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295 Cards in this Set

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What is the etiology of hemophilia A?
x-linked recessive disorder → factor VIII deficiency/inactivity; only symptomatic in males
What are examples of hemoglobinopathies?
sickle cell anemia
hemoglobin S-C disese
sickle cell trait
hemoglobin C, D, E, H, I or combination
What is the etiology of hemophilia B?
x-linked recessive disorder → factor IX deficiency/inactivity; only symptomatic in males
What is the most common cause of anemia?
iron deficiency
Current p439
What is hemophilia A?
coagulation disorder characterized by factor VIII deficiency/inactivity
What are 2 broad categories of macrocytic anemia?
megaloblastic anemia
non-megaloblastic anemia
What is hemophilia B?
coagulation disorder characterized by factor IX deficiency/inactivity
What are 2 types of megaloblastic anemia?
B12 deficiency
folate deficiency
What is the diagnostic work-up of hemophilia A and B?
PT → normal
PTT → prolonged (corrects upon mixing with normal plasma)
bleeding time → normal
factor VIII → deficiency if hemophilia A
factor IX → deficiency if hemophilia B
What is the definition of megaloblastic anemias?
anemias characterized by large RBCs
What is the clinical presentation of hemophilia A and B?
male
bruising
soft-tissue bleeding
hemarthrosis
spontaneous bleeding involving mucous membranes, skin, joints, muscles, and viscera (if severe)
trauma/surgery-associated bleeding (if mild)
Mucosal changes like smooth tongue indicate what type of anemia?
megaloblastic
Current p439
What are the complications of hemophilia A and B?
recurrent hemarthorses → arthropathy and arthritis
large intramuscular hematomas → compartment syndrome
intercranial hemorrhage
death from severe bleeding (rare)
What is the most common cause of non-megaloblastic anemia?
alcoholism
What is the management of hemophilia A and B?
1. refer to hematologist
2. if mild → intranasal or IV DDAVP
2. if severe + child → factor transfusions 2-3 x week
3. if severe + adult → factor transfusions prior to high-risk activities or during bleeding episodes
4. antifibrinolytics for mucosal bleeding
5. celecoxib for arthritis
Current p491
What is hemodialysis?
removal of fluid and waste (creatinine, urea) from blood in patients with chronic kidney disease or renal failure
Which is more common, hemophilia A or B?
hemophilia A
What is the ddx for vitamin B12 deficiency?
folate deficiency → indicated by normal B12 and ↓ folate
Current p445-446
What is the function of von Willebrand factor?
1. forms complex with factor VIII to activate factor X
2. mediates platelet adhesion to extracellular matrix during clot formation
What are the complications of vitamin B12 deficiency?
neurologic symptoms become permanent if not treated within 6 months of onset
Current
What is the diagnostic work-up of von Willebrand disease?
PT → normal
PTT → prolonged
bleeding time → prolonged
von willebrand factor → deficiency (though type 2N resembles hemophilia A)
What is the management for vitamin B12 deficiency?
prescribe vitamin B12 → 100mcg IM daily first week, weekly first month, monthly for life; 1000mcg PO 1x per day for life
Current
What is the etiology of von Willebrand disease?
autosomal dominant disorder → von Willebrand factor deficiency
What is the patient education for vitamin B12 deficiency?
vitamin B12 present in dairy, eggs, fish, poulty, and meat; vitamin B12 supplementation is required for life
Current
What is von Willebrand disease?
coagulation disorder characterized by von Willebrand factor deficiency
What is the etiology of folate deficiency anemia?
1. inadequate dietary intake (poor nutrition, overcooked food, alcoholics, anorexics)
2. increased dietary requirement (pregnancy, exfoliative skin disease, chronic hemolytic anemia)
3. inadequate absorption (tropical sprue, drug interaction)
4. loss (hemodialysis)
5. folate antagonist (methotrexate)
Current
What is the clinical presentation of von Willebrand disease?
easy bruising and epistaxis from early childhood
menorrhagia
prolonged bleeding following trauma/surgery
What is the patient education for folate deficiency anemia?
folate present in most fruits and vegetables (especially citrus fruits and green leafy vegetables)
Current
What is the management of von Willebrand disease?
1. if mild → desmopressin acetate
2. if severe → vWF-containing factor VIII transfusions
3. antifibrinolytics for mucosal bleeding
4. estrogen-containing contraceptives for menorrhagia
5. avoid aspirin and NSAIDs
What is aplastic anemia?
failure of bone marrow to produce RBCs, WBCs, or platelets
What is the etiology of aplastic anemia?
either direct stem cell injury or autoimmune disease mediated by T-cells or IgG Ab against stem cells; usually autoimmune
If the results of an automated DIFF are abnormal, how are they verified?
via manual DIFF
Interpreting Laboratory Data p340
What is the ddx for aplastic anemia?
idiopathic → probably autoimmune
congenital → rare
pregnancy
posthepatitis
paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
SLE
toxins → benzene, toluene, insecticides
medications → phenytoin, carbamazepine, sulfonamides, chloramphenicol, pehnylbutazone, gold salts, quinacrine, tolbutamide
chemotherapy
radiation
Current p454
What is the ddx for aplastic anemia?
idiopathic → probably autoimmune
congenital → rare
pregnancy
posthepatitis
paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
SLE
toxins → benzene, toluene, insecticides
medications → phenytoin, carbamazepine, sulfonamides, chloramphenicol, pehnylbutazone, gold salts, quinacrine, tolbutamide
chemotherapy
radiation
Current p454
What is the clinical presentation of aplastic anemia?
anemia → fatigue, weakness, pallor
neutropenia → bacterial infection
thrombocytopenia → skin and mucosal bleeding, petechiae, purpura

*hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy, and bone tenderness should NOT be present
Current p454
What is the diagnostic work-up of aplastic anemia?
CBC → pancytopenia
RETIC → low
blood smear → normal morphology
bone marrow biopsy → hypocellular, normal morphology
Current p454
What are 3 broad etiologies of anemia?
1. blood loss
2. increased destruction of RBCs
3. impaired production of RBCs
hematology lecture
What is the management of aplastic anemia?
1. if mild, supportive care as necessary → RBC and platelet transfusions, antibiotics
2. if severe + <50y/o → bone marrow transplant from HLA-matched sibling donor
3. if severe + >50y/o or no HLA-matched sibling donor → ATG + cyclosporine
Current p455
Increased RETIC is indicative of?
blood loss
destruction of RBCs - hemolytic anemia
EPO treatment
Antrim
What is the prognosis for aplastic anemia?
1. if severe and untreated → 3 months to live
2. if bone marrow transplant → 80% success rate
3. if ATG → 60% success rate; improvement within 4-12 weeks; usually only partial response
Current p455
Decreased RETIC is indicative of?
impaired production of RBCs
-nutritional deficiency - iron, B12, folate
-marrow empty - aplastic anemia, pure red cell aplasia
-marrow asleep - EPO deficiency - anemia of chronic disease, renal failure
-marrow broken - myelodysplasia
-marrow full of something else - infection, cancer
hematology lecture
What bone tumor presents at the diaphysis?
Ewing's sarcoma
Orthopedics p448
List the ddx for macrocytic anemia?
MEGALOBLASTIC:
B12 deficiency
folate deficiency

NON-MEGALOBLASTIC:
liver disease
kidney disease
reticulocytosis
myelodysplasia
anti-retrovirals
Sickle cell anemia imparts resistance to what disease?
malaria
List the indications for prescribing EPO?
anemia due to chronic kidney disease
myelodysplasia
SICKLE CELL ANEMIA:
ETIOLOGY:
homozygous genetic disorder characterized by hemoglobin S (instead of hemoglobin A)
common in African, Mediterranean, Middle Eastern, Indian, or Caribbean

CLINICAL PRESENTATION:
fatigue, pallor, jaundice
dactylitis, recurrent abdominal or musculoskeletal pain
gallstones, splenomegaly in early childhood with later disappearance

DIAGNOSTIC WORKUP:
NBS
CBC → normocytic or macrocytic anemia
peripheral blood smear → sickle cells, target cells (hemolytic anemia)
↑ RETIC
hemoglobin electrophoresis

MANAGEMENT:
education program
prophylactic penicillin started at 2m/o and continued until at least 5y/o
immunizations
if illness with fever >38.5°C → BC, IV broad-spectrum antibiotics, observation
if vaso-occlusive episode → maintain adequate analgesia, hydration, and oxygen saturation; correct acidosis; treat infections
if acute severe exacerbation of anemia (splenic sequestration, aplastic crisis), acute severe vaso-occlusive episode (acute severe chest syndrome, stroke, organ failure), high-risk procedures, surgery → packed RBCs
*acute chest syndrome = fever, pleuritic chest pain, pulmonary infiltrates with hypoxemia caused by pulmonary infection, infarction, or fat embolism from ischemic bone marrow
hydroxyurea

PROGNOSIS:
early identification and prophylactic penicillin allow children to live into adulthood but end-organ damage d/t vaso-occlusion invariably occurs
What is the etiology of B12 deficiency?
malabsorption
-lack of stomach acid
-lack of intrinsic factor
-lack of pancreatic enzymes
-lack of bowel
-something else eating B12
dietary deficiency rare
anemia lecture
bone destruction + sunburst pattern → osteosarcoma (of proximal fibula)
What is immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)?
autoimmune disorder characterized by low platelet count
Current p482
What methylmalonic acid and homocysteine results are seen in B12 deficiency?
both are increased
anemia lecture
What is the etiology of ITP?
autoimmune disease → antibodies bind platelets → accelerated platelet clearance; usually primary and idiopathic

often follows infection with viruses, such as rubella, varicella, measles, parvovirus, influenza, or EBV
usually occurs in children 2-5y/o
Current p482
What methylmelonic acid and homocysteine results are seen in folate deficiency?
homocysteine increased
(no link between methylmelonic acid and folate deficiency)
anemia lecture
Ewing's sarcoma (of femur)
Ewing's sarcoma (of femur)
What is hemolytic anemia?
anemia caused by destruction of RBCs
What is intrinsic hemolytic anemia?
anemia due to defect inside RBCs that results in hemolysis; defects include abnormal hemoglobin, abnormal RBC cell wall, abnormal RBC metabolism
What is extrinsic hemolytic anemia?
anemia due to factors outside RBCs that result in hemolysis; factors include autoimmune diseases, drugs
What are examples of intrinsic and extrinsic hemolytic anemia?
Intrinsic:
sickle cell anemia
hemoglobin S-C disease
sickle cell trait
hereditary spherocytosis
G6DP deficiency

Extrinsic:
autoimmune hemolytic anemia
cold agglutinin disease
What is anemia of chronic disease?
microcytic hypochromic or normocytic normochromic anemia associated with chronic disease
Pathology p78
What is the etiology of anemia of chronic disease?
associated with chronic infection, chronic inflammation, liver disease, kidney disease, cancer, inadequate dietary intake due to illness, hemodialysis
Pathology p78
What is the diagnostic work-up of anemia of chronic disease?
CBC → low RBC, hct, hgb; normal or low MCV
FERR → normal or high
IRON → possibly low
TIBC → low
Pathology p78
Define -cytosis.
increased
Stedmans
Define -cytopenia.
decreased
Stedmans
Define leukocytosis.
abnormally high WBC count
Stedmans
Define leukocytopenia (AKA leukopenia).
abnormally low WBC count
Stedmans
Define erythrocytosis (AKA polycythemia).
abnormally high RBC count
Stedmans
Define erythrocytopenia (AKA erythropenia, hypocythemia, anemia).
abnormally low RBC count
Stedmans
Define thrombocytosis.
abnormally high platelet count
Stedmans
Define thrombocytopenia (AKA thrombopenia).
abnormally low platelet count
Stedmans
Define pancytopenia.
abnormally low WBCs, RBCs, and platelets
Stedmans
Define anisocytosis.
abnormal variation in size of cells that are normally uniform in size

