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348 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
DEFINE Anatomical Position
person standing erect, arms to the side, and thumbs rotated laterally
What makes up the CNS?
brain, brainstem (midbrain, Pons, Medulla), and Spinal cord
What makes up the PNS?
12 pairs of cranial NN, 31 pairs of Spinal NN
Where do the 12 cranial nn originate?
brainstem
What do the 12 cranial nn innervate?
head, neck, and face
What is the ONE cranial n that innervates things other than the head, neck, and face?
vagus nerve
What does the Vagus N innervate?
visceral structures of abdomen and thorax
What do NN of the ANS innervate?
viscera in the thorax, abdomen, and pelvic areas
How many pairs of Spinal NN are there?
31
Where does a typical spinal n originate from?
ventral and dorsal horns of the spinal cord
What do the spinal nerves break off into?
the main peripheral nn of the body
How many rootlets make up a root?
6 or 7
How long are the root usually?
1 inch
What do the spinal nn break into after passing through the intervertebral foramen?
ventral and dorsal rami (here become major nerves of body)
DEFINE dermatome
skin innervated by a particular peripheral n
DEFINE myotome
mm innervated by a particular peripheral n
DEFINE sclerotome
CT innervated by a particular peripheral n
What 2 systems make up the circulatory system?
cardiovascular system and lymphatic system
What structures make up the lymphatic system?
lymphatic vessels and lymph nodes
What is the main function of the lymphatic system?
it is a means of returning interstitial fluid and its components to the blood of the cardiovascular system.
Describe the flow of the lymphatic system
kinterstitial fluid (lymph)--lymphatic capillaries--lymphatic vessels--lymph nodes--lymphatic vessels--major lymphatic vessels
What are the 2 major lymphatic vessels?
rt. lymphatic duct and thoracic duct
What does the rt lymphatic duct drain?
rt. side of head, face, neck, thorax, and rt upper extremity
What does the rt. lymphatic duct drain into?
rt. brachiocephalic V
What does the thoracic duct drain?
Everything that the r. lymphatic duct does not drain
What does the thoracic duct drain into?
L brachiocephalic V
What is the largest lymphatic duct in the body?
thoracic duct
What are other functions of the lymphatic system?
-return escaped protein molecules to cardiovascular (CV) system
-carries newly formed plasma proteins to CV system
-manufacture new lymphocytes and monocytes (white blood cells)
-filters out foreign matter in lymph nodes
-involved in immunological activity in body
-it is a means where cell can proliferate
Where are lymphocytes and monocytes manufactured?
lymph nodes
What parts of immunological immunity is the lymphatic system involved with?
cellular immunity and humor immunity
What does cellular immunity do?
sensitizes lymphocytes
what disease occurs when sensitized lymphocytes stop working correctly?
AIDS
Where are lymphocytes sensitized by cellular immunity?
lymph tissue
What is humor immunity?
when lymphocytes are able to produce antibodies
What aides in the spread of cancer within a body?
lymph nodes, because this provides a means that cells can proliferate and then move throughout the body
What are other organs that are made up of lymphatic tissue?
spleen, thymus, tonsils, adenoids
What control smooth m contraction?
ANS
What controls cardiac m contractions?
ANS and intrinsic pacing mechanism of heart (ie- SA/AV nodes, pacemaker cells)
What Characteristics are seen in a Tendon of Origin?
closer to midling and is less movable
What characteristics are seen in a tendon of insertion?
distal to midline, movable, attach to part of body m moves
DEFINE tendons
CT made up of collagen (type of protein) and attach Muscle to Bone
DEFINE Ligaments
CT made of collagen and attach Bone to Bone
What is the primary function of ALL skeletal mm?
move body (locomotion)
What sort of physics system does the body use to move?
lever
DEFINE Fulcrum
pt. around which something pivots (ie-articulations of skeletal system)
DEFINE lever
bar moving around a fixed point
(ie-bones)
DEFINE force or energy source
force to move something (ie-skeletal mm contract to move levers around fulcrums)
DEFINE weight or resistance
Outside force acting against body (ie-gravity)
What is the most common type of lever system in the body?
