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262 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Precursors in the ___ produce vitamin D
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skin
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What are the 2 major layers of the epidermis and what is their major function?
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stratum corneum- protection and water retention. cellular stratum- synthesizes keratin.
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What connects the epidermis to the dermis?
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The basement membrane
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Where are melanin and keratin synthesized?
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In the stratum germinativum
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What epidermal layer is only present in palms and soles?
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stratum lucidum
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Epidermis and cutaneous adipose tissue are separated by _____.
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Dermis
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What are dermal papillae?
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Upward projections of dermis that provide nourishment to the epidermis.
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What is contained in the dermis besides blood vessels?
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Elastin, collagen, reticular fibers, sensory nerve and nerves of the ANS.
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What connects the dermis to underlying organs?
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The hypodermis which is composed loose CT and fatty cells.
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What is the function of eccrine glands?
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regulate body temperature by secreting water directly onto the surface of the skin
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Where are eccrine glands found?
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found throughout the body except lip margins, eardrums, nail beds, and glans penis
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What is the function of apocrine glands?
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Secrete an odorless white fluid in response to emotional stimuli.
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Where are apocrine glands found?
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axilla, nipples, anogenital region, eyelids, and external ears
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Which glands are responsible for body odor?
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Body odor is created by bacterial composition of apocrine sweat.
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What is the function of sebaceous glands?
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secrete sebum to keep hair from drying out
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Where are sebaceous glands found?
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associated with hair
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What stimulates sebum production?
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hormones, especially testosterone
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How is hair formed?
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By epidermal cells that invaginate into the dermal layer
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What provides blood supply to the base of a hair follicle?
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the papilla
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Name and describe the 2 types of hair found in adults.
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vellus: short, fine, nonpigmented. teriminal: coarse, long, pigmented.
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What are the cyclic changes of hair growth?
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anagen (growth), catagen (atrophy), and telogen (rest)
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What marks the proximal end of the nail matrix?
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the lunula
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What is the eponychium?
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the cuticle- it is composed of stratum corneum
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What is the paronchium?
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The soft tissue surrounding the nail border.
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What is vernix caseosa?
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A mixture of sebum and cornified epidermis that covers the infant at birth.
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What is lanugo?
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fine hairs that cover the infant- shed 10-14 days after birth
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What sweat glands are functioning in a 1 month old baby?
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eccrine but not apocrine
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What happens to the skin and sweat glands of pregnant women?
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They increase in number and function, respectively.
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What happens in the sweat glands and skin of older adults?
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They decrease in function, and thickness, respectivley.
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What changes are seen in the hair of older adults?
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Terminal scalp hair changes to vellus hair, men's nose and ear hair transitions to terminal hair, and there is an overall loss of trunk and limb hair.
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What confers the highest risk for melanoma?
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previous melanoma, changing or atypical nevi, 1st degree relative with melanoma,
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What confers increased risk for melanoma?
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more than 50 nondysplastic nevi, congenital nevi greater than 15cm, immune supression, blistering sunburns, pale skin
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What are the risk factors for basal and squamous cell carcinoma?
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age 50+, UVA UVB exposure, freckles, blistering sunbuns, repeated irritation, precancerous dermatoses, or exposure to arsenic, creosote, coal tar, petroleum, or radioactivity
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Name some medications for hair loss.
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minoxidil, propecia, DHT inhibitors
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What are taxanes and anthracyclines?
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chemotherapy drugs
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When should sunscreen be applied?
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20 min before exposure as well as 2-3 hours after, and after swimming
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What equipment is needed for a skin exam?
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ruler, flashlight, magnifying lens, woods lamp
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What provides the best light for color variations?
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daylight
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What provides the best light for contour?
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tangential light
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What are corns?
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lesions often found on pressure points which are circumscribed, painful, hard, and smooth
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Describe a soft corn.
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caused by bone against soft tissue (between 4th and 5th toes)
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Describe a hard corn.
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sharply delineated and have conical appearance; occur over bony prominences where pressure is exerted
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What races have pigmentary demarcation lines?
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70% of blacks and 11% of whites
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Who are predisposed to nevi?
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Caucasians aged 40-50
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What are nonpigmented striae?