*usually refers to RBCs where abnormal variation in size of RBCs is indicated by abnormally high RDW in CBC
Define poikilocytosis.
abnormally shaped RBCs
Define reticulocytosis.
abnormally high retic count
Define hemoglobinopathy.
disorder associated with abnormal hemoglobin
Stedmans
Define hemolysis.
alteration or destruction of RBCs causing hemoglobin to be released into medium in which cells are suspended; may be caused by abnormal RBC structure, antibodies, temperature, trauma, tonicity, chemicals, toxins
Stedmans
List symptoms of anemia.
fatigue
weakness
dizziness
syncope
hypotension
tachycardia
skin pallor
jaundice → hemolytic anemia
cold skin
conjunctival pallor
hair loss
brittle nails
conjunctival icterus → hemolytic anemia
cheilits
glossitis
dyspnea
palpitations
chest pain
splenomegaly → hemolytic anemia

lymphadenopathy
hepatosplenomegaly
bone tenderness
What are 3 broad categories of anemia?
microcytic
macrocytic
normocytic
List ddx of microcytic anemia.
iron deficiency
lead poisoning
anemia of chronic disease
thalassemia
sideroblastic anemia
hemoglobinopathies
Current p439
hematology lecture
What is the diagnostic work-up for iron deficiency anemia?
CBC → low RBC, hct, hgb, MCV
FERR → low
IRON → low
TIBC → high (empty binding sites on transferrin due to lack of iron to transport)
What is the most important lab test to order for suspected iron deficiency anemia?
FERR
What FERR level rules out iron deficiency?
>100 ng/dL
anemia lecture
What is the management for iron deficiency anemia?
1. prescribe ferrous sulfate 325mg PO 3x per day for 3-6 months
2. monitor CBC, FERR, IRON, TIBC
After treating iron deficiency with ferrous sulfate, how long before RETIC increases, Hct increases, and RBC count normalizes?
RETIC increases in 7-10 days; Hct increases in 2-3 weeks; RBC count normalizes in 2 months
hematology lecture
List possible causes for non-response to ferrous sulfate for iron deficiency anemia and how to rectify them.
non-compliance → prescribe lower dose or take iron with food
blood loss → determine cause
defective absorption → prescribe concomitant ascorbic acid 250mg PO daily
concurrent B12 or folate deficiency
wrong diagnosis
anemia lecture
What is hematopoiesis?
synthesis of formed elements (WBCs, RBCs, and platelets)
Describe the development of cell lines in hematopoiesis.
What is the lifespan of mature RBCs?
120 days
Interpreting Laboratory Data p342
How are RBCs removed from circulation?
by macrophages from spleen
Interpreting Laboratory Data p342
What are reticulocytes?
immature nucleated RBCs
Where are erythropoietin and thrombopoietin synthesized?
liver and kidneys
What is haptoglobin?
plasma protein that binds and clears hemoglobin released into plasma
Current p447
Where does hematopoiesis occur in adults?
red bone marrow of skull, ribs, vertebrae, pelvis, humerus, and femur
Pathology p72
Where does hematopoiesis occur in children?
bone marrow of long bones (femur, tibia)
What is erythropoietin (EPO)?
hormone that stimulates myeloid progenitor cells to differentiate into erythrocytes
What is thrombopoietin (TPO)?
hormone that stimulates myeloid progenitor cells to differentiate into platelets
What is extramedullary hematopoiesis?
if normal hematopoiesis compromised, blood cells can be produced by liver, spleen, and lymph nodes
Pathology p72
What is koilonychia?
spoon-shaped nails caused by lack of adequate tissue oxygenation
Pathology p72
What are spherocytes and their associated causes?
RBCs that are sphere-shaped, hyperchromic, no central pallor; associated with hereditary spherocytosis, immune hemolytic anemia
Pathology p72
What are schistocytes (helmet cells) and their associated causes?
RBC fragments; associated with microangiopathic hemolytic anemias
Pathology p72
What are target cells and their associated causes?
RBCs with rim of pallor around normochromic core; associated with thalaseemia, liver disease, hemoglobin C disease
Pathology p72
What hematocrit level indicates anemia?
<41% for men
<37% for women
Current p439
What hemoglobin level indicates anemia?
<13.5 g/dL for men
<12.0 g/dL for women
Current p439
What are the components of a CBC?
WBC count
RBC count
hct
hgb
MCV
MCH
MCHC
RDW
platelet count + MPV
Interpreting Laboratory Data p340
What is the RBC count?
number of RBCs in a given volume of blood
Interpreting Laboratory Data p340
What is the normal adult range for RBCs?
males 4.5-5.9 x10^6 cells/microliter
females 4.1-5.1 x 10^6 cells/microliter
Interpreting Laboratory Data p340
What are 2 reasons women have lower RBC counts than men?
1. menstrual blood loss
2. lower concentrations of androgen (erythropoietic stimulant) than men
Interpreting Laboratory Data p340
What CBC results indicate microcytic anemia?
↓ RBC count + ↓MCV
What CBC results indicate macrocytic anemia?
↓ RBC count + ↑ MCV
What CBC results indicate normocytic anemia?
↓ RBC count + normal MCV
MCV values are higher in newborns/infants than adults, true or false?
true
hematology lecture
What is hypochromic?
abnormally low MCH/MCHC where RBCs appear lighter than normal
What is hematocrit?
% of RBCs in given volume of blood
What are the normals for MCV?
80-100 mm³
MCV <80 mm³ indictes?
microcytic anemia
MCV >100 mm³ indicates?
macrocytic anemia
What is hyperchromic?
abnormally high MCH/MCHC where RBCs appear darker than normal
How is iron stored?
as ferritin or hemosiderin
What is iron deficiency anemia?
microcytic hypochromic anemia characterized by low iron
Where does iron absorption occur?
stomach, duodenum, upper jejunum
What is transferrin?
plasma protein that transports iron
What does TIBC stand for?
total iron binding capacity
What is the clinical presentation of iron deficiency anemia?
fatigue, pallor, tachycardia, tachypnea on exertion, palpitations; if severe, hair loss, cheilitis, glossitis, spooned nails
What is the etiology of iron deficiency anemia?
1. nutritional deficiency → inadequate intake (poor, alcoholics), increased requirements (pregnancy)
2. malabsorption
3. iron sequestration
4. hemolysis
5. blood loss
What is the physical exam for supsected anemia?
1. heart rate for tachycardia
2. respirations for tachypnea
3. skin exam for hair loss, pallor, brittle nails
4. eye exam for conjunctival pallor
5. oral exam for cheilitis, glossitis
6. cardiac exam for palpitations
7. rectal exam for blood loss
What is the management of anemia of chronic disease?
1. usually treatment unecessary
2. if transfusion-dependent or quality of life improved by response → prescribe EPO