Type III
DEFINE Type III lever system
M crosses joint that is moves (ie-Deltoid M crosses shoulder joint to move arm)
What is the function of the vertebral column?
-protect spinal cord and spinal roots
-provides a rigid but flexible axis for the trunk
-provides a pivot pt. for the head to move
posture and gait
What is the name of the joint that provides a pt for the head to move around?
atlantoccipital joint
What movements can the vertebral column allow?
flexion (bend forward)
extension (bend backward)
lateral bending
circumduction (rotate around pelvis)
What are the 3 curvature deformaties of the vertebral column?
kyphosis, lordosis, and scoliosis
DEFINE kyphosis
extreme posterior curvature (humpback)
DEFINE Lordosis
extreme lumbar curvature (swayback)
DEFINE scoliosis
abnormal lateral curvature
How many vertebrae make up the vertebral column?
33
What 2 ligaments attach to the body of a vertebra?
anterior and posterior longitudinal ligaments
What cellular processes come off of the vertebral arch?
1 spinous process, 2 superior articulating processes, 2 inferior articulating processes, 2 transverse processes
where on the occipital bone does the atlas articulate with it?
occipital condyles
What is the joint that is formed between the occipital bone and the atlas?
atlantocciptal joint
What joint is formed between the atlas and axis?
atlantoaxial articulation
What is the purpose of the axis?
allow head to bend side to side (ie nod)
What is the purpose of the dens?
prevents horizontal displacement of the axis which would damage the spinal cord.
What is another name for the vertebra C7?
Prominent Vertebra
What is unique about the spinous processes of cervical vertebra?
They are bifed
Which cervical vertebra does the vertebral A NOT pass through the transver foramen?
C7
What is the purpose of the transverse foramena of the cervical vertebra?
allow passage of the vertebral A
What is unique about the body of the thoracic vertebra?
they have sup./inf. costal facets
What is unique about T1-T10 in regards to costals?
have costal facets on the transverse processes as well as on the body
What part of the costal do the transverse costal facets articulate with?
tubercle of the costal
What does the sacrum articulate with?
the ileum of the pelvis
How many pair of ant/post foramena does the sacrum have?
4 anterior and 4 posterior
What passes through the anterior and posterior foramena of the sacrum?
the dorsal and ventral roots
Where do the pia mater and dura mater end?
saccral hiatus
How many fused vertebra make up the coccyx?
3-5
FUNCTION coccyx
mm attachment
ligament attachment
What is the nucleous pulposus and evolutionary remnant of?
notachord
What does the ant. surface of the intervertebral disc attach to? posterior surface?
Anterior longitudinal lig (strong)
Posterior longitudinal lig (weak)
FUNCTION intervertebral disc
absorb energy (shock) and dissipate it so it does not concentrate on the next vertebra.
DEFINE hernia
one anatomical structure is protruding into another anatomical area
What is a spinal hernia?
When the nucleous pulposus of the intervertebral disc protrudes through the annulous pulposus and into the spinal column and pinches spinal cord and roots
In which region of the vertebral column do most spinal hernias occur? Which is second most common?
lumbar
cervical
What joint is formed between vertebrae?
zygophosphygeal joint
What is the importance of the zygophocphygeal joint?
facilitates movements of spine
From what point (in regards to the vertebral column) does the spinal cord run?
magnum foramen to L2
How much of the vertebral column does the spinal cord run?
upper 2/3
What is the rostral end of the spinal cord continuous with?
Medulla oblongata
What protects the spinal cord?
vertebral canal, 3 meninges, cerebral spinal fluid (CSF), and ligaments of vertebra
DEFINE conus medullaris
tapered terminal pt. of spinal cord (begins around L2)
DEFINE filum terminalis
continuation of Pia Mater past the conus medullaris and connects w/ coccyx (not neurological)
DEFINE cauda equine
collection of dorsal and ventral roots that descend through the vertebral canal until they exit the vert. column
Where are the roots and rootlets of the cauda equina found in specifically?
suparachnoid space
What is the general function of all meninges?
protect, stabalize and immobilize the brain and spinal cord
What are some characteristics of the Dura Mater?
vascular, thick, terminates at coccyx
Where does the Dura Mater attach itself?
magnum foramen (superiorly)
post. long. lig. (ventrally)
How far does the Dura Mater extend laterally?
into the intervertebral foramen
What suspends the spinal cord within the dura mater?
denticulate ligs.
