Clinical Immuno/micro 1

Front 1

IRF-3 activate ____ which activate the antiviral response

Back 1

interferons

Front 2

Do macrophages have a longer or shorter life span compared to neutrophils?

Back 2

longer

Front 3

The genetic mutation that allows the switch from early adenoma to intermediate adenoma is what mutation?

Back 3

k-ras

Front 4

Is tumor promoting inflammation a hallmark of cancer?

Back 4

yes

Front 5

Is immunoediting a way by which cancer cells can escape detection by the hosts immune system?

Back 5

Yes

Front 6

Do patients who have increased T cell infiltration of their tumors have increased or decreased prognosis /metastases?

Back 6

increased

Front 7

If you paint mouse with carcinogen, resect the tumor, and then transplant tumor into original mouse again, will the tumor grow? Why or why not?

Back 7

No the tumor will not grow because there is production of memory T cells that will kill the tumor, the immune system has been activated against the tumor

Front 8

CA125 is a tumor marker for what type of cancer?

Back 8

ovarian

Front 9

Do tumors cells upregulate or downregulate the expression of MHC molecules?

Back 9

downregulate in order to escape immune detection

Front 10

CD28 is the co-stimulatory molecule expressed on T cells or antigen presenting cells?

Back 10

T cells

Front 11

Are vaccine based therapies a form of passive or active immunotherapy?

Back 11

active

Front 12

Are antibody based immunotherapies a form of active or passive immunotherapy?

Back 12

passive

Front 13

Herceptin is an antibody against what type of cancer?

Back 13

breast cancer

Front 14

When B7 binds CTLA-4 does this lead to cell cycle progression or arrest?

Back 14

cell cycle arrest

Front 15

Will CTLA-4 blockade cause an increase or decrease in immune responses?

Back 15

increase

Front 16

T cells are selected in the ____
B cells are selected in the ____

Back 16

thymus
bone marrow

Front 17

Central tolerance due to negative selection occurs where?

Back 17

in the thymus and bone marrow

Front 18

Lack of costimulation can lead to peripheral ___ of immune cells and lead to self-tolerance

Back 18

anergy

Front 19

Psoriasis is caused by autoreactive ___ cells against skin associated antigens

Back 19

T-cells

Front 20

___ disease is caused by autoantibodies against the TSH receptor leading to excessive production of thyroid hormone

Back 20

Grave's

Front 21

Which autoimmune disease is caused by destruction of thyroid tissue leading to hypothyroidism?

Back 21

Hashimoto's thyroiditis

Front 22

Lymphoproliferative disorder can be caused by a mutation in the ___ gene which helps in the deletion of tissue reactive T cells

Back 22

AIRE

Front 23

Can self-antigens recognized by Toll-like receptors activate autoreactive B cells by providing co-stimulation?

Back 23

Yes

Front 24

Name some immunologically privileged sites

Back 24

brain
testis
eye
fetus
hamster cheek pouch

Front 25

T cells that are specific for self-antigens produced in the thymus and suppress immune responses are known as what type of T cells?

Back 25

regulatory T cells

Front 26

Natural regulatory T cells are distributed randomly whereas induced regulatory T cells will co-localize to site of damage. True or False?

Back 26

True

Front 27

Is myasthenia gravis caused by auto-reactive T cells or autoreactive antibodies?

Back 27

auto-reactive antibodies

Front 28

Is multiple sclerosis caused by pathogenic T-cells or B-cells?

Back 28

T-cells

Front 29

Epitope spreading occurs when a ___ cell takes up its autoantigen, chewing it up, and presenting a novel (cryptic) epitope in the context of MHC to a ___ cell

Back 29

B cell
T cell

Front 30

Rhemeutoid Arthritis can be caused by autoreactive CD4-T cells that activate macrophages resulting in the production of proinflammtory cytokines and inflammation. True or False?

Back 30

True

Front 31

Is the HLA serotype of a person associated with the development of autoimmune disease?

Back 31

Yes

Front 32

Almost all diabetic patients express either HLA-DR3 or 4 whereas HLA-DR2 is protective against Type 1 diabetes. True or False?

Back 32

True

Front 33

Can rhematic fever result from molecular mimicry?

Back 33

Yes

Front 34

Is Goodpasture's syndrome an organ specific or systemic autoimmune disease?

Back 34

organ specific

Front 35

Is Schlerodoma an organ specific or systemic autoimmune disease?

Back 35

systemic autoimmune disease

Front 36

Autoantibody that bind to glomerular basement membrane and attack Type IV collagen can cause what autoimmune disease?

Back 36

Goodpasture syndrome

Front 37

What immunosuppressive drug blocks activation of NFAT, which then blocks IL-2 production and proliferation of T cells?

Back 37

cyclosporin A

Front 38

Does corticosteriod activity increase or decrease the expression of endonucleases?

Back 38

increase

Front 39

Rapamycin selectively blocks the activation of what kinase?

Back 39

mTOR

Front 40

Is an antibody that ends in -Omab of mouse or human origin?

Back 40

completely mouse
Human =umab

Front 41

Anti tumor necrosis factor alpha therapy can be used to treat what autoimmune disease?

Back 41

RA

Front 42

Does corticosteriod therapy increase or decrease the body's ability to make nitric oxide?

Back 42

decrease

Front 43

An ___graft is performed on members of the same species but of different genotypes

Back 43

allo-graft

Front 44

A ___graft is performed between two different species

Back 44

xenograft

Front 45

Is 2nd graft rejection faster or slower than first graft rejection?

Back 45

faster

Front 46

Even with the same MHC there still could be graft rejection due to what type of antigens?

Back 46

minor H antigens

Front 47

Initiation of graft rejection normally involves the migration of ___ (donor or reciepient) cells to local lymph nodes?

Back 47

donor

Front 48

When an alloantigen is recognized by a recipient T cell and attacked as foreign is this direct or indirect recognition?

Back 48

direct

Front 49

What is graft-vs-host reaction?

Back 49

When reactive T-cells from the donor (especially in bone marrow transplantation) recognize the tissue of the receipient as foreign and attack it

Front 50

Can you minimize graft versus host disease by knocking out recipient immune cells?

Back 50

Yes

Front 51

Does the outer layer of the placenta express MHC?

Back 51

no

Front 52

IDO, which is expressed in the placenta causes _____ depletion which leads to T-cells being unresponsive

Back 52

tryptophan

Front 53

Is FasL expressed on the placenta?

Back 53

Yes, leads to T-cell apoptosis, immunosuppression

Front 54

A group of bacteria showing more than 70% similarity is usually classified into the same ____

Back 54

species

Front 55

A species is a collection of ____ that share common phenotypic characteristics

Back 55

strains

Front 56

Gram negative bacteria appear what color via the gram stain?

Back 56

red

Front 57

Do Bacillus produces spores?

Back 57

Yes

Front 58

What is one way to distinguish gram positive Bacillus and Clostridium even though both produce spores?

Back 58

Bacillus is an aerobe while Clostridum is an anerobe

Front 59

In the semisolid motility medium if the medium is translucent is the organism being tested motile or non-motile?

Back 59

non-motile

Front 60

Is chocolate agar selective or nonselective media?

Back 60

non-selective media

Front 61

Sheep blood agar place is good for accessing the hemolytic ability of _____

Back 61

streptococci

Front 62

Is Strep catalase positive or catalase negative?

Back 62

catalase negative

Front 63

Strep mutans is responsible for dental carries and is an alpha hemolytic streptococci. True or False?

Back 63

True

Front 64

Does haemophailius influenza grow on chocolate agar?

Back 64

No

Front 65

MacConkey agar can be used to discriminate ___ fermenters, as they grow as red colonies

Back 65

lactose

Front 66

Do Shigella or Salmonella ferment lactose?

Back 66

No

Front 67

On EMB agar, what color will E.coli bacteria be?

Back 67

green metallic, can ferment lactose

Front 68

Is Staph catalase positive or negative?

Back 68

positive

Front 69

Is Listeria catalase positive or negative?

Back 69

positive

Front 70

Is Step catalase positive or negative?

Back 70

Negative

Front 71

Is the oxidase test used to categorize gram positive or gram negative bacteria?

Back 71

negative

Front 72

Are enteric bacteria oxidase positive or negative? What constitutes a positive test?

Back 72

negative
with positive tests, oxidase test turns purple

Front 73

The optochin test is used to test for the presence of what bug?

Back 73

Strep pneumo

Front 74

For the Hekteon Agar test, ____ always has a black dot in the middle of the colony whereas ____ colonies are colorless

Back 74

Salmonella
Shigella

Front 75

Are E.coli positive or negative for the methy red test?

Back 75

positive

Front 76

Are E.coli positive or negative for the Voges-Prauskuar test?

Back 76

negative

Front 77

Is E.coli indole positive or negative?

Back 77

positive

Front 78

For the citrate test, is e.coli positive or negative?

Back 78

negative

Front 79

For a positive citrate test, what color is the medium? what about negative test?

Back 79

Blue
Green

Front 80

For Klebsiella is the urease test positive or negative? What about E.coli?

Back 80

positive
ecoli- negative

Front 81

Is Salmonella H2S sensitive?