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stretch marks
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What are dysplastic nevi?
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mole with irregular border greater than 5mm usually on the trunk
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What distinguishes a melanoma from a nevus?
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border is more irregular, usually greater than 6mm, color variation within lesion
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What are the features of a halo nevus?
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depigmented halo around mole
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What is the occurrence of a halo nevus?
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back of young adult
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Should a halo nevus be removed?
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usually benign but biopsy is indicated
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What are the features of a intradermal nevus?
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Dome shaped with peduncles or hairs
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What is the occurrence of a intradermal nevus?
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cells of dermis
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Should an intradermal nevus be removed?
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no
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What are the features of a junction nevus?
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flat or slightly elevated, dark brown
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What is the occurrence of a junction nevus?
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nevus cells lining dermoepidermal junction
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Should a junction nevus be removed?
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remove if exposed to repeated trauma
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What are the features of a compound nevus?
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slightly elevated brownish papule with an indistinct border
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What is the occurrence of a compound nevus?
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nevus cells lining dermis and dermoepidermal junction
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Should a compound nevus be removed?
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remove if exposed to repeated trauma
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What is the occurrence of a hairy nevus?
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may be present at birth or develop later
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Should a hairy nevus be removed?
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should be removed if changes occur
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What is the color of a normal mole / dysplastic mole?
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uniform tan or brown / mixture of colors
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What is the shape of a normal mole / dysplastic mole?
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clear border / irregular border
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What is the surface of a normal mole / dysplastic mole?
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smooth flat or raised / smooth, scaly, or pebly
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What is the size of a normal mole / dysplastic mole?
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<6mm / >6mm
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What are the numbers of a normal mole / dysplastic mole?
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10-40 / normal or > 100
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What is the location of a normal mole / dysplastic mole?
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above waist on sun-exposed surfaces / anywhere but most commonly on back
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What is an ecchymoses?
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aka bruise, caused by injury
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What is a petichae?
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a discoloration not caused by trauma and < 0.5 cm
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What is a purpora
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a discoloration not caused by trauma and > 0.5 cm
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What is a telangictasia?
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name given to both capillary spiders and spider angiomas: permanenty dilated small blood vessels
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How do you distinguish capillary spiders from spider angiomas?
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capillary spiders: when blanched refill erratically. spider angiomas: when blanched refill unformly from the center outward
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What diseases can cause generalized brown skin?
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pituitary, adrenal, or liver disease
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What can cause localized brown skin?
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nevis or neurofibromatosis
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What can cause white skin?
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albinism or vitiligo
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What can cause localized red skin?
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inflammation
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What can cause generalized red skin?
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fever, viral exanthem, urticaria, polycythemia
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What can cause increased generalized yellow skin?
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liver disease
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What can cause increased generalized yellow skin except for sclera?
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hypothyroidism, increased dietary carotene
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What can cause blue skin on lips, mouth, and nail beds?
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CV and pulmonary diseases
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Give the definition and cause of purpuras.
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red-purple nonblanching discoloration > 0.5cm caused by intravascular defects and infection
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Give the definition and cause of petichae.
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red-purple nonblanching discoloration < 0.5cm caused by intravascular defects and infection
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Give the definition and cause of ecchymoses.
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red-purple nonblanchng discoloration of variable size caused by vascular wall destruction, trauma, and vasculitis
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Give the definition and cause of spider angioma.
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red central body with radiating spider-like legs that blanch with pressure to the central body caused by liver disease or vitamin B deficeincy
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Give the definition and cause of venous star.
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bluish spider that does not blanch with pressure caused by increased pressure in superficial veins
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Give the definition and cause of telangeictasia.
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Fine, irregular red lines caused by capillary dilation
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Give the definition and cause of capillary hemangioma.
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aka nevus flammeus: red irregular macular patches caused by dilation of dermal capillaries
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What is the cause of a rotten apple odor?
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clostridium gas gangrene
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What is the cause of a mousy odor?
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proteus infection
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What is the cause of a grapelike odor?
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pseudomonas infection (esp burns)
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What is the cause of a pungent odor?
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schizophrenia
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What is the cause of a stale beer odor?