What makes up denticulate ligaments?
pia mater
How many pairs of denticulate lig. are there?
21
What are some characteristics of arachnoid mater?
thin, avascular, continuous w/ arachnoid mater of brain, seperated from dura mater by small, POTENTIAL space
What is the name of the small, potential space between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater?
subduraol space
What fills the subarachnoid space?
CSF
Where is CSF found?
subarachnoid space in spine and brain and ventricular system of brain
Where is CSF formed?
lateral ventricals (1st and 2nd ventrical), 3rd ventrical, and 4th ventrical
What exactly manufactures CSF?
choroid plexus of 1st-4th ventricals
What are some characteristics of CSF?
clear, no color
protein free
contains electrolytes
What is one illness that can be diagnosed by the CSF?
meningitis
What is continuous with the subarachnoid space but goes by a different name?
ventricular system
What are the 4 major arterial blood supplies to the spinal cord?
r/l post. spinal aa, ant. spinal a, and radicular aa
Which aa that supply the spinal cord are a branch off the vertebral aa?
r/l post. spinal aa
How far down the spinal cord does the post. spinal aa supply?
1/3 of way down posteriorly
What makes up the ant. spinal a?
2 fused branches off of the vertebral a
how far down the spinal cord does the ant. spinal a supply?
1/3 of way down anteriorly
What 3 aa anastomose through lateral branches in the spinal cord region?
r/l post. spinal aa, ant. spinal a
What part of the spinal cord do the radicular aa supply?
lower 2/3 of spinal cord
Where do the radicular aa come off of?
vertebral aa, post. intercostal aa, lumbar aa
What are characteristics of superficial back mm?
-attach to upper extremity
-involved w/ moving upper extremity
*therefore extrinisic mm
DEFINE extrinsic mm
mm that move an anatomical area other than where they are found (ie- trapezius found on back but moves arm)
What are characteristics of intermediate back mm?
-insert into ribs
-involved w/ breathing
-extrinisic
What are characteristics of deep back mm?
-attach to spine
-intrinsic
DEFINE intrinsic mm
mm that move the anatomical area where they are found (ie-transversospinalis m found on the back and moves the spine)
What innervates the mm of the back in general?
dorsal and ventral rami of spinal nn
What specifically innervates the superficial and intermediate mm of the back?
ventral rami
What specifically innervates the deep mm of the back?
dorsal rami
What are characteristic of the thoracolumbar fascia?
thick, dense fascia that overlies tendon of latissimus dorsi
How many layers does the thoracolumbar fascia have? names?
2; dorsal and ventral
FUNCTION thoracolumbar fascia
-stabilize lumbar region
-hold mm together
-act as origin site
CHARACTERISTICS trapezius m
-extrinsic, superficial back m
-triangular
-3 parts: superior, middle, inferior bellies
ORIGIN trapezius m
superior nuchal line
ext. occipital protuberance
ligamentum nuchae (assoc w/ cervical vertebra)
Spinal processes C7-T12
INSERTION trapezius m
spine and acromion of scalpula
INNERVATION trapezius m
spinal accessory n and ventral rami of C3 and C4
FUNCTION trapezius m
-extends and laterally bends the head
-ADducts scalpula
What is Avascular necrosis?
cellular death of bone resulting from a temporary or permanent loss of blood supply
Where is avasucular necrosis normally seen?
femoral neck fracture
In what age group of people is avascular necrosis usually seen in?
elderly
What are the 2 main reasons people nee joint replacement?
degenerative joint disease and joint destruction
Which type of joint is commonly affected by degeneratice joint disease and joint destruction?
large joints (hip, knee, shoulder)
Are both sides of a joint normally replaced at the same time?
yes
What is muscular atrophy?
a wasting disorder of muscle
What can cause muscular atrophy?
long-term rest and disuse of mm
What is an example of a surgery that often results in muscular atrophy?