Back 81

Yes

Front 82

Is shigella motile or nonmotile?

Back 82

non-motile

Front 83

In OF medium if the solution turns yellow, is there acid production?

Back 83

Yes

Front 84

Lipid A is an ___toxin

Back 84

endotoxin

Front 85

What are the three major antigens of enterobacteria?

Back 85

O, H, K

Front 86

ETEC produces what two toxins?

Back 86

LT
ST

Front 87

Does ETEC damage the mucosal epithelium?

Back 87

No

Front 88

Are there normally WBCs in EHEC infections?

Back 88

No

Front 89

Shiga toxins are encoded on _____

Back 89

bacteriophages

Front 90

A pathogenicity island is more GC rich or AT rich?

Back 90

AT rich

Front 91

___ secrete their own receptor (Tir) to mediate intimin binding

Back 91

EPEC

Front 92

E-coli O157 is most common serotype of which type of e.coli?

Back 92

EHEC

Front 93

What type of toxin is shiga toxin and what does it inhibit?

Back 93

AB toxin
60 S subunit of ribosome

Front 94

Can O157 ferment sorbitol?

Back 94

No, can used sorbitol macConkey agar and sorbitol positive colonies are stained red

Front 95

HUS is associated with the production of ____ toxin

Back 95

Shiga

Front 96

Does Labile toxin work like cholera toxin?

Back 96

yes

Front 97

Stabile toxin increases the concentration of cGMP. True or False?

Back 97

True

Front 98

Is shigella lactose positive or negative?

Back 98

negative

Front 99

Shigella lives in a ___ and used Type III secretion to break out

Back 99

vacuole

Front 100

The central antibody that plays a role in Type I sensitivity is ____

Back 100

IgE

Front 101

Type II and III hypersensitivity are mediated by what antibody?

Back 101

IgG

Front 102

Type IV hypersensitivity is mediated by what type of cells?

Back 102

T cells

Front 103

In Type I hypersensitivity what type of T cell induces B cell switch to IgE production?

Back 103

Th2

Front 104

Only proteins induce T cell responses. True or False

Back 104

True, hence airborn allergens promote the priming of Th2 cells that drive IgE responses

Front 105

In what autosomal recessive illness will you see hyperplasia of the epidermis and neutrophils in the dermis

Back 105

Netherton syndrome

Front 106

In treating allergic reactions, you want to manipulate the immune system to a more Th1 response, because Th2 response mediates allergic reactions. True or False?

Back 106

True

Front 107

Are people who live in a hygenic environment more or less likely to develop hypersensitivity?

Back 107

more

Front 108

With mast cell release is there increased or decreased GI expulsion?

Back 108

increased

Front 109

With mast cell release there is increased permeability and blood flow. This can lead to ___tension and eventually ___ if left untreated

Back 109

hypotension
shock

Front 110

Do eosinophils secrete neurotoxins?

Back 110

Yes

Front 111

A subcutaneous route of entry for mast cells will lead to the ____ reaction

Back 111

wheal and flare

Front 112

What is the colloquial name of urticaria?

Back 112

hives

Front 113

Mice lacking the transcription factor T-bet develop allergy and increased what subtype of T cells

Back 113

TH2

Front 114

Will people who have lower levels of TGF-Beta due to genetic reasons be more prone to developing allergies?

Back 114

Yes

Front 115

An Arthus reaction mediates a Type ___ hypersensitivity reaction

Back 115

III

Front 116

Serum sickness is a Type ____ hypersensitivity reaction

Back 116

III

Front 117

Celiac disease is a type ___ hypersensitivity reaction

Back 117

IV

Front 118

A ____ is an antigen that does not elicit an immune response

Back 118

hapten

Front 119

Delayed type hypersensitivity reactions are mediated by TH___ cells

Back 119

TH1

Front 120

Contact sensitizing agents elicit a ___ type hypersensitivity via a TH1 response

Back 120

delayed

Front 121

The activation of transglutaminase can lead to the development of ___ disease

Back 121

Celiac

Front 122

In this mechanism, resident APCs of the DONOR tissue, which present both allogenic MHC and are co-stimulatory, are carried into the RECIPIENT lymph node. Here, they can activate the RECIPIENT T-cells

Back 122

Direct allorecognition

Front 123

For Salmonella is it lactose positive/negative? citrate positive/negative?

Back 123

lactose negative
citrate positive

Front 124

The carrier state can result from Salmonella infection and the bacteria hangs out in the ____

Back 124

gallbladder

Front 125

Typhoid fever is caused by what bacterial strain?

Back 125

Salmonella typhi

Front 126

Is Salmonella internalized in intestinal epithelial cells?

Back 126

Yes, called ruffling

Front 127

NADPH oxidase is the enzyme responsible for the respiratory burst. Bacteria produce ____ to defend against this

Back 127

superoxide dismutase

Front 128

Yersinia is similar to Ecoli expect for it is urease ____

Back 128

positive

Front 129

CIN agar is best used to culture _____

Back 129

Yersinia

Front 130

What bacteria has a fried egg appearance?

Back 130

Yersinia

Front 131

For Yersinia enterocolitica, what animal is the major reservoir for infection in humans?

Back 131

Pigs

Front 132

Yersinia pestis is usually transmitted via a __ bite

Back 132

flea

Front 133

How many virulence plasmids does Yersinia pestis have? What about Yersinia enterocolitica?

Back 133

3 for Yersinia pestis
1 for Yersinia enterocolitica

Front 134

Which bacteria has an F1 capsular antigen that prevents phagocytosis of the bug?

Back 134

Yersinia pestis

Front 135

Are beta-lactams effective against Yersinia pestis?

Back 135

no, treat with steptomycin, tertracyclins

Front 136

Is Klebsiella lactose positive or negative?

Back 136

positive

Front 137

Is Klebsiella motile or non-motile?

Back 137

non-motile

Front 138

What organism is second to e.coli in causing urinary tract infections?

Back 138

Klebsiella

Front 139

A currant jelly appearance for coughed up sputum is characteristic of what bacterial organism that is gram negative and non-motile?

Back 139

Klebsiella

Front 140

For extensed spectrum beta lactamse positive strains of Klebsiella, what antibiotic is preferred?

Back 140

carbopenam

Front 141

What is the mortality rate of individuals that contract carbopenem resistant Klebsiella?

Back 141

50%

Front 142

Does Camplyobacteror Jejuni cause watery or bloody diarrhea?

Back 142

bloody

Front 143

Is Vibrio Cholera motile?

Back 143

Yes, single polar flagellum

Front 144

Is Vibrio Cholera oxidase positive or negative?

Back 144

positive

Front 145

Which serogroups of Vibro. Cholera produce cholera toxin?

Back 145

O1 and O139

Front 146

Tcp pili are important for ____ adhering to intestine

Back 146

vibrio cholera

Front 147

The cholera toxin is encoded on a _____

Back 147

bacteriophage

Front 148

Does the cholera toxin lead to increased or decreased production of adenylate cyclase?

Back 148

increased

Front 149

Cholera can lead to metabolic acidosis or alkalosis?

Back 149

acidosis

Front 150

Which type of Vibrio toxin causes primary septicemia after ingestion? Also can lead to tissue necrosis

Back 150

Vibrio vulnificus

Front 151

Azithromycin is the drug of choice to treat cholera. True or False

Back 151

True

Front 152

Aeromonas is a Gram- ____ facultatively anaerobic fermentative rod

Back 152

negative

Front 153

Camplyobacter jejuni has how many flagellum?

Back 153

2, bipolar

Front 154

What bacteria has been linked to Guillain-Barre Syndrome?

Back 154

Camplyobacter jejuni

Front 155

The cytolethal distending toxin (CDT) causes arrest of the host cell cycle. What bacteria produces this toxin?

Back 155

Camplyobacter jejuni

Front 156

Is poultry a big source of Camplyobacter jejuni infection?

Back 156

Yes

Front 157

Young cultures of H.pylori will be rod like while older cultures of H.pylori will assume ___ forms

Back 157

coccoid

Front 158

Is H.pylori motile?

Back 158

Yes, is has a polar flagella

Front 159

Does H.pylori produce urease?

Back 159

Yes

Front 160

Which pathogen produces a multifunctional toxin called VacA?

Back 160

H.pylori

Front 161

Does VacA inhibit or accelerate the activity of T cells?

Back 161

inhibit
leads to the production of vaculoes, can mediate membrane channel activity

Front 162

CagA is a toxin produced by H.pylori that is injected into cells via Type ___ secretion

Back 162

IV

Front 163

H.pylori colonization may protect against the development of what disease?

Back 163

GERD

Front 164

A proton pump inhibitor called omeprazole is used in the treatment of what bacteria in combination with clarithromycin and amoxicillin?

Back 164

H.pylori

Front 165

The AACEK group of pathogens is normal or pathogenic flora of the upper respiratory tract?

Back 165

normal

Front 166

What does it mean when a bacteria is capnophilic?

Back 166

requires carbon dioxide for growth

Front 167

What type of agar does the AACEK group grow on?

Back 167

chocolate agar or blood agar
Not MacConkey/EMB agars

Front 168

Is Eikenella corrodens fermentative?