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TB lymphadenitis (scrofula)
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What is the cause of a putrid odor?
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anaerobic infection (scurvy)
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What is the cause of a feculent odor?
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intestinal obstruction or peritonitis
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What is the cause of a mousy or musty odor?
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PKU
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Hyperkeratosis, especially of palms and soles, may be a sign of ____.
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arsenic or other toxic exposure
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A magnifying glass with the magnifying power of ___ is used to inspect skin lesions?
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5x-10x
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Describe and give an example of a macule.
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flat colored area < 1cm / freckles, moles, petechiae, measles, scarlet fever
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Describe and give an example of a papule.
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elevated area < 1cm / wart aka verruca, lichen
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Describe and give an example of a patch.
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flat, nonpalpable > 1cm / vitiligo, port-wine stains, mongolian spots, cafe-au-lait
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Describe and give an example of a plaque.
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elevated area with flat top > 1cm / psoriasis, seborrhea, actinic keratosis
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Describe and give an example of a wheal.
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elevated irregular area of cutaneous transitent edema / insect bites, utricaria, allergic reaction
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Describe and give an example of a nodule.
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elevated, firm, circumscribed lesion deeper than a papule 1-2cm / erythema nodosum, lipoma
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Describe and give an example of a tumor.
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elevated solid lesion > 2cm / neoplasms, benign tumor, lipoma
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Describe and give an example of a vesicle.
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Elevated, circumscribed, filled with serous fluid < 1cm / varicella, herpes zoster aka shingles
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Describe and give an example of a bulla.
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vesicle > 1cm / blister, pemphigus vulgaris
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Describe and give an example of a pustule.
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similar to vesicle but filled with purulent fluid / impetigo, acne
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Describe and give an example of a cyst.
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elevated, encapsulated lesion in dermis or subcutaneous layer / sebaceous cyst, cystic acne
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Describe and give an example of a telangeictasia.
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fine, irregular red lines produced by capillary dilation / telangectasia in rosacea
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Describe and give an example of a scale.
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heaped up keratinized cells, can be dry or oily / seborrheic dermatitis following scarlet fever or drug reaction
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Describe and give an example of a lichenification.
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rough, thickened epidermis secondary to mechanical irritation, often on flexor surface / chronic dermatitis
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Describe and give an example of a keloid.
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irregular, elevated, progressively-enlarging scar caused by excessive collagen formation during wound healing / keloid formation following surgery
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Describe and give an example of a scar.
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fibrous tissue that replaces skin following laceration / healed wound or incisions
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Describe and give an example of a excoriation.
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loss of epidermis with a linear or hollowed-out, crusted area / scratch or scabies
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Describe and give an example of a fissure.
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linear crack or break / athlete's foot, cracks at the
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Describe and give an example of a erosion.
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follows rupture of vesicle or bulla / varicella, variola after rupture
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Describe and give an example of a ulcer.
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concave loss of epidermis and dermis- decubiti, stasis ulcers
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Describe and give an example of a crust.
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Dried liquid of varied color / scab on abrasion, eczema
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Describe and give an example of a atrophy.
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skin thinning / striae or aged skin
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What skin lesions are found in regional areas?
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acne vulgaris, herpes zoster, psoriasis
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What skin lesions are found in generalized areas?
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utricaria, disseminated drug erruptions
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What skin lesions are found in localized areas?
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impetigo, herpes simplex, tinea corporis
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What skin lesions are round/ discoid shaped?
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nummular eczema
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What skin lesions are oval shaped?
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pitoryiasis rosacea
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What skin lesions are annular shaped?
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tinea corporis, sarcoidosis
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What skin lesions are zosteriform (following a nerve) shaped?
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herpes zoster
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What skin lesions are polycyclic shaped?
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psoriases,utricaria
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What skin lesions are linear shaped?
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contact dermatitis
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What skin lesions are iris/ target shaped?
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erythema multiform
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What skin lesions are stellate shaped?
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meningococcal septicemia
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What skin lesions are serpinginous shaped?
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cutatnia larva migrans
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What skin lesions are reticulate shaped?
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polyarteriris nodosa, lichen planus lesions of erythema infectiosum
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What skin lesions are morbilloform shaped?