*EPO expensive
What is vitamin B12 deficiency anemia?
macrocytic megaloblastic anemia characterized by low vitamin B12
What is the etiology of vitamin B12 deficiency?
1. inadequate dietary intake
2. malabsorption → blind loop syndrome, tapeworm, Crohn's disease, surgery

rare; common in vegans
What is the clinical presentation of vitamin B12 deficiency anemia?
onset >3 years after absorption ceases due to large liver stores; fatigue, tachycardia, tachypnea on exertion, pallor, glossitis, anorexia, diarrhea, paresthesias, impaired balance
What does AML stand for?
acute myeloid leukemia
Anemia + schistocytes indicates?
microangiopathic hemolytic anemia
What are examples of microangiopathic hemolytic anemia?
hemolytic uremic syndrome
DIC
thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
aortic stenosis
malfunctioning cardiac valve prosthesis
What is the pathophysiology of schistocyte formation?
damage to blood vessel endothelium → fibrin deposition and platelet aggregation → RBCs fragmented as travel through obstructed blood vessel → intravascular hemolysis
What is microangiopathic hemolytic anemia?
group of intravascular hemolytic anemias characterized by schistocytes
What does ATG stand for and what is it used for?
antithymocyte globulin; immunosuppresive therapy
Current p447
What is the ddx for pancytopenia?
marrow disorders:
megaloblastic anemia
aplastic anemia
myelodysplasia
acute leukemia
myelofibrosis
myeloma
lymphoma
hairy cell leukemia → splenomegaly, bone marrow biopsy reveals abnormal lymphoid cells
carcinoma

non-bone marrow disorders:
hypersplenism
TB
AIDS
leishmaniasis
brucellosis
SLE
Current p455
What is polycythemia vera?
acquired myeloproliferative disease characterized by increased RBC count
What is the diagnostic work-up of polycythemia vera?
WBC → normal or increased
RBC → increased
platelet count → normal or increased
blood smear → no abnormal cells seen
JAK2 → mutation present
What is the management for polycythemia vera?
1. phlebotomy → 500mL (1 unit) removed weekly until hct <45%
2. phlebotomy as necessary to maintain hct <45%
How long are autologous packed RBCs stored?
35 days
Current p477
What is pure red cell aplasia?
autoimmune disease characterized by failure of bone marrow to produce RBCs
What is the etiology of pure red cell aplasia?
autoimmune disease mediated by T-cells or rarely IgG Ab against erythocyte precursor cells; usually idiopathic
Current p447
What is the ddx for pure red cell aplasia?
usually idiopathic
SLE
CLL
lymphoma
thymoma
phenytoin
chloramphenicol
if transient → viral infection → parvovirus
Current p447
What is the clinical presentation of pure red cell aplasia?
anemia → fatigue, weakness, pallor
Current p447
What is the diagnostic work-up of pure red cell aplasia?
CBC → severe normochromic anemia
RETIC → low or absent
blood smear → RBC morphology normal
bone marrow biopsy → normocellular, erythrocyte precursors low or absent
Current p447
What is the management of pure red cell aplasia?
1. refer to hematologist
2. immunosuppressive therapy → ATG + cyclosporine
3. resection if thymoma
4. stop medications if drug-related
Cureent p447
How do you distinguish pure red cell aplasia, aplastic anemia, and myelodysplasia?
pure red cell aplasia → anemia, normal morphology, normocelluar bone marrow
aplastic anemia → pancytopenia, normal morphology, hypocellular bone marrow
myelodysplasia → abnormal morphology
Current p447
What is polycythemia vera?
acquired bone marrow (myeloproliferative) disorder characterized by abnormally high hct
Current p457
What is the etiology of polycythemia vera?
acquired overproduction of RBCs (independent of EPO) due to JAK2 mutation; rare if <40y/o
Current p457
What is the ddx for polycythemia?
spurious polycythemia → low plasma volume