Back 168

No

Front 169

Aggregatibacterium actinomycetemcomitans is documented to cause ____ disease

Back 169

peridonal, treat with tetracyclines

Front 170

Cardiobacterium hominus causes what disease in humans?

Back 170

endocarditis

Front 171

When Eikenella corrodens is grown on sheep blood agar, what characteristic appearance do the colonies form?

Back 171

a pit

Front 172

What does a culture of Eikenella corrodens smell like?

Back 172

chlorinated swimming pool

Front 173

What pathogen has replaced H. influenza as the most common cause of osteoarticular infections in children less than 3 years old?

Back 173

Kingella

Front 174

Is Kingella beta hemolytic?

Back 174

After 48 hours posts culture on blood agar

Front 175

What pathogen from the AACEK group is indole positive?

Back 175

C. hominis

Front 176

Which bacteria does not produce acid from glucose?

Back 176

E. corrodens

Front 177

During what stage of the pertussis infection is the disease most communicable?

Back 177

prodromal stage

Front 178

Is DTAP or Tdap used as the booster vaccine for pertussis?

Back 178

Tdap

Front 179

Does a negative DFA test rule out the presence of pertussis?

Back 179

No, but a positive test shows that pertussis is present

Front 180

What is the agar of choice to grow Bordotella pertussis?

Back 180

Regan Lowe media

Front 181

What is the treatment of choice for pertussis?

Back 181

erythromycin

Front 182

Is Bordetella parapertussis more or less severe than pertussis?

Back 182

less severe

Front 183

Does Bordella parapertussis have a positive or negative urease reaction?

Back 183

positive

Front 184

Most species of Pasturella are oxidase and catalase positive or negative?

Back 184

positive

Front 185

Pasturella caballi is associated with ____ bite wounds

Back 185

horse

Front 186

Pasturella gallinarum is associated with contamination from what animal?

Back 186

chickens and domestic fowl

Front 187

Pasturella multocida is strongly ___ positive

Back 187

Indole

Front 188

Does pasturella respond to penicillins even though they are gram negative?

Back 188

Yes

Front 189

Which pathogen causes undulating fevers?

Back 189

Brucella

Front 190

Brucella melitensis has a principle reservoir in ____

Back 190

goats

Front 191

Are granulomas present in disease caused by Brucella infection?

Back 191

Yes, when the granulomas break down they cause the cycle of fevers that we see

Front 192

Is Brucella asaccharolytic?

Back 192

Yes

Front 193

How do you treat Brucellosis?

Back 193

With agents that penetrate the cell and have phagocytic activity such as tetracyclines along with aminoglycosides

Front 194

An ulceroglandular lesion is most associated with what pathogen?

Back 194

Francisella tularensis

Front 195

In pneumonic tuleremia, there are the formation of granulomas which mimics what disease?

Back 195

tuberculosis

Front 196

Francisella tularensis is oxidase negative and catalase weak positive. True or False?

Back 196

True

Front 197

What pathogen causes trench fever?

Back 197

Bartonella

Front 198

Bartonella quintana causes what disease?

Back 198

human trench fever

Front 199

Can bartonella cause endocarditis?

Back 199

Yes

Front 200

Bacillary angiomatosis is found in immunocompromised patients and is associated with infection with what pathogen?

Back 200

Bartonella quintana or Bartonella henselae

Front 201

What antibiotics are used to treat bacillary angiomatosis?

Back 201

erythromycin, rifampin, and doxycycline

Front 202

The Warthin-Starry silver stain is used to visualize what pathogen?

Back 202

Bartonella

Front 203

What species of pathogen has cauliflower like colonies?

Back 203

Bartonella

Front 204

Are fluorescent antibodies used to visualize Bartonella?

Back 204

Yes

Front 205

Gram negative diplococci are characteristic of what pathogen genus?

Back 205

Neisseria

Front 206

Is Neisseria oxidase positive or negative?

Back 206

positive

Front 207

Does Neisseria infection in men cause painful urination (dysuria)?

Back 207

Yes

Front 208

In post pubertal women cervix is site of infection of gonorrhea, in pre-pubertal women site of infection is the vagina (sexually abused). True or False

Back 208

True

Front 209

Gonorrhea can cause conjunctiva infections in ____

Back 209

infants

Front 210

Arthragia is ____ pain

Back 210

joint

Front 211

Disseminated gonococcal infection can lead to the development of ___ lesions

Back 211

skin

Front 212

How is meningitis spread?

Back 212

Through respiratory droplets in crowded spaces

Front 213

There is an increasing rate of infection of meningitis group __ among college age students

Back 213

C

Front 214

A petechial rash is characteristic of infection by what pathogen?

Back 214

Nesseria meningitidis

Front 215

Gram negative diplococci are characteristic of what pathogen genus?

Back 215

Neisseria

Front 216

Is Neisseria oxidase positive or negative?

Back 216

positive

Front 217

Does Neisseria infection in men cause painful urination (dysuria)?

Back 217

Yes

Front 218

In post pubertal women cervix is site of infection of gonorrhea, in pre-pubertal women site of infection is the vagina (sexually abused). True or False

Back 218

True

Front 219

Gonorrhea can cause conjunctiva infections in ____

Back 219

infants

Front 220

Arthragia is ____ pain

Back 220

joint

Front 221

Disseminated gonococcal infection can lead to the development of ___ lesions

Back 221

skin

Front 222

How is meningitis spread?

Back 222

Through respiratory droplets in crowded spaces

Front 223

There is an increasing rate of infection of meningitis group __ among college age students

Back 223

C

Front 224

A petechial rash is characteristic of infection by what pathogen?

Back 224

Nesseria meningitidis

Front 225

What drugs are recommended to treat meningitis?

Back 225

rifampin, azithromycin, Ceftraiaxone

Front 226

People who have complement deficiences or asplenia are at risk of ____ disease

Back 226

meningococcal

Front 227

Does the meningococcal tetravalent polysaccharide vaccine or the conjugate vaccine convey protection from future infections?

Back 227

conjugate vaccine

Front 228

Is it good to white blood cells in a person you give a lumbar puncture to whom you suspect of having meningitis?

Back 228

Yes, this means their immune system has not shut down

Front 229

What serotype is not included in the meningitis vaccine?

Back 229

B

Front 230

Serotype B for meningtis resembles what compound?

Back 230

neuraminic acid from the CNS

Front 231

Nessieria is culture on what medium?

Back 231

modified Thayer Martin medium

Front 232

Why is Nystatin found in Thayer Martin medium?

Back 232

because it inhibits the growth of mold and yeasts which are common in the vaginal area

Front 233

Does Thayer Martin Medium contain vancomycin?

Back 233

Yes, inhibits Gram positives

Front 234

Is Neisseria meningitidis encapsulated?

Back 234

Yes

Front 235

For the oxidase test, the reagent turns ____ in the presence of cytochrome c

Back 235

purple

Front 236

For the carbohydrate untilization test, Neiserria gonorrhea is positive for what sugars?

Back 236

glucose

Front 237

For the carbohydrate untilization test, Neiserria meningitidis is positive for what sugars?

Back 237

glucose and maltose

Front 238

Is the nucleotide amplification test used for detection of Neiserria miningitidis or Neiserria gonorrhea?

Back 238

Neiserria gonorrhea

Front 239

What drug is used to treat Neiserria gonorrhae?

Back 239

Ceftriaxone
Also treat for chlymadia via azithromycin or doxycycline

Front 240

For Neiserria meningitidis, what remains the first drug of choice?

Back 240

Penicillin

Front 241

Haemphilus grows on what type of agar?

Back 241

chocolate agar
not blood agar

Front 242

Haemophilus requires what two factors that grow in human blood?

Back 242

X = hemin
V = NAD

Front 243

Haemophilus influenza type ___ has a vaccine against it

Back 243

B

Front 244

Why does Haemophilus influenza not grow on sheep blood agar?

Back 244

No V factor

Front 245

Haemophilus haemolyticus is ___ hemolytic on horse blood agar

Back 245

beta

Front 246

Haemophilus can grow as satellit colonies next to ____ because ____ lyses RBC's providing X factor and secretes V factor into the medium

Back 246

S. aureus

Front 247

H. parainfluenza only requires ___ factor

Back 247

V

Front 248

Does Haemophilus parainfluenza require X factor to grow?

Back 248

No

Front 249

What drugs are used to treat Haemophilus influenza?

Back 249

ampicillin and third generation cephalosporin

Front 250

People infected with Haemophilus ducreyi present with chancroids that are of what consistency?

Back 250

soft and squishy

Front 251

How are chancroids different from the chancres seen in syphilis

Back 251

Chancres are firm, with a rolled border, clean looking and painless
Chancroids have soft ragged edges and are soft

Front 252

Can lymphoadenopathy be a manifestation of H. ducreyi?

Back 252

Yes

Front 253

To isolate Haemophilus ducreyi choclate agar with added ___ is used in order to inhibit staph and strep

Back 253

vancomycin

Front 254

What is the drug of choice against Haemophilus ducreyi?