ACL reconstruction often causes quad atrophy due to disuse
What are Varicose Veins?
tortuos dilated veins thattypically occur in the legs
What causes varicose veins?
increased volume and pressure in veins produces dilation and tortuosity
What are some results of having varicose veins?
skin may become pigmented and atrophic w/ poor response to tissue damage
How do you treat varicose veins?
superficial veins can be excised and stripped, allowing blood only to drain into the deep system
What is Spina Bifida in general?
a disorder in which the two sides of vertebral arches, usually in lower vertebrae, fail to fuse during development--resulting in an "open" vertebral canal
What are the 2 types of spina bifida?
Spina bifida occulta and Spina Bifida (severe)
What is Spina bifida occulta?
defect in the vertebral arch of L5 or S1, most common-cuases a failure of the posterior arch to fuse in the midline
What is Spina bifida (severe)?
results from complete failure of fusion of the posterior arch at the lumbosacral junction with a large outpouching of meninges, may hold CSF
What is scoliosis (general)?
an abnormal lateral curvature of the vertebral column
What is "True" scoliosis?
involves a rotational element of one vertebra upon another
What is the most common type of scoliosis? When does this type of scoliosis tend to appear?
idiopathic scoliosis which is never present at birth, but appears in infantile/juvenile/adolescent age groups. All vertebral bodies are normal
What is congenital scoliosis?
it is present from birth, with a strong association with other abnormalities of the chest wall, genitourinary tract, and heart disease
What is Neuropathic scoliosis?
a menifestation of central or peripheral nerve abnormalities
What is a common example of scoliosis associated w/ abnormal mm?
muscular dystrophy
What is a herniation of intervertebral discs?
When there is a tear in annulus fibrosus that can allow nucleus pulposus to push through into the vertebral canal
What can the nucleus pulposus do once it pushes into the vertebral canal or vertebral foramen?
impinge on neural structures`
What often results from a herniated intervrtebral disc?
severe back pain
What are cervical protrusions?
protrusion of annulous fibrosus that can ossify and become disc osteophyte bars (occurs in cervical area)
Why is the sternum a common place get bone marrow from a patient?
sternum has a hard outer cortex that can withstand a needle into the internal cavity containing bone marrow
What can bone marrow help diagnose?
certain blood diseases such as leukemia
What is pericarditis?
an inflammatory condition of the pericardium
What are some common causes of pericarditis?
viral and bacterial infections, systemic illnesses, post-myocardial infarction
What can pericarditis be mistake for? Is it dangerous if a patient is misdiagnosed?
myocardial infarction. Dangerous due to treatment differences
What can you use to distinguish between pericarditis and myocardial infarction?
ECG
What are the 2 basic types of heart valve problems?
incompetence-poorly functioning valves
stenosis-narrowing of orifice, valve doesn't fully open
What is Mitral valve disease?
mixed pattern of incompetence and stenosis
What are some heart change is someone has Mitral valve disease?
-left ventricular hypertrophy
-increased pulmonary venous pressure
-pulmonary edema
-enlargement and hypertrophy of left atrium
What is aortic valve disease?
both aortic stenosis and regurgitation
What can cause valve disease on the right side of the heart? What can it induce?
most likely cuased by infection. Can induce cardiac failure
What is coarctation of the aorta?
a congenital abnormality in which the aortic lumen is constricted distal to the origin of the left subclavian artery
What results from coarctation of the aorta?
limited blood flow to the lower limbs
How does the body compensate for coarctation of the aorta?
collateral vessels develop to deliver blood to lower limbs and causes heart to work harder to pump blood to the peripheries, can cause heart failure
Where is the most common place for inguinal hernias?
groin of the lower abdominal wall
What can cuase congenital inguinal hernias?
caused by persistence of processes vaginalis and the passage of viscera through the inguinal canal
What can cause acquired hernias? What age group is most susceptible to this type of hernia?
raised inter-abdominal pressure (excessive coughing), damaged nn of ab. wall, weak inguinal canal walls. Usually in older patients
What are some problems that can arise from having an inguinal hernia?
