answer: C

Front 515

147. When preparing to collect a clean-catch urine specimen from a female patient, cleanse the vulva
A. only one time with each swab.
B. from back to front.
C. by pouring disinfectant solution.
D. rubbing each side back and forth.

Back 515

Correct Answer: A

Front 516

148. When collecting a 24-hour urine specimen,
A. ask the patient to urinate in a large bottle.
B. place the collection container in the freezer.
C. discard the first specimen of the day.
D. discard the last specimen of the 24-hour period.

Back 516

Correct Answer: C

Front 517

149. Specimens should be transported to the lab in
A. a plastic bag with a biohazard label.
B. a paper bag with a biohazard label.
C. the original specimen collection container.
D. a latex glove with a biohazard label.

Back 517

Correct Answer: A

Front 518

150. When the patient is in bed, the urinary drainage bag is
A. positioned upright on the floor.
B. attached to the frame of the bed.
C. attached to the foot of the bed.
D. attached to the bottom of the side rail.

Back 518

Correct Answer: B

Front 519

151. When the patient is in a wheelchair, the closed urinary drainage bag is attached to the
A. frame.
B. armrest.
C. brake.
D. wheel.

Back 519

Correct Answer: A

Front 520

152. When the patient is ambulating, the urinary catheter tubing and drainage bag are
A. suspended from an IV pole.
B. carried above the level of the bladder.
C. placed in a plastic bag for modesty.
D. carried below the level of the bladder.

Back 520

Correct Answer: D

Front 521

153. When the physician orders an hourly output measurement on a patient with a catheter,
A. clamp the catheter and release it hourly to measure the urine.
B. empty the bag into a graduate each hour to measure the urine.
C. use a catheter bag with a urimeter and empty it hourly.
D. measure the level in the drainage bag hourly.

Back 521

Correct Answer: C

Front 522

154. Most people excrete about
A. 15 to 25 mL of urine each hour.
B. 30 to 50 mL of urine each hour.
C. 50 to 80 mL of urine each hour.
D. 75 to 110 mL of urine each hour.

Back 522

Correct Answer: C

Front 523

155. The patient with an indwelling urinary catheter should consume
A. 500 to 800 mL of fluid each day.
B. 1000 to 1200 mL of fluid each day.
C. at least 1500 mL of fluid each day.
D. at least 3000 mL of fluid each day.

Back 523

Correct Answer: D

Front 524

156. Empty the urinary drainage bag
A. every 2 hours.
B. at the beginning of the shift.
C. only at the end of the shift.
D. whenever it is full.

Back 524

Correct Answer: D

Front 525

157. The patient with a catheter will complain of feeling the urge to urinate because
A. the pressure of urine in the bladder increases when a catheter is inserted.
B. a saline-filled balloon holds the catheter in place and presses on the sphincter.
C. the catheter stimulates the external meatus, creating the urge to void.
D. intra-abdominal pressure is increased when a catheter is in place.

Back 525

Correct Answer: B

Front 526

158. A Pap smear is a test used to diagnose cancer of the
A. ovaries.
B. uterus.
C. cervix.
D. urethra.

Back 526

Correct Answer: C

Front 527

159. Benign prostatic hypertrophy
A. is cancerous.
B. can cause urinary retention.
C. results from a tumor.
D. is asymptomatic.

Back 527

Correct Answer: B

Front 528

160. Signs and symptoms of disorders of the prostate gland include
A. hesitancy.
B. impotence.
C. pain.
D. fever.

Back 528

Correct Answer: A

Front 529

161. Testicular self-examination should be performed by all males
A. yearly.
B. in the shower.
C. by palpating the penis.
D. weekly.

Back 529

Correct Answer: B

Front 530

162. A rectocele
A. is a cyst between the bladder and vagina.
B. may cause diarrhea.
C. is a cyst between the uterus and the rectum.
D. may cause constipation and hemorrhoids.

Back 530

Correct Answer: D

Front 531

163. A cystocele
A. is a cyst between the vagina and the rectum.
B. causes urinary retention.
C. is a hernia between the bladder and vagina.
D. causes constipation.

Back 531

Correct Answer: C

Front 532

164. Symptoms of vulvovaginitis include
A. thick, white, cheesy discharge.
B. pain.
C. urinary retention.
D. blood and pus in urine.

Back 532

Correct Answer: A

Front 533

165. Postoperative care for a patient who has had a hysterectomy includes
A. monitoring catheter drainage.
B. changing sterile dressings.
C. checking for headache.
D. monitoring for numbness.