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measles, roseola, drug eruptions
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What lesions have a discrete border?
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psoriasis
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What lesions have an indistinct border?
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nummular eczema
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What lesions have a active border?
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tinea eruptions
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What lesions have an irregular border?
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malignant melanoma
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What lesions have a raised border?
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basal cell carcinoma
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What lesions have a advancing border?
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cellulitis
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What lesions show central clearing with an erythematous border?
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tinea eruptions
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What lesions show desquamaination changes?
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rash of toxic shock syndrome
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What lesions show keratoic changes?
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aka hypertrophic stratum corneum, calluses and warts
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What lesions show punctuation changes?
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basal cell carcinoma
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What lesiosn show telangectasia changes?
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basal cell carcinoma, actinic keratosis
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What lesions show black pigmentation?
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malignant melanoma
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What lesions show pearly-white pigmentation?
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basal cell carcinoma
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What lesions show purple pigmentation?
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purpora, kaposi syndrome
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What lesions show violaceous pigmentation?
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erysipelas
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What lesions present on sun-exposed areas?
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lupus erythematous, viral exanthem, and porphyria
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What lesions present on cloth-covered areas?
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contact dermatitis and milaria
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What lesions present on flexor surfaces?
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atopic dermatitis, intertrigo, candidiasis, and tinea cruris
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What lesions present on extensor surfaces?
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psoriasis
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What lesions present on truncal areas?
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pitoryiasis rosacea (Xmas tree pattern), atopic dermatitis, drug reaction
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What lesions present on face, surface, and back areas?
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acne vulgaris, drug-induced acne, Cushing syndrome
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Use a broad spectrum sunscreen of SPF ____ or higher.
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SPF 30
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The sudden appearance of pigmented white bands in nails may indicate _____.
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melanoma
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Proximal subungal fungal nail infection is associated with _____.
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HIV
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Diffuse darkening of nails may arise from _____.
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antimalarial drugs, candidal infection, hyperbilirubinemia, or trauma
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Green-black nail discoloration is associated with ____.
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pseudomonas infection
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Causes of blue nails include ____.
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cyanosis, melanoma, silver poisining, medication, and Wilson disease (Cu metabolism defect)
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Longitudinal splinter hemorages in nails may indicate ______.
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endocarditis, vasculitis, and severe psoriasis
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Transverse rippling of the nail plate is caused by ____.
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inflammation of chronic paronychia of chronic eczema
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After injury of the nail matrix it takes ____ for the nail to resume normal appearance.
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6 months
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Depressions occuring in all the nails are usually a response to ____.
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Syphilis, high fever, peripheral vascular disease, or uncontrolled diabetes mellitus
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Nail pitting is most commonly seen with ____.
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psoriasis
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The nail bed angle should measure _____ degrees.
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160 degrees
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In clubbing, the angle of the nail approaches or exceeds ____ degrees.
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180 degrees
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Nail clubbing is associated with _____.
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respiratory and CV diseases, cirrhosis, colitis, and thyroid disease
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Separation of the nail plate from the bed is common in ____.
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psoriasis, trauma, candidial or pseudomonas infections,
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Beau lines are ____.
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transverse nail grooving
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Koilonychia is ____.
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upward curving "spoon nail"
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Onycholisis is _____.
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asymmetric separation of the nail bed
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Paronychia is ____.
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soft tissue infection around a nail
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Anonychia is
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absence of a nail
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Physiologic jaundice may be present to a mild degree in ____% of infants at birth.
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0.5
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What are expected color changes of the newborn?
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acrocyanosis, cutis marmorata, erythema toxicum, mongolian spots, and salmon patches
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What is acrocyanosis?
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cyanosis of hands and feet
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What is cutis marmorata?
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transient mottling when cold
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What is erythema toxicum?
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pink papular rash with vesicles- appears in 1-2 days and dissapears a few days after
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What are mongolian spots?
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irregular areas of deep blue pigmentation- seen in non White infants
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What are salmon patches?
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aka stork bites, localized pink areas
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What are the risk facors for infant hyperbilirubinemia?
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TSB or TcB >75%, other hemolytic disease, premature, breast-fed, Asian, male, discharged within 72 hrs.