-bowel and fat may become stuck in hernia sac causing bowel obstruction needing urgent surgery
-strangulation: where blood supply to the bowel is cut off at the neck of hernia sac, renders bowel ischemic and susceptible to perforation
What is an indirect inguinal hernia?
passes lateral to the inferior epicastris vessels, may pass through superficial inguinal ring
What is a direct inguinal hernia?
medial to the inferior epigastric vessels, passes through the inguinal ring
How can you diagnose whether an inguinal hernia is indirect or direct?
You can not make this diagnosis until surgery
In what sex are inguinal hernias more common? why?
men, due to larger inguinal canals
What are femoral hernias?
viscera pass through the femoral canal and into the medial aspect of the anterior thigh
What is can be caused by femoral hernias?
bowel strangulation due to positioning and narrowing of femoral canal
Are femoral hernias acquired of congenital?
acquired
If what group of people are femoral hernias most common in? Why?
middle-aged to elderly women due to wider pelvises
How common are umbilical hernias?
They are RARE
What causes conginital umbilical hernias?
failure of small bowel to return to abdominal cavity during development
What can cause acquired umbilical hernias?
incomplete closure of the umbilicus (naval)
When do most umbilical hernias close?
within the first year of life
What are para-umbilical hernias?
occur in adults around/at the umbilicus and often have small necks requiring surgical treatment
What is the greater omentum?
fatty double-layered vascular membrane which hangs like an apron over the transverse colon and lies freely suspended within the abdominal cavity
What is the purpose/function of the greater omentum?
"policeman of teh abdomen." apparent ability to migrate to any inflamed area and wrap itself around the organ to wall off inflammation
What is a major problem that can arise from the greater omentum?
important site for metastatic tumor spread. Direct omental spread by the transcoelomic route is common for carcinoma of the ovary.
What is a gastronomy?
it is a surgery that is performed when the stomach is attached to teh anterior abdominal wall and a tube is placed through the skin to the stomack
When is a gastronomy performed?
When a patient is incapable of taking food normally
How is a gastronomy performed?
Either surgically or through a direct needlestick in the anterior abdominal wall
What is a hiatus hernia?
When the fundus of the stomach herniates into the mediastinum if the diaphragm is lax at the level of the esophageal hiatus
What can a hiatus hernia cause?
Acid reflux, and ulcerations may occur producing bleeding and anemia
How is a hiatus hernia diagnosed?
through barium studies or endoscopy
What is a major problem of kidney transplants?
tissue rejection
Where are transplants attained from?
Either living or deceased donors
What do deceased kidney's come with that kidneys from a living person do not?
small cuff of aortic and venous tissue and the ureter
Where is the ideal placement of a kidney transplant? Why?
left or right iliac fossa, becuase able to leave everything else undisturbed
What is deep vein thrombosis?
potentially fatal condition where a clot is formed in teh deep venous system of the legs and then veins of the pelvis
How is deep vein thrombosis diagnosed?
patients undergo a D-dimer blood test, measure levels of fibrin degradation product; high=high probability of deep vein thrombosis
What are some complications that can occur with deep vein thrombosis?
-clot can dislodge and make its way to the heart and lodge there to obstruct blood flow causing instantaneous death.
-destruction of the normal valvular system in the legs leading to venous incompetency and leg swelling
How is deep vein thrombosis treated?
The only guaranteed treatment is PREVENTION, filters can be put in place to try and prevent clots from moving through the system
What type of back muscle is the Latissimus dorsi?
extrinsic and superficial
ORIGIN Latissimus Dorsi
Iliac crest
thoracolumbar fascia
lower 4 ribs (8-12)
Spinal processes of T7-T12
INSERTION Latissimus Dorsi
intertubercular groove of the humerus
INNERVATION Latissimus Dorsi
thoracodorsal N
FUNCTION Latissimus Dorsi
Extends, rotates, and ADducts the humerus
What type of back muscle is the levator scapulae?
extrinsic and superficial
INNERVATION Levator scapulae
dorsal scapular N
FUNCTION Levator scapulae
elevates the scapula
What type of back mm are Rhomboid major and minor?
extrinsic and superficial
INNERVATION Rhomboid major and minor
dorsal scapular N
FUNCTION Rhomboid major and minor
ADducts and rotates scapula
What type of back muscle is the serratus posterior superior m?
extrinsic and intermediate
INNERVATION Serratus post. sup.