Back 254

Erthromycin, ceftriaxone (3rd generation cephalosporin)

Front 255

Chlamydia is an energy parasite. What does this mean?

Back 255

it cannot make ATP by itself

Front 256

Elementary and reticulate bodies are characteristic of what pathogen?

Back 256

Chlamydia

Front 257

Which chlamydia species causes the sexually transmitted disease?

Back 257

chlamydia trachomatis

Front 258

chlamydophila psittaci causes ___ fever

Back 258

parrot

Front 259

Psittacosis pathogens travel to what two organs after inhalation via respiratory route?

Back 259

lung, spleen

Front 260

What is the best way to diagnose Psittacosis?

Back 260

via serology looking at complement fixing antibodies in serum

Front 261

Are elementary bodies or reticular bodies the infectious form of Chlamydia?

Back 261

elementary bodies

Front 262

Can you use tetracyclines in children?

Back 262

No

Front 263

Ocular infections caused by chlamydia trachomatis is bilateral or unilateral?

Back 263

bilateral

Front 264

Trachoma is treated with which antibiotic?

Back 264

azithromycin and also tetracyclines in adults

Front 265

Lymphogranuloma venereum is a sexually transmitted disease caused by the invasive serovars L1, L2, L2a or L3 of _______

Back 265

chlymadia trachomatis

Front 266

How do you diagnose lymphogranuloma venereum? How do you treat?

Back 266

via serology tests
tetracycline

Front 267

Chlamydial inclusion conjunctivitis is common in neonatal infection due to passage through an mother who is infected at birth. True or False?

Back 267

True

Front 268

Chlamydial inclusion conjunctivitis in adults can present with moderate hyperemia. True or False?

Back 268

True

Front 269

Does infant pneumonia caused by Chlamydial trachomatis usually have fever as a symptom?

Back 269

No

Front 270

Infants infected with Chlamydial trachomatis have a higher than normal frequency of obstructive airway disease and ____ later in life

Back 270

asthma

Front 271

Is the incubation time of gonorrhea or chlamydia longer?

Back 271

chlamydia

Front 272

Because chlamydia is an intracellular pathogen, one must collect ___ in order to do tests

Back 272

cells, not just pus

Front 273

Presence of inclusion bodies suggest infection with which organism?

Back 273

Chlamydia

Front 274

What is the best diagnostic test for Chlamydia

Back 274

nuclei acid amplification test

Front 275

_____ is only beta-lactam that can be used against Chlamydia

Back 275

amoxicillin

Front 276

Are mycoplasmas sensitive or insensitive to beta lactams?

Back 276

insensitive

Front 277

Mycoplasma reduce methylene blue under aerobic conditions to what color?

Back 277

Yellow

Front 278

Diagnosis of mycoplasma is made clinically on the levels of ____ in the titer

Back 278

IgMm

Front 279

Mycoplasma pneumonia can also present with antibodies that agglutinate at ___ temperatures

Back 279

cold

Front 280

Mycoplasma hominis metabolizes ____ in broth with generation of ammonia. This alkalination of pH leads to a change in the indicator from salmon pink to ____

Back 280

arginine
red

Front 281

Mycoplasma species can be treated with what antibiotic?

Back 281

tetracyclines

Front 282

Rickettsia only grows in ___ of infected cells

Back 282

cytosol

Front 283

The only reservoir of as R. prowazekii is ___

Back 283

humans

Front 284

Rocky mountain spotted fever is caused by what pathogen?

Back 284

R. Rickettsi

Front 285

Scrub typhus is caused by what pathogen?

Back 285

Orientia

Front 286

Orientia and the spotted fever group of Rickettia move around in the host cell via polymerizing ____ actin. The typhus group of Rickettsia do not , just accumlates until host cells dies and then it spreads, therefore this group is less potent

Back 286

host

Front 287

The clinical manifestations of Rocky Mountain spotted fever results from replication of bacteria in ____ cells and subsequent blood vessel leakage

Back 287

endothelial

Front 288

The Weil-Felix test has been used to identify ___ infection

Back 288

Rickettesia

Front 289

____ tests are most commonly used to diagnose Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

Back 289

serology

Front 290

What is the antibiotic used to treat Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?

Back 290

doxycycline

Front 291

Rickettsia akari is spread by ___ and one can tell due to eschar formation or black looking lesion

Back 291

mites

Front 292

What antibiotic should be used to treat R. prowazekii?

Back 292

tetracycline

Front 293

How does Anaplasmatocea escape phagocytosis?

Back 293

By inhibiting phagosome-lysosome fusion

Front 294

People can develop Q fever from Coxiella burnetii by drinking contaminated milk from ____ or ___

Back 294

sheep or goats

Front 295

Does C. burnetti inhibit phagosome-lysosome fusion?

Back 295

No, it can replicate even if pH drops

Front 296

What is the most common clinical presentation of Q fever?

Back 296

subacute endocarditis

Front 297

Hydroxychloroquine = proton pump inhibitor, inhibits acidification of macrophages that can be used for treatment against what pathogen?

Back 297

C.burnetti

Front 298

How do you treat C. burnetti?

Back 298

With doxycyline

Front 299

Spirochetes are thin, helical gram negative bacteria. True or False

Back 299

True

Front 300

Spirochetes are the causative agent of ____, a sexually transmitted disease

Back 300

syphilis

Front 301

Can Treponema pallidum be grown in culture?

Back 301

No, must be grown in host

Front 302

Treponema pallidum is the agent of ___

Back 302

syphilis

Front 303

The thought is that most of the tissue destruction and lesions observed in syphilis are the result of ___ inflammatory responses to infection

Back 303

host

Front 304

The chancre develops during primary or secondary syphilis?

Back 304

primary

Front 305

Is the chancre painful or painless? Are there spirochetes in the chancre?

Back 305

painless
yes

Front 306

Are lesions in secondary syphilis highly infectious?

Back 306

Yes

Front 307

An increased incidence of neurosyphilis, even with therapy, has been documented in patients with ____

Back 307

HIV

Front 308

Formation of Gummas occur in which stage of syphilis?

Back 308

tertiary

Front 309

Can infants be infected with syphilis from infected mothers?

Back 309

Yes, leads to congenital syphilis

Front 310

The Venereal Disease Research laboratory and the Rapid Plasma Reagin are testing for antibodies against cardiolipin. These two tests are used for diagnosis of ____

Back 310

syphilis

Front 311

Only ___ can be used to treat neurosyphilis

Back 311

penicillin

Front 312

Members of the genus Borrelia cause 2 important disease in humans ___ and ___

Back 312

lyme disease and relapsing fever

Front 313

Borrelia are gram negative ____ with complex nutritional requirements

Back 313

spirochetes

Front 314

B. Burgdorferi causes what disease?

Back 314

Lyme disease

Front 315

The lesion typical of ____ disease has a flat red border and a central clearing

Back 315

Lyme

Front 316

acrodermatitis chronica atrophicans is characteristic of ____ disease

Back 316

Lyme

Front 317

Do nonfermenting bacteria produce acid from glucose?

Back 317

No

Front 318

Kliger's or Triple Sugar Iron is used to test for fermentation of glucose and an ____ butt indicates a non-fermenter

Back 318

alkaline

Front 319

Is pseudomonas aeruginosa an opportunistic pathogen?

Back 319

Yes

Front 320

Pseudomona is oxidase ___ and is motile

Back 320

positive

Front 321

Pyocyanin and Pyoverdin are pigments that are produced by ____

Back 321

pseudomonas aeruginosa

Front 322

Pyoverdin is a yellow green pigment that sequesters ___

Back 322

iron

Front 323

Las A and Las B are virulence factors produced by ___ that degrade complement components

Back 323

p. aeruginosa

Front 324

P. aeruginosa employs a Type ___ secretion system

Back 324

III

Front 325

Alginate is a polysaccharide that forms a capsule over the surface of the bacteria and is a virulence factor of ____

Back 325

P. aeruginosa

Front 326

____ patients can suffer from the production of alginate in their lung after P. aeruginosa infection

Back 326

cystic fibrosis

Front 327

P. aeruginosa biofilm formation stimulates secretions of beta-lactamases. True or false?

Back 327

True

Front 328

How do you treat P. aeruginosa?

Back 328

with a beta lactam or aminoglycoside

Front 329

Burkholderia cepacia is commonly associated with ___ patients or those with chronic granulomatous disease

Back 329

cystic fibrosis

Front 330

With burkholderia pseudomallei pulmonary disease range from mild bronchitis to necrotizing pneumonia and the first line of treatment is ____

Back 330

trimethoprim

Front 331

Does Legionella grow on conventional blood agar?

Back 331

No

Front 332

What pathogen grows well on charcoal treated agar?

Back 332

Legionella

Front 333

L. pneumophila is commonly found in bodies of ___ and can parasitize amoebae in water-protected niche

Back 333

water

Front 334

Legionella can be engulfed by _____ but are good at escaping being killed

Back 334

macrophages

Front 335

Can Legionella be spread from person to person?