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Faun tail nevus is associated with ____.
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spina bifida occulta
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Epidermal verrucus nevi is associated with ______.
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can be in wither linear or whorled pattern- skeletal, CNS, and occular abnormalities
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Cafe au lait macules are associated with ______.
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>5mm: neurofibromatosis, pulmonary stenosis, temporal lobe dysrhythmia, tuberous sclerosis
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Freckling in the axillary or inguinal area is associated with ______.
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neurofibromatosis
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Ash leaf macule is associated with ______.
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white macules associates with tuberous sclerosis
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Facial port wine stain is associated with ______.
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oclurar defects such as glaucoma, angiomatous malformation of meninges such as Sturge-Kalischer-Weber syndrome
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Port wine stain of limb or trunk is associated with ______.
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when accompanied with varicosities and soft tissue hypertrophy, associated with orthopedic problems (Klippel-Trenaunay-Weber Syndrome)
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Congenital lymphedema without transient hemangiomas is associated with ______.
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gonadal dysgenesis caused by ansence of X chromosome producing XO phenotype (Turner Syndrome)
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Supernumary nipples are associated with ______.
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renal abnormalities
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Hair collar sign is associated with ______.
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isolated cutaneous anomaly that may involve neural tube defects
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What is the study of crease patterns on the palms and soles?
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dermatoglyphics
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What is cutis marmorata?
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A newborn's mottled appearance is response to changing temperature.
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What is the NIH criteria for diagnosing Neurofibromatosis with Cafe au Lait spots?
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Prepubertal: more than 6 spots >5mm / Postpubertal: more than 6 spots >15mm
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What are Milia?
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Whitish papules on the face of a 2-3 month infant
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What does tenting of a newborn's abdomen for <2 seconds after pinching indicate?
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<5% loss of body weight dehydration
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What does tenting of a newborn's abdomen for 2-3 seconds after pinching indicate?
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5%-8% loss of body weight dehydration
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What does tenting of a newborn's abdomen for 3-4 seconds after pinching indicate?
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9%-10% loss of body weight dehydration
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What does tenting of a newborn's abdomen for >4 seconds after pinching indicate?
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>10% loss of body weight dehydration
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What is chloasma?
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mask of pregnancy
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____ after delivery, the mother sheds hair which will regrow in _____.
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2-4 months / 6-12 months
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Describe a Stage I Decubitus Ulcer
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Nonblanchable erythema of intact skin
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Describe a Stage II Decubitus Ulcer
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Partial-thickness skin loss involving epidermis or dermis
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Describe a Stage III Decubitus Ulcer
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Full-thickness skin loss, subcutaneous tissue damaged or necrotic, fascia intact
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Describe a Stage IV Decubitus Ulcer
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Extends into bone or muscle
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What are acrochordon?
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pedunculated skin tags
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What are solar lentigines?
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liver spots
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What is trichobezoar?
|
An obstructive clump of swallowed hair in the stomach
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Describe eczematous dermatitis.
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intercellular edema and epidermal breakdown, with history of allergies.
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What is the objective data for the acute, subacute, and chronic stages of eczematous dermatitis, respectively?
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erythematous, prutitic, weeping vesicles / erythema and scaling / thick, lichenified, pruritic plaques
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What is the objective data for atopic dermatitis?
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lichenified plaques of childhood: lesions of flexures, nape, and dorsal limbs / of puberty onward: flexures, head and neck
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Describe folliculitis.
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Follicular-based pustules. Risk factors include: mechanical irritation, immunosuppression, dermatitis, antibiotics, diabetes mellitus, or EGRF inhibitor meds
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What is the objective data for folliculitis?
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pustule 1-2cm
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Describe a furuncle.
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aka boil, commonly caused by staphylococcus aureus, acute onset, tender nodule that becomes pustular
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Describe cellulitis.
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most cases caused by streptococcus pyogenes or staphylococcus aureus, red hot tender irregular break in skin, may have fever, lymphangitic streaks and regional lymphadenopathy
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Describe Tinea.
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Aka dermatophytosis, infection spread by direct contact, organisms survive on dead keratin, may report pruritis.
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What is the objective data of tinea?