Spinal nn T1-T4
FUNCTION Serratus post. sup.
aids with respiration
What type of back muscle is the serratus post. inf.?
extrinsic, intermediate
INNERVATION Serratus post. inf.
spinal nn T10-T12
FUNCTION Serratus post. inf.
aids in respiration
What type of mm are Splenius capitis and splenius cervicis?
intrinsic, deep
INNERVATION Splenius capitis and splenius cervices
dorsal rami of cervical spinal nn
FUNCTION Splenius capitis and splenius cervices
laterally bends and extends head
What is another name for the erector spinae mm?
sacrospinalis mm
What type of back mm are the erector spinae mm?
intrinsic, deep
INNERVATION Erector Spinae mm
dorsal rami of intercostal nn
FUNCTION Erector spinae mm
bilaterally-extends the spine
unilaterally-laterally bends the spine
What are the 3 subdivisions of the erector spinae MM?
iliocostalis, longissimus, and spinalis
Into how many part are the iliocostalis, longissimus and spinalis mm further divided into?
3 subdivisions each ...18 total mm on back
Where is the mediastinum located?
in the middle of the thoracic cavity
What are the 4 regions of the mediastinum?
anterior, posterior(larynx), middle (heart), and superior
What is the pleural cavity?
the space between the visceral pluera and parietal pluera
What is another name for the cervical parietal pluera?
cupola pleura
What are the only 2 things that attach the lungs to the rest of the body?
bronchi and pulmonary lig.
How many bronchopulmonary segments does the R. lung have?
10
How many bronchopulmonary segments does the L lung have?
9
What do the r. bronchial vv flow into?
azygous V
What do the l bronchial vv flow into?
hemiazygous v and accessory hemiazygous v
Where should the tip of the heart be located?
in the 5th intercostal space
What are the two systems of the heart?
pulmonary and systemic
What is the outermost layer of the heart?
Pericardium
What are the 3 layers of the pericardium?
fibrous, parietal serous, visceral serous
Between what 2 layers of the pericardium is there an actual space?
between the parietal serous and visceral serous layers
FUNCTION Papillary MM
prevent the AV valves from inverting during systole
FUNCTION Trabeculae carnae
increases the frequency of the intrinsic pacing mechanism
Which ribs are considered "true" ribs? why are they considered this?
1-7, because articulate w/ sternum directly
How many ribs are in a normal human body?
12
What is the function of the costal groove on each rib?
To protect the intercostal V, A, N
What kind of cartilage is costal cartilage?
hyaline
How many pairs of external intercostal mm are there?
11
ORIGIN ext/int intercostal mm
inferior border of a superior rib
INSERTION ext/int intercostal mm
superior border of an inferior rib
INNERVATION ext/int intercostal mm
intercostal nn
What is endocarditis?
an infection of the heart that is not uncommon, but can be serious if left untreated
What is the purpose of the R Atrium?
a receiving chamber for venous blood?
What 3 vessels deliver venous blood to the R atrium?
SVC, IVC, Coronary Sinus
What is the Fossa Ovalis a remnant of?
Foramen ovale from fetal circulation that moves blood directly from the R atrium to the L Atrium
What is the purpose of the R and L Auricles?
add volume to the R and L Atrium
What is the Function of the R Ventricle?
pump venous blood to lungs so that oxygenation can occur via the pulmonary A
What are the names of the 3 Papillary MM?
Anterior, posterior, septal
What is the function of the L atrium?
to receive oxygenated blood from the lungs via the Pulmonary VV
What is the function of the L ventricle?
pumps blood to all cells of the body
Why is the L ventricle the largest chamber of the heart?
takes a lot of energy to move blood throughout the body. Therefore, requires more cardiac MM
What are the names of the 2 Papillary MM of the L ventricle?
anterior and posterior
What are the names of the 3 semilunar cusps of the aortic valve?