Back 335

No

Front 336

Pontiac fever is caused by infection with ____ and does not result in pneumonia

Back 336

Legionella

Front 337

Legionarrie's disease is a case of atypical _____

Back 337

pneumonia

Front 338

L. pneumophila is commonly diagnosed via ______

Back 338

nucleic acid amplification assays

Front 339

What antibiotics should you use to treat L. pnemophila?

Back 339

macrolides such as azithromycin or fluoroquinolones such as ciprofloxicin

Front 340

Can acinotobacter cause pneumonia?

Back 340

Yes, can cause infection of respiratory tract, UTI, and wounds. Can cause septicemia

Front 341

An anaerobic organism will only grow in the absence of ____

Back 341

oxygen

Front 342

Is botulism caused by an aerobic or anerobic organism?

Back 342

anaerobic

Front 343

Presence of sulfur granules in discharge (actinomycosis) could suggest that the pathogen is aerobic or anaerobic?

Back 343

anaerobic

Front 344

Kanamycin-Vacomycin Laked Blood agar is sued to detect what type of specimens?

Back 344

anaerobes

Front 345

In the Kanamycin-Vacomycin Laked Blood agar, the kanamycin is used to inhibit the growth of waht?

Back 345

aerobic and gram-negative bacilli

Front 346

Growth of ___ colonies on Bacteriodies Bile-Esculin Agar indicates the presence of Bacteriodes fragilis group

Back 346

black

Front 347

If an organism grows on chocolate agar, is the organism anerobic or anaerobic?

Back 347

anerobic

Front 348

What is an anaerobic bacteria that is spore forming?

Back 348

clostridium

Front 349

Most species of Clostridium are sensitive to ____ treatment

Back 349

vancomycin

Front 350

Gas gangrene, anaerobic cellulitis and superficial contamination can result from infection from _____

Back 350

Clostridum perfringens

Front 351

Can food poisoning result from consumption of clostridium perfringens?

Back 351

Yes

Front 352

Does foot poisoning caused by Clostridum perfringens result in watery or bloody diarrhea?

Back 352

watery

Front 353

What pathogen is Beta-hemolytic on blood agar and also Lecithinase positive?

Back 353

Clostridum perfringens

Front 354

What clostridium species is associated with causing bacteremia from colonic malignancy or hematologic malignancy?

Back 354

Clostridium speticum

Front 355

Tetanus is caused by inactivation of the release of what NT? It results in spastic paralysis

Back 355

GABA

Front 356

What antibiotic do you give someone suffering from a tetanus infection?

Back 356

penicillin

Front 357

Botulinin toxin prevents release of ____ from the synaptic cleft

Back 357

acetylcholine

Front 358

Is infant botulism the most common form of botulism in the US?

Back 358

Yes

Front 359

___ is the most frequently identified cause of hospital diarrhea

Back 359

C. difficile

Front 360

What antibiotic is most commonly linked to the develop of C.difficile diarrhae?

Back 360

Fluoroquinolones

Front 361

C. difficile spores germinate in the small bowel upon exposure to ____

Back 361

bile acids

Front 362

Toxin A is produced by C. difficile. True or False?

Back 362

True

Front 363

With C. difficile infection there is formation of yellow plaques in the ___ colon

Back 363

distal

Front 364

Is the type of diarrhea exhibited with C. difficile watery or bloody?

Back 364

watery

Front 365

Can children less than 2 years of age become sick from C.difficle infection? Why or why not?

Back 365

They cannot because they do not express the receptor for the C. difficile toxin

Front 366

Is Bacteriodes resistant to beta-lactams?

Back 366

Yes

Front 367

Bacteriodes Bile-Esculin Agar contains ___ to inhibit aerobic/facultative Gram negative bacilli

Back 367

gentamicin

Front 368

____, housed in the gallbladder stimulates growth of B. fragilis group organisms

Back 368

bile

Front 369

Are Prevotella species stimulated or inhibited by bile secretions?

Back 369

inhibited

Front 370

Before black colonies of Prevotella develop, colonies will fluoresce ____ under Wood's lamp

Back 370

red

Front 371

Is Porphyromonas species saccacharolytic or assacharolytic?

Back 371

assacharolyic, no acid produced from carbohydraes

Front 372

What bacterial species is associated with periodontitis and root canal infections?

Back 372

Porphyromonas

Front 373

Fusobacterium is associated with aspiration pneumonias. True or False?

Back 373

True

Front 374

Lemierre's Disease is associated with what type of bacteria?

Back 374

Fusobacterium necrophorum

Front 375

Mobiluncus is a non-spore forming gram negative bacteria that is found in the female urogenital tract and is associated with ____

Back 375

bacterial vaginosis (BV)

Front 376

Propionibacterium acnes is gram positive or gram negative?

Back 376

gram positive

Front 377

Actinomyces israelii is the major cause of actinomycoses. True or False?

Back 377

True

Front 378

Cervicofacial actinomycosis can result in the formation of slow growing ___

Back 378

granulomas

Front 379

Acinomyces is a gram ___ rod

Back 379

positive

Front 380

Lactobacillus produce ____ from glucose

Back 380

lactic acid

Front 381

What antibotics are used to treat Bacillus anthracis?

Back 381

ciprofloxacin and doxycyline

Front 382

What group of bacteria is responsible for causing botulism, tetanus, gas gangrene and pseudomembranous colitis?

Back 382

Clostridium

Front 383

Risus sardonicus is caused by infection with which toxin?

Back 383

tetanus toxin

Front 384

A patient has a CT scan that reveals pockets of gas within the muscles and subcutaneous issue. As the enzymes degrade the muscles, a think, blackish fluid exudes from the skin. What bacteria could be the causative agent?

Back 384

Clostridium perfringens causing clostridial myonecrosis

Front 385

Which one, bacillus anthracis or bacillus cereus is motile? which one cause food poisoning?

Back 385

motile = B. cereus
food poisoning = B. cereus

Front 386

Potassium tellurite agar and Loeffler's coagulated blood serum is used to test for the presence of _____

Back 386

Cornyebacterium diphtheriae

Front 387

Are pregnant women susceptible to Listeria infection?

Back 387

Yes

Front 388

What antibiotics treat for Listeria monocytogenes?

Back 388

ampicillin and trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

Front 389

Diabetic osteomyelities can be a complication of what hospital acquired pathogen?

Back 389

p. aeruginosa

Front 390

What is the first line of treatment for Acinetobacter?

Back 390

Aminoglycosides

Front 391

_____ is the most common cause of septic arthritis in infants

Back 391

Haemophilus influenzae type B

Front 392

What is the first line of treatment for H. influenza

Back 392

3rd generation cephalosporin

Front 393

How might you differentiate H. ducreyi infection from a herpes infection?

Back 393

Chancroid does not usually produce systemic symptoms

Front 394

Are penicillins effective against Chlamydia?

Back 394

No

Front 395

Rickettsia has a tropism for ____ cells

Back 395

endothelial

Front 396

Listeria can cause ___ in neonates and elderly people who are immunocompromised

Back 396

meningitis

Front 397

Is listeria an intracellular or extracellular parasite?

Back 397

intracellular

Front 398

Listeria likes to grow in ___ temperatures

Back 398

cold

Front 399

Is Listeria catalase positive or negative? Motile or Non-motile? Hemolytic?

Back 399

catalase positive
motile
beta hemolytic

Front 400

Does Listeria have a positive or negative bile esculin reaction?

Back 400

positive

Front 401

How is Listeria treated?

Back 401

With ampicillin

Front 402

Erysipelothrix is a Gram ___ rod

Back 402

positive

Front 403

What is the only gram positive organism that is hydrogen sulfide positive?

Back 403

Erysipelothrix
it is also catalase negative and non-motile

Front 404

What organism has bottle brush growth in gelatin medium?

Back 404

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

Front 405

Erysipelothrix is resistant to ___ but susceptible to ____

Back 405

vancomycin
penicillin

Front 406

Women who are colonized with lactobacilli are more or less likely to get bacterial vaginosis?

Back 406

less likely

Front 407

All Corynebacterium are catalase ____

Back 407

positive

Front 408

There are non-lipophilic as well as lipophilic species of Corynebacterium. True or False

Back 408

True

Front 409

Do lipophilic strains of Corynebacterium grow on chocolate agar?

Back 409

no

Front 410

Is Corynebacterium diptheria lipophilic or non-liphophilic?

Back 410

non-lipophilic

Front 411

B-corneyphage contains structural gene for _____

Back 411

diptheria

Front 412

Women who are colonized with lactobacilli are more or less likely to get bacterial vaginosis?

Back 412

less likely

Front 413

What toxin adenoribosylates EF2, which causes EF2 to become inactive, leading to inhibition of protein synthesis?

Back 413

Diptheria toxin

Front 414

All Corynebacterium are catalase ____

Back 414

positive

Front 415

White adherent membrane in posterior pharynx is first sign of infection, also bull neck appearance. What pathogen are we describing?

Back 415

Corynebacterium diptheria

Front 416

There are non-lipophilic as well as lipophilic species of Corynebacterium. True or False

Back 416

True

Front 417

Tellurite blood agar, Tinsdale agar and Loeffler's medium is used to identify what pathogen?

Back 417

Corynebacterium diptheria

Front 418

Do lipophilic strains of Corynebacterium grow on chocolate agar?