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Varied, may be papular, pustular, vesicular, erythematous or scaling. Microscopic skin exam with KOH shows hyphae
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Describe Pitriasis Rosea.
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Sudden onset of herald patch with eruption 1-3 weeks later, pruritis may be present, erythematous with fine scaling, soles and face usually not involved, truck lesions usually in christmas tree pattern
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Describe Psoriasis
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Multifactorial with genetic component marked by increased keratin production with scale, may have pruritis, well-circumscribed, silvery scaling papules and plaqes, commonly on back, buttocks, extensor surfaces, and scalp.
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Describe Rosacea.
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Episodes of variable duration over the course of years, never itches but has stinging pain, can be triggered by exposure, emotion, or food / alcohol.
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What is the objective data of rosacea?
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Eruptions on forehead, cheeks and nose. Telangectasia, erythema, papules, and pustules on central face. Resembles acne but with no comedones. Rinophyma (nose hypertrophy) possible.
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Describe Herpes Simplex.
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Type I oral and Type II genital, tenderness, pain, parastheisas, grouped vesicles erupt then crust lasting 2-6 weeks
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Describe drug eruptions.
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Immunologically mediated: IgE, cytotoxic, immune complex, cell-mediated hypersensitivity. Non-immunologically mediated: direct release of mast cell mediators. Rash appears from 1-several days after drug, pruritis, discrete of confluent erythematous macules and papules that fade in 1-3weeks
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Describe Acnthosis Nigricans.
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Caused by insulin resistence, hyperinsulinism, malignant form results from insulin-like growth activity of TGF-alpha which stimulates keratinocyte proliferation. Youth = benign or inherited, older adult = malignant.
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What is the objective data of Acnthosis Nigricans?
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symmetric thickening of the skin on flexural areas such as the armpit, hands or mucosal surfaces may mean malignancy
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Describe cutaneous anthrax.
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Biological warfare with gram positive Bacillus anthracis, non-communicable, 12 incubation on previous abrasion, eventual nevrosis with lymphangitis.
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Describe smallpox.
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Possible biological warfare with variola virus. Direct transmission by saliva, incubation 7-17 days after exposure, rash on mucosa that spreads, high fever, headache, back ache.
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Describe Basal Cell Carcinoma.
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Most common skin cancer. May be nodular, pigmented, cyctic, sclerosing, and superficial, mostly on exposed areas, sores that are crusty and itchy.
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What is the objective data of basal cell carcinoma?
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Shiny nodule of varied color, open sore, scar-like with poor borders
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Describe Squamous Cell Carcinoma.
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Second most common skin cancer. Malignant tumor of epithelium. Exposed area, persistent sore or lesion, elevated, wart-like, scaly, open sore.
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Describe Malignant Melanoma.
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Lethal cancer of melanocytes. Highly migratory, changing mole, family history, use ABCDEs.
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Describe Kaposi's Syndrome.
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A neoplasm of the endothelium and epithelium. Caused by Herpes Virus, associated with HIV, peripheral lymphedema, cutaneous lesions soft vascular and purple, usually on skin but can involve mucosa or any organ.
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Describe Alopecia Areata.
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Sudden rapid patchy hair loss of round areas with brittle hair. Regrowth begins in 1-3 months.
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Describe Paronychia.
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Bacteria between nail fold and plate, acute or chronic, redness tenderness purulent drainage.
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Describe Onchomycosis.
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Nail fungus, discomfort, hyperkeratosis and onycholysis (separation). Unlike, psoriasis, there is no pitting.
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Describe Subungal hematoma.
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Blood eruption under nail due to trauma.
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Describe Leukonychia Punctata.
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White spots due to trauma.
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Describe oncholysis.
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Nail separation due to trauma, candida, pseudomonas, allergic contact dermatitis or hyperthyroidism, painless.
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Describe Koilonchia.
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Aka spoon nails due to iron deficiency, syphillis, fungus or hyperthyroidism- nail concavity.
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Describe Beau Lines.
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Due to coronary occlusion, hypercalcemia, or skin disease. Transverse depressions at bases of lunula that disappear when nails grow.
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Describe White Banding on nails.