primary polycythemia:
polycythemia vera

secondary polycythemia:
hypoxia → cardiac, pulmonary, high altitude
carboxyhemoglobin → smoking
kidney lesions
EPO-secreting tumor → rare
abnormal hgb → rare
Current p458
What is the clinical presentation of polycythemia vera?
increased blood volume and viscosity → fatigue, HA, dizziness, blurred vision, tinnitus
increased basophils → generalized pruritus (especially following warm shower)
engorgement of mucosal blood vessels → epistaxis
engorged retinal veins
splenomegaly
Current p457
What is the diagnostic work-up of polycythemia vera?
CBC → high hct, WBC count, and platelet count (but hct count especially)
blood smear → normal morphology
B12 → high
EPO → low
JAK2 → mutation present
blood gas → normal O2
Current p457
What is management of polycythemia vera?
1. phlebotomy → 500mL (1 unit) removed weekly until hct <45% then as necessary for maintenance of hct <45%
2. aspirin for reduced risk of thrombosis → 75-81mg daily
3. antihistamine for pruritus→ diphenhydramine
4. low iron diet
5. if phlebotomy problematic → hydroxyurea
6. if excessive phlebotomy, thrombocytosis, or pruritus → myelosuppressive therapy
Current p458
What are the complications of polycythemia vera?
1. thrombosis → major cause of morbidity and death
2. bleeding → may lower hct creating diagnostic confusion; may cause iron deficiency anemia
3. peptic ulcer disease
Current p457
Define plethora.
an excess of blood in circulatory system
Define hypersplenism.
disorder characterized by premature and rapid destruction of RBCs by spleen
What is the ddx for JAK2 mutation?
polycythemia vera
myelofibrosis
essential thrombocytosis
Current p458
What is essential thrombocytosis?
idiopathic myeloproliferative disorder characterized by abnormally high platelet count
Current p459
What is the etiology of essential thrombocytosis?
proliferation of mekakaryocytes in bone marrow causing high platelet count; idiopathic but JAK2 mutation usually present
Current p459
What is the clinical presentation of essential thrombocytosis?
high platelet count
thrombosis
erythromelalgia → erythema + painful burning of hands
splenomegaly → 25% of patients
mucosal bleeding → if concomitant platelet defect
Current p459
What is the diagnostic work-up of essential thrombocytosis?
CBC → high platelet count, mildly elevated WBC count
blood smear → large platelets (but not giant degranulated forms)
bone marrow biopsy → increased megakaryocytes
philadelphia chromosome → absent (present in CML)
Current p459
What is the management of essential thrombocytosis?
1. refer to hematologist
2. hydroxyurea to reduce platelet count to <500,000/mcL → 0.5-2g/d
3. add anagrelide if anemia due to hydroxyurea → 1-2mg/d
4. aspirin for erythromelalgia and to reduce risk of thrombosis → 81mg/d
5. if severe bleeding → plateletpheresis to rapidly lower platelet count
Current p459
What are the complications of essential thrombocytosis?
thrombosis
late in course of disease → massive splenomegaly, splenic infarction, fibrotic bone marrow
myelofibrosis → 10-15% risk after 15 years
acute leukemia → 1-5% risk over 20 years
Current p459
What is the ddx for thrombocytosis?
essential thrombocytosis → platelet count often >200,000/mcL
reactive thrombocytosis → platelet count rarely >100,000/mcL
chronic infection
inflammatory disorders → RA, ulcerative colitis
splenectomy → temporary
polycythemia vera
myelofibrosis
CML
Current p459
How do you distinguish essential thrombosis, myelofibrosis, and CML?
essential thrombosis → normal RBC morphology, large platelets (but giant degranulated platelets absent), philadelphia chromosome absent
myelofibrosis → abnormal RBC morphology, giant degranulated platelets
CML → philadelphia chromosome present
Current p459
What is myelofibrosis?
myeloproliferative disorder characterized by bone marrow fibrosis
Current p460
What is the etiology of myelofibrosis?
increased secretion of platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF) and other cytokines; JAK2 mutation may be present
Current p460
What is the clinical presentation of myelofibrosis?
insidious onset
anemia → fatigue
massive splenomegaly
Current p460
What is the diagnostic work-up of myelofibrosis?
1. CBC → anemia, variable WBC and platelet counts
2. blood smear → teardrop poikilocytosis, leukoerythroblasts, giant degranulated platelets
3. bone marrow aspiration usually results in dry tap but if performed → hypocelluar, increased megakarytocytes
4. silver stain or bone marrow biospy → fibrosis
Current p460
What is the management of myelofibrosis?
1. refer to hematologist
2. if mild → no treatment
3. if anemia → blood transfusion or EPO
3. if young → bone marrow transplant
4. thalidomide or lenalidomide
Current p460
What are the complications of myelofibrosis?
thrombocytopenia → bleeding
splenomegaly → early satiety, splenic infarction
bone pain (especially upper legs)
hematopoiesis in liver → portal HTN, ascites, esophageal varices
Current p460
What is the ddx for bone marrow fibrosis?
myelofibrosis
metastatic carcinoma
Hodgkin disease
hairy cell leukemia
Current p460
What is the prognosis for myelofibrosis?
5 year survival rate
Current p461
What triad usually indicates myelofibrosis?
teardrop poikilocytosis
leukoerythroblasts
giant degranulated platelets
Current p461
What does CML stand for?
chronic myeloid leukemia
What is CML?
myeloproliferative disorder characterized by overproduction of myeloid cells with normal bone marrow function in early phase
Current p461
What is the etiology of CML?
philadelphia chromosome; presents during middle age
Current p461
What is the clinical presentation of CML?
fatigue, low fever, night sweats
splenomegaly
sternal tenderness due to marrow overexpansion
Current p461
What is the diagnostic work-up of CML?
CBC → high WBC count
blood smear → shift to the left, dominated by mature forms
bone marrow biopsy → hypercelluar, shift to the left
PCR for philadelphia chromosome → bcr/abl gene present
Current p461
What is the management of CML?
1. refer to hematologist

If normal bone marrow function:
2. imatinib mesylate 400mg PO daily
3. if refractory to oral agents → bone marrow transplant

If accelerated CML:
4. imatinib 600mg PO daily initially
5. bone marrow transplant