Back 418

no

Front 419

Diptheria is usually treated with erythromycin or penicillin. True or False?

Back 419

True

Front 420

Is Corynebacterium diptheria lipophilic or non-liphophilic?

Back 420

non-lipophilic

Front 421

B-corneyphage contains structural gene for _____

Back 421

diptheria

Front 422

What toxin adenoribosylates EF2, which causes EF2 to become inactive, leading to inhibition of protein synthesis?

Back 422

Diptheria toxin

Front 423

White adherent membrane in posterior pharynx is first sign of infection, also bull neck appearance. What pathogen are we describing?

Back 423

Corynebacterium diptheria

Front 424

Tellurite blood agar, Tinsdale agar and Loeffler's medium is used to identify what pathogen?

Back 424

Corynebacterium diptheria

Front 425

Diptheria is usually treated with erythromycin or penicillin. True or False?

Back 425

True

Front 426

Is Corynebacterium jeikeium lipophilic or nonlipophilic?

Back 426

lipophilic

Front 427

Corynebacterium urealyticus is associated with actue and chronic UTIs in elderly, compromised hosts, and animals. True or False?

Back 427

True

Front 428

Corynebacterium urealyticus is very urease positive. True or False?

Back 428

True

Front 429

The endospore of bacillus species form under ____ conditions

Back 429

aerobic

Front 430

Protective antigen, edema factor, and lethal factor are toxins produced by ____

Back 430

B. anthracis

Front 431

The genes that encode for the capsule of B. anthracis reside on the plasmid pXO2. True or False?

Back 431

True

Front 432

A painless eschar with edema is seen with people that are infected with ____

Back 432

B. anthracis

Front 433

Is pneumonia part of the disease presentation of inhalation anthrax?

Back 433

No

Front 434

Is b. anthracis hemolytic? motile?

Back 434

no, no

Front 435

Bacillus cereus causes ____

Back 435

food poisoning

Front 436

Diarrheal syndrome and Emetic syndrome is cause by Bacillus cereus. Diarrheal syndrome is caused by heat ___ toxin and Emetic syndrome is caused by heat ___ toxin

Back 436

heat labile
heat stable

Front 437

Other than B. anthracis should other strains of bacillus be treated with penicillins?

Back 437

No because they produce beta-lactamase

Front 438

Lung transplant patients are at highest risk for Nocardia infection. True or False?

Back 438

True

Front 439

What is the most common clinical manifestation of Nocardia?

Back 439

pulmonary infection

Front 440

This organism has a beaded appearance on modified acid fast and CNS infection/brain abscesses are common manifestations of this pathogen

Back 440

Nocardia

Front 441

Regional lymphadenopathy is usually present in nocardiosis. True or False?

Back 441

True

Front 442

What species of bacteria smells like a flooded basement?

Back 442

Nocardia

Front 443

What pathogen develops a cerebriform appearance when grown on agar?

Back 443

Nocardia

Front 444

What is the most effective treatment against Nocardia?

Back 444

Sulfamethoxazole/Trimethoprim

Front 445

Rhodococcus equi is asaccharolytic and urease ___

Back 445

positive

Front 446

Patients who suffer from walking pneumonia are colonized by _____

Back 446

mycoplasma pneumoniae

Front 447

Neisserira gonnorhae, Chlamydia trachomatis and Ureaplasma urealyticum are 3 pathogens that cause urethritis. True or False

Back 447

True

Front 448

dimorphic fungi grow as yeast at ___ temperature, as hyphae at ____temperature
(Use body vs. room)

Back 448

body
room

Front 449

Thrush is an infection of the oral mucosa caused by ____

Back 449

Candida albicans

Front 450

Onychomycosis is a fungal infection of the ____ that can be caused by Candida albicans

Back 450

nail

Front 451

Invasive infections of Candida albicans include endocarditis and pnemonia. True or False?

Back 451

True

Front 452

Cryptococcus neoformans is an encapsulated yeast with a ____ capsule

Back 452

mucoid

Front 453

The india ink test can be used to detect ____

Back 453

Cryptococcus neoformans

Front 454

Yeast infections of the vagina are caused by ____

Back 454

Candida

Front 455

immunocompromised people (AIDS, corticosteroids, hematologic malignancies, etc): serious disseminated infection with meningoencephalitis can be caused with this fungi

Back 455

Cryptococcus neoformans

Front 456

This fungi pathogen gives off the soap bubble appearance

Back 456

Cryptococcus neoformans

Front 457

Do Aspergillosis species have septaed hyphae?

Back 457

Yes

Front 458

Alleric broncopulonary asperillosis is caused by a Type ___ hypersensitivity reaction and overproduction if IgE

Back 458

I

Front 459

Allergic fungal sinusitis is associated with _____ (type of leukocyte) and can be caused by exposure to aspergillus

Back 459

eosinophils

Front 460

______ = proliferating mass of hyphae form mass in pre-existing cavity, space occupying lesion, develop in pre-existing cavity like from old TB

Back 460

Aspergilloma

Front 461

Invasive aspergillosis can lead to septic ____ and therefore infarction of many organs and can be seen in immunocompromised patients such as those who have gotten chemo

Back 461

Invasive aspergillosis

Front 462

Do Zygomycosis have septate or nonseptate hypae?

Back 462

nonseptate hyphae like twisted ribbons

Front 463

Rhinocerebral mucormycosis is caused when organisms invade through the nasal sinus. It is common in ___ patients due to its propensity to develop in people with acidosis

Back 463

diabetic

Front 464

Histoplasmosis occurs in what region of the US predominantly?

Back 464

Ohio and Mississippi River Valleys

Front 465

Histoplasma capsulatum is usually asymptomatic but can cause pneumonia in some cases. True or false?

Back 465

True, do form granulomas so can at times resemble TB infection

Front 466

Blastomycosis or "Broad based budding yeast" can cause ____ granuloma formation

Back 466

suppurative, with neutropils

Front 467

With cutaneous blastomycosis there is thick epithelial hyperplasia so the lesion resembles what type of carcinoma?

Back 467

squamous cell carcinoma

Front 468

San Joaquin Valley Fever is caused by what pathogen?

Back 468

Coccidioiodmycosis

Front 469

In what fungal infection will you see nonbudding spherules, filled with endospores, seen in macrophages?

Back 469

Coccidioiodmycosis

Front 470

What are two bacterial pathogens that cause subacute meningitis?

Back 470

mycobacterium TB
Treponema pallidum (syphilis)

Front 471

Can doxycycline be used to treat congenital syphilis?

Back 471

No because it is toxic to the fetus

Front 472

How does relapsing fever continue to occur?

Back 472

via antigenic variation

Front 473

What are the two major groups of acid fast staining bacteria??

Back 473

Mycobacteria and Nocardia

Front 474

Cord factor is found only in ____ strains of Mycobacterium B

Back 474

virulent

Front 475

When there is lymph node involvment is there development of a Ghon focus or a Ghon complex?

Back 475

Ghon complex

Front 476

MDR-TB is defined as resistance to both ___ and ___. Extremely drug resistant TB is defined as resistance to isoniazid, rifampin, flouroquinolone, and aminoglycoside

Back 476

isoniazid, rifampin

Front 477

Does mycolic acid have a capsule?

Back 477

Yes, it is composed of glucan and arabinomannan

Front 478

Mycobacterium arrests the maturation of _____to maintain them as a habitable environment

Back 478

phagosomes

Front 479

A granuloma usually contains a central necrotic region with a collar of ____

Back 479

lymphocytes

Front 480

A ____ represents a calcified tuberculous caseating granuloma (tuberculoma) and represents the sequelae of primary tuberculosis infection.
When associated with a calcified ipsilateral hilar node it is known as a ______.

Back 480

Ghon focus/lesion
Ghon complex

Front 481

Is tuberculoid leprosy considered paucibacillary or multibacillary?

Back 481

paucibacillary

Front 482

Are patients with M. avium usually symptomatic?

Back 482

No

Front 483

Is disseminated mycobacteria associated with MAC?

Back 483

Yes

Front 484

TB is the ___ most common infectious cause of death worldwide

Back 484

2nd

Front 485

Is a correctional facility and nursing home considered at high risk for TB?

Back 485

Yes

Front 486

What is the likelihood you will get active TB infection after being exposed to TB in the first two years? What is your lifetime risk? What is the lifetime risk for HIV positive patients?

Back 486

5%
10%
30%

Front 487

Sterile pyuria or pus in the urine suggests what clinical disease may be present in the patient?

Back 487

TB

Front 488

A budding tree is seen radiologically with the ____ spread of pulmonary TB

Back 488

bronchogenic spread

Front 489

Is bronchogenic spread more common in HIV or non-HIV patients?

Back 489

HIV

Front 490

Do smokers who get MAC usually get the fibrocavitary or fibronodular type?

Back 490

fibrocavitary
upper lobe disease

Front 491

What type of MAC does a nonsmoking women over 50 sometimes get?

Back 491

fibronodular

Front 492

How do you diagnose leprosy?

Back 492

skin biopsy of skin lesion show AFB in cutaneous nerve

Front 493

Is the skin surface of someone who has Lepromatous leprosy dry/scaly or shiny?