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aka Terry Nails, associated with cirrhosis, chronic congestive heart failure, adult-onset diabetes mellitus, and age: transverse white bands cover the nail except for a narrow zone at the distal tip.
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Describe Psoriasis on nails.
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Chronic and recurrent disease of keratin synthesis marked by pitting, oncholysis, sunungal thickening, yellow scaly debris, splinter hemorrhages.
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Describe warts on a nail.
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Aka periungal growths, occur at the nail fold and extend under the nail
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Describe digital mucous cysts.
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Result from localized fibroblast proliferation, induce longitudinal nail groove, if found on DIP they are probably caused by herniation of tendon sheaths or joint linings related to ganglion and synovial cysts.
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Name 2 skin lesions of pregnant women.
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PUPPP and herpes gestationis.
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Describe PUPPP.
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aka Pruritic Utricarial Papules and Plaques of Pregnancy: a benign dermatosis that arises late 3rd trimester. Usually resolves after delivery with no recurrence in future pregnancies, marked intense puritic rash that begins on the abdomen (sparing periumbilicus) spreading to thighs, buttocks, and arms. May have white halo around papules, small vesicles only, not on palms and soles (large or on palms and soles suggests herpes)
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Describe herpes gestationis
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aka pemgoid gestationis is an autoimmune disorder of pregnancy, mother can develop skin necrosis and kidney damage. Marked by intense unrelenting puritis, Erythematous utricarial patches and plaques progressing to vesicles and blisters found on periumbilicus, palm and soles.
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Describe Seborrheic Dermatitis.
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In infants, chronic recurrent erythematous scaling located in areas of high sebaceous gland concentration such as scalp, back, intertrigenous and diaper areas. Most common in first 3 months of life, parent reports greasy scalp with rash, "cradle cap" is yellow, lesions elsewhere are red.
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Describe Miliaria Rubra.
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aka prickly heat, caused by sweat duct occlusion in infants: irregular red macular rash usually on covered areas of skin.
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Describe Impetigo.
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Common and contageous, caused by staphlococcal or other type of infection, usually on face, small erythematous macule that changes into a thin vesicle or bulla with honey-colored crust, may have regional lymphadenopathy.
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Describe Acne Vulgaris.
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Androgens stimulate excess sebum and keratinization is disrupted by impaction of pilosebaceous canal. Noninflammatory = comedones. Inflammatory = papules or nodules.
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Describe Varicella.
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aka chickenpox, caused by VZV (varicella zooster virus?), incubation 2-3 weeks, communicatble via droplets/ airborne, communicable window 2 days before crusting, causes fever headache sore throat malaise, maculopapular becoming vesicular. Can appear everywhere, even buccal mucosa or conjunctiva.
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Give possible complications of Varicella.
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Secondary bacterial infection, viral pneumonia, encephalitis, aseptic meningitis, myelitis, Guillian-Barre syndrome, and Reye syndrome
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Describe Measles.
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aka Rubeola, a virus of respiratory epithelium that spreads in leukocytes to reticuloendothelial system. Communicable from a few days before fever to 4 days after rash. Preventable by immunization. Characteristic prodromal fever, conjunctivitis, coryza, and bronchitis followed by red bloctchy rash on face that spreads.
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What is the objective data of Measles?
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Koplik spots (discrete white macular lesions) on buccal mucosa. Rash lasts 4-7 days. Also causes infection of respiratory tract and CNS.
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Describe German Measles.
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aka Rubella, similar to Measles except it causes fever. Contagious 10 days before to 15 days after rash. Forschheimer spots (reddish spots) on soft palate.
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Describe Trichtillomania.
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aka hair pulling. Hair has irregular density and border.
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Describe Stasis Dermatitis.
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Caused by venous insufficiency in older adults, occurs on lower legs. Marked by sense of fullness or dull aching on lower legs, gradually increases erythema, itch, or pain. Appears red, scaling, weeping, or ulcerous. May be acute, subacute, chronic, or recurrent.
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What is angular cheilitis?
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Deep fissures in corners of mouth from riboflavin deficiency or overclosure of mouth
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What is actinic cheilitis?
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Dry scaly lips
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What is Peutz-Jeghers Syndrome?
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spots on lips and oral mucosa, usually associated with GI polyps
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