7. if leukostasis → emergent leukophoresis + myelosuppressive therapy
Current p462
What are the complication sof CML?
1. leukostasis
2. progression to acute leukemia
Current p462
What is the prognosis of CML?
80% survival rate at 7 years
Current p462
List myeloproliferative disorders.
polycythemia vera
essential thrombocytosis
myelofibrosis
CML
What is leukostasis.
abnormal intravascular leukocyte aggregation and clumping; complication of leukemia
What is the clinical presentation of leukostasis?
blurred vision, respiratory distress, priapism
Current p462
Recurrent bleeding in children at multiple sites may indicate?
heritable hemostasis disorder
Current p481
What are examples of coagulopathies?
hemophilia A
hemophilia B
Von Willebrand disease
vitamin K deficiency
liver disease
Dengue Fever
leukemia
DIC
What is the function of von Willebrand factor?
1. forms complex with factor VIII to activate factor X
2. mediates platelet adhesion to extracellular matrix during clot formation
What is the clinical presentation of a platelet disorder?
bleeding localized to skin and mucous membranes → petechiae, purpura, ecchymosis, epistaxis, gingival bleeding
small superficial nonpalpable ecchymosis
bleeding after minor wounds
immediate post-surgical bleeding
hemostasis lecture
What symptoms/signs characterize coagulation disorders?
bleeding localized to joints and muscles
no petechiae
large palpable ecchymosis
bleeding after minor wounds rare
delayed post-surgical bleeding
hemostasis lecture
Does PT measure intrinsic or extrinsic coagulation pathway?
extrinsic
hemostasis lecture
Does PTT measure intrinsic or extrinsic coagulation pathway?
intrinsic
hemostasis lecture
Prolonged PTT indicates a possible deficiency in what factors?
XII, XI, IX, VIII, von willebrand, X, V, II, I
hemostasis lecture
Prolonged PT indicates a possible deficiency in what factors?
VII, X, V, II, I
hemostasis lecture
What is the most common cause of elevated PTT?
von Willebrand disease
hemostasis lecture
Define coagulopathy.
disorder associated with abnormal coagulation
Stedmans
Bleeding time is a measure of?
platelet function
What is the diagnostic work-up of hemophila B?
PT → normal
PTT → prolonged
bleeding time → normal
factor IX → deficiency
What is the most common hereditary bleeding disorder?
von Willebrand disease
What are the steps of the extrinsic pathway?
1. tissue injury → release of tissue factor (factor III)
2. tissue factor activates factor VII
3. factor VIIa activates factor X
What are the steps of the intrinsic pathway?
1. exposed collagen following tissue injury activates factor XII
2. factor XIIa activates factor XI
3. factor XIa activates factor IX
4. factor IXa + factor VIIIa activate factor X
What are the steps of the common coagulation pathway?
1. Xa + Va catalyzes prothrombin (factor II) → thrombin
2. thrombin catalyzes fibrinogen (factor I) → fibrin
3. fibrin → clot
What is the function of antithrombin?
inactivates thrombin
How does heparin act as an anticoagulant?
1. heparin activates antithrombin
2. antithrombin inactivates thrombin
What clotting factors and anticoagulation proteins are vitamin K dependent?
clotting factors → VII, IX, X, II
anticoagulation proteins → protein S, protein C
How does warfarin act as an anticoagulant?
1. vitamin K epoxide reductase necessary to convert glu to gla (part of clotting factor)
2. gla necessary for clotting factors to stably bind to blood vessel endothelium
3. stable binding necessary to activate clotting
4. warfarin inhibits vitamin K epoxide reductase → lower concentration of viable clotting factors
What are clotting factors?
plasma proteins involved in the clotting cascade
What are the functions of thrombin?
1. catalyzes fibrinogen → fibrin
2. activates factor VIII and factor V
3. stimulates platelet aggregation
4. activates protein C
What is the function of protein C?
1. activated by thrombin + thrombomodulin
2. inactivates factor VIII and factor V
3. increases fibrinolysis
What is the function of protein S?
acts as cofactor to protein C; increases rate at which protein C inactivates factor Va
What is the evaluation of a bleeding disorder?
1. onset
childhood → heritable disorder
adult → mild heritable disorder or acquired
2. location
mucocutenous → platelet disorder
joints and muscles → clotting factor disorder
3. clinical context → pregnancy, underlying medical conditions, sepsis, medications, postsurgery
4. personal history → prior spotaneous bleeding, excessive bleeding with trauma, dental, menses, surgery
5. family history
Current p481
What is the ddx for thrombocytopenia (<150,000/mcL)?
Decreased synthesis of platelets:
nutritional deficiency → iron , B12, folate, alcohol
congenital bone marrow failure
acquired bone marrow failure → aplastic anemia, myelodysplasia
infiltrated bone marrow → infection, leukemia, metastatic carcinoma
chemotherapy
radiation

Increased destruction of platelets:
immune thrombocytopenic purpura
thrombotic thromboctypenic purpura
hemolytic uremic syndrome
DIC

Increased sequestration of platelets:
hypersplenism
What is the etiology of ITP?
autoimmune disease → antibodies bind platelets → accelerated platelet clearance; usually primary and idiopathic
Current p482
What is the clinical presentation of ITP?
mucocutaneous bleeding
petechiae, ecchymosis
Current p482
What is the diagnostic work-up of ITP?
CBC → anemia if bleeding, thrombocytopenia
PT → normal
PTT → normal
bleeding time → prolonged
HepC
HIV
Current p482
What is the management of ITP?
1. refer to specialist
2. d/c offending medications
3. if >60y/o, unexplained cytopenia, or non-response to treatment → bone marrow biopsy → normocellular, normal megakaryocyte morphology
4. if mild → observe
5. if platelet count <20,000/mcL or significant bleeding → corticosteroids + IV immunoglobulin
6. if hemorrhage → platelet transfusion
Current p483
What are the complicatons of ITP?
intercranial hemorrhage
Pathology p83
What is the prognosis of ITP?
relapse common
Current p483
What is the ddx for ITP?
primary:
idiopathic