Back 493

shiny

Front 494

The ___ nerve is a commonly damaged nerve in leprosy leading to drooping of one side of the face

Back 494

facial

Front 495

To diagnose TB how many consecutive sputum specimens are need within 24 hour intervals?

Back 495

three

Front 496

Is culture the gold standard for detection of TB infection?

Back 496

Yes

Front 497

For TB is a NAAT and culture suppose to be done simulatenously?

Back 497

Yes

Front 498

The PPD test looks for infiltration of ___ lymphocytes

Back 498

CD4

Front 499

What are the four drugs used to treat TB?

Back 499

RIPE
Isoniazid, Rifampin, Pyrazinamide, Ethambutal

Front 500

For Paucibacillary TB one has to go on ___ and ___ for 6 months

Back 500

rifampin, dapsone

Front 501

For multibacillary TB, one has to go on what 3 drugs for 12 months?

Back 501

Rifampin, dapsone, clofazamine

Front 502

What antibotics are used to treat MAC?

Back 502

clarithromycin, azithromycin

Front 503

What drugs are multidrug resistant TB used against?

Back 503

Isoniazid and rifampin

Front 504

XDR TB is resistant to what?

Back 504

INH, rifampin, fluoroquinolone and one injectable agent

Front 505

Mobile genetic elements such as plasmids and transposons, which are known to mediate drug resistance in various bacterial species, do not do so in M. tuberculosis. True or False?

Back 505

True

Front 506

Is staphylcoccus catalase positive or negative? What about strep?

Back 506

staph = positive
strep= negative

Front 507

Is S. aureus, S. epidermis, or S. asprophyticus coagulase positive?

Back 507

S.aureus

Front 508

Which one (S. aureus, S. epidermis, or S. asprophyticus) produces beta-hemolytic golden colonies?

Back 508

S.aureus

Front 509

Is S. pnuemococcus alpha or beta-hemolytic?

Back 509

alpha

Front 510

Are Group A and Group B strep alpha or beta hemolytic?

Back 510

beta hemolytic

Front 511

Is S. pyogenes Group A or Group B strep?

Back 511

Group A

Front 512

Clumping factor is a virulence factor of what pathogen?

Back 512

S. aureus

Front 513

Does S. aureus have a capsule?

Back 513

Yes, serotypes 5,8 associated with human disease

Front 514

Protein A is a virulence factor of _____ that binds to the Fc region of IgG

Back 514

S.aureus

Front 515

mecA alleles confer ____ resistance to S.aureus.

Back 515

methicillin

Front 516

S. aureus produces ___ pigment (golden color). Thus it is an antioxidant that resists superoxides

Back 516

carotenoid

Front 517

Staphylokinase converts ____ to ____, it also cleaves antimicrobial peptides and inhibits complement

Back 517

plasmin to plasminogen

Front 518

CHIPs is a chemotaxis inhibitory protein produced by Staphylococci that binds to C5a and formyl peptide receptors on _____

Back 518

neutrophils

Front 519

The alpha toxin of Staph forms ____ that lead to cell lysis

Back 519

pores

Front 520

Which toxin is produced by S. aureus that hydrolyzes membrane phospholipids. It is also known as sphingomyelinase C?

Back 520

beta toxin

Front 521

Which Staph toxin has surfactant/detergent action?

Back 521

delta toxin

Front 522

PVL toxin is found in most (hospital or community) acquired MRSA Staph infections?

Back 522

community

Front 523

Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome is caused by _____ toxins and is seen mostly in what age group?

Back 523

exfoliative
younger children

Front 524

The enterotoxins of S. aureus cause what condition?

Back 524

food poisioning

Front 525

Is the food poisoning associated with S. aureus rapid onset or slow onset?

Back 525

rapid onset due to massive response to superantigens

Front 526

Toxic Shock Syndrome Toxin is associated with what pathogen?

Back 526

S. aureus

Front 527

Can toxic shock syndrome occur in areas of abscess formation?

Back 527

no, requires high oxygen and neutral pH, abscesses tend to be acidic

Front 528

Cutaneous infections, bacteremia, endocarditis, pneumonia, empyema, osteomyelitis, and septic arthritis are all manifestation of ____ infections of S. aureus

Back 528

suppurative

Front 529

Can you find the S.aureus bacteria in the bullae of SSSS or Ritter's Disease?

Back 529

no

Front 530

Bullous Impetigo can result from localized ____ infection and the bacteria can be found within blisters

Back 530

Staph

Front 531

Macular erthematous rash, in which the entire skin can desquamate can be a manifestation of toxic shock syndrome. What bacteria causes TSS?

Back 531

S. aureus

Front 532

Impetigo is superficial infection of the ____. There are pus-filled vesicles and is most common in children

Back 532

epidermis

Front 533

Folliculitis is infection around the ____

Back 533

hair follicle

Front 534

Furuncles, aka ____ is an extension of folliculitis. It is a collection of necrotic tissue

Back 534

boils

Front 535

Carbuncles are coalesced ____ that extend to deeper tissues, can lead to bacteremia and is often associated with chills and fevers indicating systemic spread

Back 535

furuncles

Front 536

Can staph cause acute endocarditis?

Back 536

Yes, high mortality rate (50%)

Front 537

Staph can cause both aspiration, hematogenous, and necrotizing pneumona. With hematogenous p. these strains usually express the toxin ____. Can lead to development of empyema or ____ in the pleural space. Necrotizing pneumonia is cause by what strain of S.aureus?

Back 537

PVL
pus
community acquired MRSA strains

Front 538

Osteomyelitis caused by S. aureus usually occurs where in children and where in adults?

Back 538

metaphyseal
vertebrae in adults

Front 539

Does septic arthritis occur in large joints usually?

Back 539

yes

Front 540

Does s. epidermidis cause endocarditis in artificial valves?

Back 540

Yes

Front 541

S. saprophyticus causes ____ in young, sexually active women

Back 541

UTIs

Front 542

What is the best way to make a diagnosis of S.aureus?

Back 542

Culture and PCR

Front 543

What antibiotic is the first line of defense against MRSA?

Back 543

vancomycin

Front 544

The vanA gene confers ___ resistance and was introduced to S. aureus via ____

Back 544

vancomycin
enterococcus

Front 545

Lancefield antigen is used to classify what pathogen?

Back 545

Streptococci

Front 546

What strep species does not have Lancefield antigen but is alpha hemolytic?

Back 546

S. pneumoniae

Front 547

Group D strep or S. bovis is now known as ____

Back 547

enterococcus

Front 548

Streptococcus Viridans, and particularly the species s. mutans causes ____

Back 548

dental caries

Front 549

Group A strep has a hyaluronic acid capsules that allows strep to hide from host immunity. True or False?

Back 549

True

Front 550

M protein, which functions as an antiphagocytic factor is a virulence factor for what pathogen?

Back 550

Group A Streptococcus

Front 551

There are 2 Classes of M proteins. Which class is the one that can cause rheumatic fever?

Back 551

Class I

Front 552

M protein binds to Factor ___ to inhibit complement deposition

Back 552

H

Front 553

Streptokinase cleaves plasminogen to release plasmin ultimately resulting in lysis of ___

Back 553

clots and fibrin

Front 554

Hemolysins make __ in host membranes

Back 554

pores

Front 555

Streptolysin O is immunogenic and can used to diagnose ___ and ___

Back 555

rheumatic fever and glomerulonephritis

Front 556

Is Streptolysin S oxygen stable or oxygen sensitive?

Back 556

oxygen stable

Front 557

Strep expresses DNAses that degrade DNA nets put out by ____

Back 557

neutrophils

Front 558

Strep toxins are ___ encoded

Back 558

phage

Front 559

____ may accompany pharyngitis caused by S. pyrogenes, considered a sequeale, one sign is strawberry tongue

Back 559

scarlet fever

Front 560

Erysipelas is infection of the ____ and has a sharply demaracted edge

Back 560

dermis

Front 561

Compared to erysipelas, is cellulitis sharply demarcated?

Back 561

No

Front 562

In what level of the skin is necrotizing fascitis found?

Back 562

subcutaneous tissue

Front 563

Necrotizing fasciitis is caused by what pathogen?

Back 563

Streptococcus

Front 564

Acute glomerulonephritis caused by Strep infection is caused by Type ____ hypersensitivity

Back 564

III due to deposition of antibody-antigen complexes

Front 565

Strep infections are highly susceptible to ____

Back 565

Penicillin G

Front 566

What strep species is the largest cause of neonatal meningitis, sepsis and pneumonia?

Back 566

S. agalactiae (Group B strep), lots of women are carriers of Group B strep

Front 567

S. pneumoniae is the most common cause of ____ in adults and children

Back 567

bacterial meningitis

Front 568

Treatment of what bacteria should be with linezolid, daptomycin, and tigecycline?

Back 568

vancomycin resistant enterococcus

Front 569

Repeated buildup of Strep Viridans can lead to ____

Back 569

subacute endocarditis

Front 570

Owl's eyes are characteristic of what virus?

Back 570

CMV

Front 571

HSV virus grows very well in rabbit kidney cells. True or False?