-R coronary cusp (where R coronary A branches off)
-L coronary cusp (where L coronary A branches off)
-non-coronary cusp (NO A branches off)
What are the names of the 3 semilunar cusps of the pulmonary valve?
anterior, left, and right
What are you measuring when you take someone's blood pressure?
You are measuring the diastole and systole pressure of the L ventricle
DEFINE diastole
resting phase of heart
DEFINE systole
pumping phase of heart
What spinal nn make up the Phrenic N?
the ventral roots of C3, C4, C5
What does the Phrenic N innervate?
diaphragm
What system is the Thymus gland a part of?
Lymphatic system
FUNCTION Thymus gland
sensitizes T-lymphocytes (part of cellular immunity)
What is the 1 major tributary of the SVC?
Arch of the Azygos V
What 2 VV join to make the SVC?
R/L Brachiocephalic VV
What 2 VV join to form the Brachiocephalic VV
Subclavian V and Internal Jugular V
What are the 4 major tributaries of the Brachiocephalic VV?
Internal thoracic vv
inferior thyroid vv
posterior intercostal vv
pericardiophrenic vv
What is also a tributary of ONLY the R Brachiocephalic V?
R lymphatic duct
What is also a tributary of ONLY the L Brachiocephalic V?
Thoracic duct
Around which vertebra does the aortic arch become the descending aorta?
T4
What are the 3 major branches of the aortic arch?
Brachiocephalic trunk "innominate A"
L common carotid A
L subclavian A
What 2 aa branch off of the Brachiocephalic trunk?
R common carotid A
R subclavian A
What is the ligamentum arteriosum a remnant of?
Ductus arteriosus during fetal circulation that allows blood to flow from the pulmonary trunk to the Aorta
From what spinal n does the vagus N come from?
C10
What does the Vagus N innervate?
organs of the thorax, abdomen, and pelvis for parasympathetic activity
What branches off of the vagus nerve in the superior mediastinum?
the r/l recurrent laryngeal nn
What does the vagus n form as it passes through the post. mediastinum?
esophageal plexus
What 2 nn does the esophageal plexi form?
Anterior and posterior vagal trunks
How far does the thoracic aorta extend?
from T4 to the diaphragm
FUNCTION Esophagus
convey food and water from the oral pharynx to the lower esophageal sphincter
What 2 types of mm make up the esophagus?
skeletal mm (upper 1/3) and smooth mm (lower 1/3)
What A supplies blood to the esophagus?
esophageal aa
What drains the blood from the esophagus?
esophageal vv that flow into the azygos system
Where does the thoracic duct start?
around T12 as a dialatedd sac (chyle asternum)
Which intercostal vv does the Azygos V drain?
R post. intercostal vv T1-T12
Which intercostal vv does the accessory hemiazygos v drain?
L post intercostal vv T1-T5
Whish intercostal vv does the hemiazygos v drain?
L post intercostal vv T6-T12
What does the diaphragm m consist of?
striated m and a central tendon
What 3 foramina are located in the diaphragm?
Aortic foramen, esophageal foramen, and inferior vena cava foramen
What aa/vv supply/drain the superior surface of the diaphragm?
pericardiacophrenic aa and musculophrenic aa
What aa/vv supply/drain the inferior surface of the diaphragm?
inferior phrenic aa/vv
From where does the term "anatomy" derive its name? what does it mean?
Derived from Greek work "temnein" meaning "to cut"
What are the 2 approaches to studying anatomy?
regional and systemic
DEFINE Synovial joints
2 elements separated by an articular cavity consisting of layers of cartilage, usually hyaline cartilage, which covers teh articulating surfaces of teh elements
DEFINE joint capsule
capsule which contains an inner synovial membrane and outer fibrous membrane
DEFINE synovial membrane
highly vascular; produces synovial fluid which percolates into the articular cavity and lubricates the sufaces. Consists of synovial bursae
DEFINE fibrous membrane
formed by dense CT that surrounds and stabilizes the joint
FUNCTION articular discs
absorb compression forces, adjust to changes in contours of joint surfaces during movements and increase range of movement
What are the y types of synovial joints?