secondary:
hepatitis C
HIV
lupus
lymphoma
medications
Current p482
What does ITP stand for?
immune thrombocytopenic purpura
What does TTP stand for?
thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
What is thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)?
disorder characterized by thrombi in vasculature, thrombocytosis, microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, and neurological symptoms
Current p485
What is the etiology of TTP?
inherited or acquired enzyme deficiency in von Willebrand cleaving protease → formation of thrombi → adherence of platelets to thrombi → causing thrombocytopenia + microangiopathic hemolytic anemia
Current p485
What is the clinical presentation of TTP?
mucocutaneous bleeding → purpura
fever
neurological symptoms → HA, drowsiness, delirium, seizures, paresis, coma (due to thrombi in cerebral vasculature)
renal failure
Current p485
What is the diagnostic work-up fo TTP?
CBC → anemia, thrombocytopenia
RETIC → high
blood smear → schistocytes
indirect BILI → high
LD → high
CREAT → high
PT → normal
PTT → normal
bleeding time → prolonged
vWFCP → deficiency
Current p485
What is the managment of TTP?
1. hospitilize and refer to specialist
2. immediant plasma exchange → daily until normal platelet count and LD for 2 days then taper
3. if refractory → plasma exchange twice daily
4. if immediate plasma exchange unavailable → FFP transfusion
5. if anemia → RBC transfusion
6. if renal failure → hemodialysis
7. if life-threatening bleeding → platelet transfusion (otherwise contraindicated)
Current p485
What are the complications of TTP?
1. thrombi in brain → neurological problems, coma
2. if untreated → organ failure → death
Current p485
What is the prognosis of TTP?
95% mortality rate if untreated
Current p485
What is the ddx for TTP?
genetic → enzyme deficiency of protease that degrades vWF
acquired → antibody prevents protease from degrading vWF
HIV
cancer
medications
bone marrow transplant
Current p485
What is the pentad of thrombotic microangiopathy (TTP or HUS)?
1. thrombocytopenia → both
2. microangiopathic hemolytic anemia → both
3. fever → usually TTP
4. neurological symptoms → usually TTP
5. renal failure → usually HUS
Current p485
Define somnolence.
drowsiness
What labs indicate microangiopathic hemolytic anemia?
CBC → anemia
blood smear → schistocytes
RETIC → high
indirect BILI → high
LD → high
DC → negative
What is direct coombs used for?
to determine if hemolytic anemia due to antibodies attached to RBCs
Define oliguria.
low urine output
How do you differentiate TTP and HUS?
Both:
thrombocytopenia
microangiopathic hemolytic anemia

TTP:
usually affects adults
idiopathic
fever
neurological symptoms

HUS:
usually affects children
often caused by E. coli
renal failure
stool culture positive for E. coli
Current p485
What is the difference between plasmapheresis and plasma exchange?
plasmapheresis → involved removal of blood, filtration of plasma, and return of patient's plasma

plasma exchange → removal of blood, filtration of plasma, and return of donor plasma
What is the prognosis of HUS?
33% require dialysis
9% develop end stage renal disease
5-15% mortality rate
What does HUS stand for?
hemolytic uremic syndrome
What is heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)?
disorder characterized by heparin administration followed by thrombosis and thrombocytopenia
Current p486
What is the etiology of HIT?
administration of heparin → previous formation of IgG Ab to heparin-platelet factor 4 complexes (i.e. exposed to heparin within last 100 days) → antibodies bind and activate platelets → thrombocytopenia + pro-thrombotic state
Current p486
What is the clinical presentation of HIT?
onset 5-10 days following heparin therapy
thrombosis
bleeding uncommon
Current p486
What is the diagnostic work-up of HIT?
CBC → thrombocytopenia (>50% decline)
PF4-heparin ELISA → positive
Current p486
What is the management of HIT?
1. hospitalize
2. d/c heparin
3. administer direct thrombin inhibitor → argatroban or lepirudin until platelets >100,000/mcL
4. ultrasound for thrombosis
5. warfarin after successful rise in platelets with INR goal of 2.0-3.0
6. if no thrombosis → warfarin x 30 days
7. if thrombosis → warfarin x 3 months
8. avoid heparin unless antibodies eradicated
Current p486
What are the complications of HIT?
thrombosis
Current p486
What drugs can cause drug-induced platelet defects?
alcohol
omega-3 fatty acids
salicylates → aspirin
NSAIDs → ibuprofen
antibiotics → high dose penicillin, nafcillin, ticarcillin, cephalothin, moxalactam
SSRIs
dipyridamole
thienopryidines
glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitors
Current p490
What is the management of drug-induced platelet defects?
1. d/c offending drugs
2. if significant bleeding → platelet transfusion
Current p490
Define hemarthrosis.
bleeding in joints
Define arthropathy.
disease of the joint
What is the clinical presentation of von Willebrand disease?
if type 1 → mild to moderate platelet-type bleeding → mucocutaneous bleeding
if type 2 → moderate to severe bleeding
List drugs that alter coagulation.
coagulants:
vitamin K
alcohol

anticoagulants:
alcohol
vitamin K angonists → warfarin
anti-thrombin → heparin, LMWH, direct thrombin inhibitors
antiplatelets → aspirin, thienopyridines (ticlopidine, clopidogrel)
What are 3 broad causes of bleeding?
1. trauma or damage to blood vessels
2. deficienciey in clotting factors
3. physiological disorders of platelets
Interpreting Laboratory Data p363
Where are platelets found?
2/3 found in circulation
1/3 in spleen
Interpreting Laboratory Data p363
_, _, and _ destroy aging platelets.
spleen, liver, and bone marrow
Interpreting Laboratory Data p363
What is the lifespan of platelets?
8-12 days
Interpreting Laboratory Data p363
What is the lifespan of transfused platelets?
4-5 days
Interpreting Laboratory Data p363
Describe the formation of a platelet plug.
vascular injury → collagen exposure → platelet adhesion → platelet aggregation → platelet plug + fibrin → stabilized platelet/fibrin plug
Interpreting Laboratory Data p364
How does aspirin work?
2. inhibits cyclooxygenase (COX)
2. COX normally catalyzes conversion of arachidonic acid into prostaglandins
3. COX-1 associated with prostaglandins required for synthesis of protective gastric mucous and proper blood flow in kidneys
4. COX-2 associated with prostaglandins for pain, fever, and inflammation
List factors that promote coagulation.
low blood flow or venous stasis → activated clotting factors not cleared
antithrombin, protein C, protein S deficiencies
pregnancy
immobilization
obesity
malignancy
estrogen therapy
Interpreting Laboratory Data p367
Warfarin + protein C deficiency may cause?
skin necrosis