Back 533

Correct Answer: A

Front 534

166. Breast self-examination should be
A. performed at least annually.
B. done on the last day of the menstrual cycle.
C. performed only after a positive mammogram.
D. done weekly in the shower.

Back 534

Correct Answer: B

Front 535

167. A radical mastectomy includes removal of
A. the breast only.
B. breast and lymph nodes.
C. breast, muscles, and axillary glands.
D. both breasts, muscles, lymph nodes, and nipples.

Back 535

Correct Answer: C

Front 536

168. Sexually transmitted diseases
A. are always spread by unclean individuals.
B. are spread by sexual intercourse only.
C. can cause severe health problems if not treated.
D. can be readily eliminated with antibiotics.

Back 536

Correct Answer: C

Front 537

169. When performing breast self-examination, monitor for all of the following except
A. dimpling.
B. redness and swelling.
C. changes in the nipples.
D. change in temperature.

Back 537

Correct Answer: D

Front 538

170. Gonorrhea in the female
A. can cause sterility.
B. causes burning on urination.
C. is treated with silver nitrate.
D. is asymptomatic.

Back 538

Correct Answer: A

Front 539

171. Venereal warts are a sexually transmitted disease that
A. cause sterility.
B. predispose a female to cancer.
C. can be cured surgically.
D. cause cheesy discharge.

Back 539

Correct Answer: B

Front 540

172. The water temperature of a nonsterile vaginal douche should be
A. 90 degrees F.
B. 95 degrees F.
C. 105 degrees F.
D. 120 degrees F.

Back 540

Correct Answer: C

Front 541

173. When administering a nonsterile vaginal douche,
A. insert the nozzle 6 inches.
B. rotate the nozzle up and down.
C. rotate the nozzle from side to side.
D. always use medicated solutions.

Back 541

Correct Answer: C

Front 542

174. The opening of the urethra to the outside of the body is the
A. clitoris.
B. labia minora.
C. meatus.
D. vulva.

Back 542

Correct Answer: C

Front 543

175. Vulvovaginitis is caused by
A. Candida albicans.
B. Trichomonas vaginitis.
C. Treponema pallidum.
D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae.

Back 543

Correct Answer: A

Front 544

176. Signs and symptoms of vulvovaginitis include
A. abnormal bleeding.
B. intense itching.
C. nipple discharge.
D. painless lesions.

Back 544

Correct Answer: B

Front 545

177. A panhysterectomy involves removal of
A. uterus, both ovaries, and fallopian tubes.
B. uterus only.
C. uterus, fallopian tubes only.
D. ovaries only.

Back 545

Correct Answer: A

Front 546

178. When caring for a postoperative mastectomy patient, the nursing assistant should
A. take blood pressure on the operative side.
B. provide emotional support.
C. counsel about femininity.
D. discuss postoperative sexuality.

Back 546

Correct Answer: B

Front 547

179. Pelvic inflammatory disease
A. cannot be prevented.
B. is caused by a fungus.
C. can lead to sterility.
D. is treated with silver nitrate.

Back 547

Correct Answer: C

Front 548

180. Genital herpes
A. causes painless blisters.
B. may be transmitted even when blisters are not present.
C. is treated with antibiotics.
D. seldom recurs.

Back 548

Correct Answer: B

Front 549

181. Screening for prostate cancer is done by means of a
A. urinalysis.
B. CT scan.
C. PSA test.
D. MRI.

Back 549

Correct Answer: C

Front 550

182. Signs and symptoms of prostate cancer include all of the following except
A. pain.
B. urgency.
C. retention.
D. recurrent infection.

Back 550

Correct Answer: A

Front 551

183. When caring for a patient who has had prostate surgery, report all of the following to the nurse except
A. excess bleeding.
B. falling blood pressure and rapid pulse.
C. cold clammy skin, pallor, restlessness.
D. pink-tinged drainage.

Back 551

Correct Answer: D

Front 552

184. Herpes is caused by a
A. bacterium.
B. virus.
C. fungus.
D. parasite.

Back 552

Correct Answer: B

Front 553

185. Medications used to treat herpes infection
A. prevent replication, causing the infection to subside.
B. kill the live herpes viruses, but not dormant herpes in the body.
C. weaken the herpes viruses, reducing the adverse effects of the infection.
D. eliminate pain and reduce symptoms of infection only.

Back 553

Correct Answer: A

Front 554

1. The average person should consume this amount of liquid each day.
A. 800 mL
B. 1,500 mL
C. 2,500 mL
D. 4,000 mL

Back 554

Correct Answer: C