plane, hinge, pivot, bicondylar, condylar (ellipsoid), Saddle, ball and socket
DEFINE plane joint
allow sliding or gliding of one bone over another (ie-acromioclavicular joint)
DEFINE hinge joint
allow movement around one axis that passes transversely through the joint. permits flexion and extension (ie-elbow joint)
DEFINE pivot joint
allows movement around one axis that passes longitudinally along a bone. permits rotation (ie-atlantoaxial joint)
DEFINE bicondylar joint
allow movement mostly in 1 axis with limited rotation around a 2nd axis. Formed by 2 convex condyles and articulate with concave or flat sufaces (ie-knee joint)
DEFINE condylar (ellipsoid) joint
allows movement around 2 axes that are at right angles to each other. permits flexion, extension, ABduction, ADduction, and circumduction
(ie-wrist joint)
DEFINE saddle joint
allow movement around 2 axis that are at right angles to each other, with the "saddled-shaped' articular surfaces. permits flexion, extension, ABduction, ADduction, circumductiona dn rotation
(ie-carpometacarpal joint of thumb)
DEFINE Ball and socket joint
allow movement around multiple axis. permits flexion, extension, ABduction, ADduction, circumduction and rotation (ie-hip joint and shoulder joint)
What are the 2 main types of joints?
synovial and solid
What differentiates a solid joint from a synovial joint?
-no cavity is present between the elements and held together by CT
-movement is more restricted
-connections between skeletal elements where adjacent surfaces are linked by either fibrous CT or cartilage
What are the 2 types of solid joints?
fibrous and cartilaginous
What are the 3 types of solid fibrous joints?
sutures, gomphoses, and syndesmoses
DEFINE suture joints
occur only in the skull where adjacent bones are linked by a thin CT called sutural ligament
DEFINE gomphoses joints
occur between teeth and adjacent bone, connected by short collagen tissue fibers in the periodontal ligament
DEFINE syndesmoses joints
2 adjacent bones are linked by a ligament (ie-ligamentum flavum which connect adjacent vertebral laminae, OR an interosseous membrane which links the radius and ulna)
What are the 2 types of solid cartilaginous joints?
synchondroses and symphyses
DEFINE synchondroses joints
2 ossification areas in a developing bone remain separated by a layer of cartilage (ie-growth plate btw head and shaft of a developing bone). Allow bone growth but will eventually become completely ossified
DEFINE symphyses joints
2 separate bones are connected by cartilage. most occur in midline (ie-pubic symphysis and intervertebral discs
FUNCTION lymphatic system
-collect fluid lost in vascular capillary beds during nutrient exchange and, with uni-directional flow, is delivered back to the venous side of the vascular system
-major contributor to the transport of fat absorbed by the gut
What else (besides interstitial fluid) drains into the lymphatic capillaries?
pathogens, cells of the lymphatic system, cell product (hormones), and cell debris
DEFINE chyle
the lymph that is carried from the small intestine and is opaque or milky due to the presence of chylomicrons
DEFINE chylomicrons
protein packed lipid droplets produced by the intestinal epithelium
DEFINE lacteals
lymphatic capillaries in sm. intestine
Where are palpable (superficial) lymph nodes located?
axillary, groin, femoral, and neck regions
DEFINE Rectus Sheath
long, aponeurotic sheath that encloses the rectus abdominis
DEFINE aponeurosis
large, broad, flat-like tendon
What forms the linea alba?
all aponeuroses of the rectus sheath
What is the fascia transversalis?
layer of transparent fascia that lines the entire abdominal wall
Where is the fascia transversalis found?
between MM/aponeurosis and parietal peritoneum of abdominal cavity
What is contained within the fascia transversalis?
variable amount of fat
DEFINE Peritoneum
continuous serous membrane that lines the inner aspects of the abdominal wall, inner pelvis, and diaphragm (parietal peritoneum) and covers and surrounds visceral structures (visceral peritoneum) forming a potential space btw the 2 types of peritoneum
DEFINE Peritoneal recess
where the peritoneum forms blind pouches
What is an example of a peritoneal recess?
omental bursa behind the lesser omentum through the epiploic foramen
What structures are retroperitoneal?
IVC, Aorta, kidneys, ureters