*avoided by prior anticoagulation with heparin before beginning warfarin
Interpreting Laboratory Data p366
What is fibrinolysis?
process where formed thrombi are lysed to prevent excess clot formation and vascular occlusion
Interpreting Laboratory Data p366
Explain the process of fibrinolysis.
1. tpA catalyzes plasminogen → plasmin
2. plasmin catalyzes fibrin → fibrin degradation products (FDPs)
Interpreting Laboratory Data p367
What is the normal range for platelet count?
140,000-440,000/mcL
Interpreting Laboratory Data p367
What is the ddx for thrombocythemia (>800,000/mcL)?
essential thrombocythemia
polycythemia vera
CML
myelofibrosis
Interpreting Laboratory Data p366
Risk of spontaneous bleeding occurs when platelets are _?
<20,000/mcL
Interpreting Laboratory Data p367
What is the normal range for PT?
10-13 sec
Interpreting Laboratory Data p367
What is the ddx for prolonged PT?
factor VII, X, V, II, I deficiencies
vitamin K deficiency
liver disease
DIC
warfarin
Interpreting Laboratory Data p367
What is the ddx for prolonged PTT?
factor XII, XI, IX, VIII, X, V, II, I deficiencies
vitamin K deficiency
lupus anticoagulant
liver disease
DIC
heparin
warfarin
If on warfarin therapy, and you reduce the vitamin K in your diet, what may happen?
INR may increase
Interpreting Laboratory Data p377
What are the indications for prescribing vitamin K?
vitamin K deficiency:
inability to synthesize vitamin K → liver disease
malabsorption → inflammatory bowel diseases
anticoagulant use
bulemia
abdominal surgery

hemorrhagic disease of the newborn
What foods contain vitamin K?
leafy green vegetables
broccoli
What are the indications for prescribing EPO?
anemia related to:
chronic renal failure
zidovudine therapy for HIV
chemotherapy for metastatic cancer (nonmyeloid malignancies)
Drug Handbook p531
What are the side effects of ferrous sulfate therapy?
GI upset
constipation
What should you prescribe if ferrous sulfate is not well tolerated?
ferrous bi-glycinate chelate → causes less GI upset and constipation
What are the indications for prescribing ferrous bi-glycinate chelate?
iron deficiency anemia
What are the indications for prescribing heparin?
prophylaxis and treatment of thromboembolic disorders
Drug Handbook p722
What is the management of venous thrombosis?
1. LMWH x 5 days
2. warfarin, start at 5mg then adjust accordingly
-if thrombus → 3 months
-if embolism → 6 months
-if recurrent embolism → 12 months
3. monitor INR twice weekly during initiation then monthly with goal 2.0-3.0
What are the indications for LMWH therapy?
prophylaxis if increased risk of thromboembolism
DVT
PE
What are the indication for warfarin therapy?
thromboembolitic disorders:
DVT
PE

embolitic complications due to:
atrial fibrillation
cardiac valve replacement

prophylaxis following:
DVT
PE
MI
Drug Handbook p1570
What are the indications for prescribing aspirin?
1. mild to moderate fever, inflammation, or pain
2. prophylaxis or treatment of MI, TIA, CVA
3. RA, OA, gout
4. revascularization procedures → CABG, PTCA, stent implantation
What are the indications for prescribing clopidogrel (Plavix)?
1. prophylaxis or treatment of unstable angina, MI, CVA
2. peripheral artery disease
What are the indications for prescribing ticlodipine?
CVA precursors or CVA

*should only be prescribed if aspirin therapy failed or aspirin intolerance present due to high risk of life-threatening hematologic disorders
Drug Therapy p1468
What type of anemia is folate deficiency anemia?
macrocytic megaloblastic
What is the clinical presentation of folate deficiency anemia?
pallor
mucosal changes → glossitis, diarrhea, anorexia
What is the diagnostic workup of folate deficiency anemia?
CBC reveals ↓ RBCs + ↑ MCV
normal B12
↓ folate
↓ homocysteine
normal methylmelonic acid
What is the management of folate deficiency anemia?
folate supplementation → 1mg PO daily x 2 months

no referral necessary
Where is folate absorped in the GI tract?
entire GI tract
How much folate is required daily?
50-100 mcg
How much folate is stored in the body and how long does that store last?
5000 mcg
lasts 2-3 months
Describe the clotting cascade.
What is the ddx for anemia caused by blood loss?
hematuria
GI bleed
menorrhagia
abnormal uterine bleeding blood donation
What is the ddx for anemia caused by increased destruction of RBCs?
INTRINSIC HEMOLYSIS:
1. membrane – hereditary spherocytosis, elliptocytosis
2. hemoglobin – sickle cell disease, unstable hemoglobin
3. glycolysis – pyruvate kinase deficiency
4. oxidation – G6PD deficiency

EXTRINSIC HEMOLYSIS:
1. immune – cold antibody, warm antibody
2. microangiopathic – thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura, hemolytic uremic syndrome, mechanical cardiac valve, paravalvular leak
2. infection – clostridial
3. hypersplenism
What is the ddx for anemia caused by decreased production of RBCs?
1. hemoglobin synthesis – iron deficiency, thalassemia, anemia of chronic disease
2. DNA synthesis – B12 deficiency, folate deficiency
3. stem cells – aplastic anemia, myeloproliferative leukemia
4. bone marrow – carcinoma, lymphoma
5. pure red cell aplasia
Normocytic anemia indicates?
anemia of chronic disease
When is parenteral iron indicated for iron deficiency anemia?
GI disesae (IBD)
persistent blood loss
oral iron not tolerated
refractory to oral iron
How is parenteral iron administered?
prescribe sodium ferric gluconate
prescribe 1mg for each mL of RBCs below normal
infuse via IV over 4-6 hours
monitor for anaphylaxis
Which clotting factors are dependent on vitamin K for synthesis?
II, VII, IX, X