Back 571

True

Front 572

The hemagglutination inhibition test can be used to test for the Influenza virus. True or false

Back 572

True

Front 573

In a complement fixation test, if there is no RBC pellet, rather the RBCs have all been lysed, is this a positive or negative test?

Back 573

negative test

Front 574

Hepatitis virus testing is all done via ____

Back 574

serology

Front 575

For hepatitis, the first antibody to be detectable is ____, then followed by ____

Back 575

IgM, IgG

Front 576

To test a person for HIV, one first does a ____ test, than a confirmatory ____

Back 576

ELISA
Western blot

Front 577

Patients in terminal AIDS would no longer make antibody to ____

Back 577

p24

Front 578

What are the three main viral proteins that a HIV western blot is testing for?

Back 578

gp120, gp41, gp24

Front 579

The NAAT test for HIV detects ___

Back 579

HIV RNA

Front 580

The 4th generation HIV test is capable of detecting ____ antigen

Back 580

p24

Front 581

What is the difference between acute hepatitis B and chronic hepatitis B?

Back 581

acute = person will get virus but clear it
chronic = person will never get rid of the virus from their bodies

Front 582

What type of genome does hepatitis B have?

Back 582

double stranded circular DNA

Front 583

Is the concentration of HBV high in the blood?

Back 583

yes

Front 584

What percentage of people infected with HBV are chronic carriers?

Back 584

10%

Front 585

Does HBV have reverse transcriptase?/

Back 585

Yes

Front 586

What antigen of HBV is secreted into the extracellular space?

Back 586

E-antigen

Front 587

How do you prevent a child from getting Hep B when the mother has Hep B

Back 587

vaccinate at birth and also include complete hepatitis B immunoglobulin

Front 588

One can treat chronic HBV with nucleoside analogs that target the HBV _____

Back 588

polymerase

Front 589

Hepatitis D requires obligatory co-infection with ____

Back 589

hepatitis B

Front 590

The genome of Hepatitis D is a 1.7 kb single-stranded circular ___ genome which forms a rod structure

Back 590

RNA

Front 591

Does co-infection with HDV and HBV cause more extreme disease compared to HBV alone?

Back 591

Yes

Front 592

Does hepatitis D use host RNA polymerase or viral RNA polymerase?

Back 592

host polymerase

Front 593

HDV requires ____ for synthesis of envelope protein composed of HBsAg, which is used to encapsulate the HDV genome

Back 593

HBV

Front 594

If one is infected with HDV at a time of acute HBV infection there is severe acute disease but low risk of ____ infection

Back 594

chronic

Front 595

In superinfection of HDV on top of chronic HBV high titers of both IgM and IgG anti‑HDV are detectable, which persist indefinitely. True or False?

Back 595

True

Front 596

Infections with HDV are commonly associated with what practice?

Back 596

IV drug use

Front 597

HIV that infects macrophages use what co-receptor? HIV that infects CD4 T cells use what co-receptor?

Back 597

CCR5
CXCR4

Front 598

Gp___ first interacts with CD4 and then CCR5 co-receptors, leading to viral entry

Back 598

120

Front 599

The retroviral enzyme ___ covalently inserts the provirus into cellular chromosomes, with cellular DNA repair enzymes resolving the gaps

Back 599

integrase

Front 600

There are ____ binding sites on the HIV LTR that sense cellular environment. T-cell stimulation leads to the activation of the transcription factor

Back 600

NF-KB

Front 601

Is the proviral DNA of HIV double or single stranded?

Back 601

double stranded

Front 602

tet, rev, and nef are early or late HIV genes?

Back 602

early

Front 603

Are structural genes transcribed early or late for viruses?

Back 603

later

Front 604

Gag/Pol is generated as a consequence of a ____

Back 604

ribosomal frame shift event

Front 605

HIV tet stimulates transcriptional elongation by recruiting the Cdk9 kinase to the initiated transcript. True or False?

Back 605

True

Front 606

HIV Rev directs the export of ___ containing messages

Back 606

intron

Front 607

HIV vpr has a role in helping HIV infect nondividing cells because it is a ___ activator

Back 607

transcriptional

Front 608

HIV nef downregulates cell surface proteins such as CD4 and MHC Class I. True or False?

Back 608

True

Front 609

Gag, Gag/Pol, Env, and a dimer of genomic RNA assemble at the ____

Back 609

plasma membrane

Front 610

AIDs virus depletes CD4 T-cells where very quickly?

Back 610

GI tract

Front 611

Plasma HIV RNA copy numbers can be measured by real time ____

Back 611

PCR

Front 612

Immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome can occur with usage of highly active anti-retroviral therapy. True or False?

Back 612

True, CD4 T-cells become functioning again and release a bunch of cytokines

Front 613

Why is HIV env difficult to generate broadly neutralizing antibodies against?

Back 613

It is heavily glycosylated

Front 614

HSV avoids clearance by the immune system by hiding silently in ___

Back 614

sensory neurons

Front 615

Antigenic ____ is where mutations alter hemagglutinin epitopes so that neutralizing antibodys can no longer bind

Back 615

drift

Front 616

Antigenic ____ is where RNA segments are exchanged between viral strains in a secondary host

Back 616

shift

Front 617

What race has the highest prevelence of SLE?

Back 617

African American women

Front 618

People with an inherited defect in C1q are 20X more likely to get what autoimmune disease?

Back 618

SLE

Front 619

People with a TREX1 deficiency are more likely to get what autoimmune disease? Trex 1 is a DNA repair endonuclease

Back 619

SLE

Front 620

With SLE is there a decreased clearance of immune complexes?

Back 620

Yes

Front 621

Taking the oral contraceptive pill increases the risk of contracting this autoimmune disease by 50%

Back 621

SLE

Front 622

The malar rash seen from SLE is due to UV light induced injury. True or False?

Back 622

True

Front 623

With SLE, UV damage will cause immune complex deposition at the ____ junction

Back 623

dermal-epidermal

Front 624

Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis is seen in patients who suffer from ____ due to immune complex deposition in various areas of the glomerulus

Back 624

SLE

Front 625

Patients with lupus can develop pancytopenia which is they produce antibodies to cell surface antigens. True or false?

Back 625

True

Front 626

Anemia, neutropenia, and thrombocytopenia are all part of the pathogenesis of ____ in SLE

Back 626

pancytopenia

Front 627

Antiphospholipid antibody production leads to a hypercoagulable state in ____

Back 627

lupus

Front 628

Should you treat a patient suffering from lupus with glucocorticoids?

Back 628

Yes, reduce immune system response

Front 629

Do glucocorticoids increase or decrease platelet COX-2 production?

Back 629

decrease, therefore will decrease the production of prostaglandins and leukotrienes, leads to immunosuppressive effect

Front 630

Acute diarrhea is classified as lasting less than ___ days. Chronic diarrhea is classified as lasting for more than ___ days

Back 630

14
30

Front 631

Eating bad fried rise is linked to diarrhea with what pathogen?

Back 631

B. cereus

Front 632

Pregnancy associated Diarrhea is linked to what pathogen? You can also get this from eating coleslaw, milk cheese, poultry

Back 632

Listeria

Front 633

Diarrhea that is linked to daycare centers is more likely to be what pathogen?

Back 633

Shigella

Front 634

EAEC is assoicated with HIV diarrhea. True or False?

Back 634

True

Front 635

EIEC can lead to dysentary. True or False?

Back 635

True

Front 636

Are there white blood cells present in ETEC caused bacterial diarrhea?

Back 636

NOOOOOO

Front 637

All people with shigella are treated. What antibiotic is a good choice?

Back 637

Quinolones

Front 638

Are humans the only reservoir for Shigella?

Back 638

Yes

Front 639

Is a low or high inoculum of shigella need to cause infection?

Back 639

a low inoculum is sufficient as shigella is resistant to HCl of the stomach

Front 640

Does Shigella cause dysentary?

Back 640

Yes

Front 641

Should you treat ETEC caused diarrhea with anything other than oral rehydration if the diarrhea is not severe?

Back 641

no

Front 642

Loperamide is an anti-____

Back 642

diarrheal

Front 643

Is the diarrhea experienced with salmonella usually bloody or non-bloody?

Back 643

non-bloody

Front 644

Is aortic atherosclerosis a risk factor for increasing severity of salmonellosis?

Back 644

Yes

Front 645

What antibiotic should one give to patients who are infected with EHEC?

Back 645

absolutely nothing

Front 646

An antibody against beta2 glycoprotein is present in what autoimmune disease?

Back 646

SLE
leads to hypercoagulable state

Front 647

apical fibrocavitary disease is seen in reactivation TB. true or false?

Back 647

true

Front 648

What type of sample should be taken to stain for AFB when suspecting infection with TB?

Back 648

sputum sample

Front 649

Clarithromycin, ethambutol, and rifampin are used to treat ____

Back 649

MAC

Front 650

To be diagnosed with MAC one must have pulmonary symptoms and abnormal imaging. True or False?

Back 650

True

Front 651

To diagnosis M. leprae one should get a skin biopsy for AFB staining. True or False?

Back 651

True