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348 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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DEFINE Anatomical Position
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person standing erect, arms to the side, and thumbs rotated laterally
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What makes up the CNS?
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brain, brainstem (midbrain, Pons, Medulla), and Spinal cord
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What makes up the PNS?
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12 pairs of cranial NN, 31 pairs of Spinal NN
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Where do the 12 cranial nn originate?
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brainstem
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What do the 12 cranial nn innervate?
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head, neck, and face
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What is the ONE cranial n that innervates things other than the head, neck, and face?
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vagus nerve
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What does the Vagus N innervate?
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visceral structures of abdomen and thorax
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What do NN of the ANS innervate?
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viscera in the thorax, abdomen, and pelvic areas
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How many pairs of Spinal NN are there?
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31
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Where does a typical spinal n originate from?
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ventral and dorsal horns of the spinal cord
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What do the spinal nerves break off into?
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the main peripheral nn of the body
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How many rootlets make up a root?
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6 or 7
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How long are the root usually?
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1 inch
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What do the spinal nn break into after passing through the intervertebral foramen?
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ventral and dorsal rami (here become major nerves of body)
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DEFINE dermatome
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skin innervated by a particular peripheral n
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DEFINE myotome
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mm innervated by a particular peripheral n
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DEFINE sclerotome
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CT innervated by a particular peripheral n
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What 2 systems make up the circulatory system?
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cardiovascular system and lymphatic system
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What structures make up the lymphatic system?
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lymphatic vessels and lymph nodes
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What is the main function of the lymphatic system?
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it is a means of returning interstitial fluid and its components to the blood of the cardiovascular system.
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Describe the flow of the lymphatic system
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kinterstitial fluid (lymph)--lymphatic capillaries--lymphatic vessels--lymph nodes--lymphatic vessels--major lymphatic vessels
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What are the 2 major lymphatic vessels?
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rt. lymphatic duct and thoracic duct
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What does the rt lymphatic duct drain?
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rt. side of head, face, neck, thorax, and rt upper extremity
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What does the rt. lymphatic duct drain into?
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rt. brachiocephalic V
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What does the thoracic duct drain?
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Everything that the r. lymphatic duct does not drain
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What does the thoracic duct drain into?
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L brachiocephalic V
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What is the largest lymphatic duct in the body?
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thoracic duct
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What are other functions of the lymphatic system?
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-return escaped protein molecules to cardiovascular (CV) system
-carries newly formed plasma proteins to CV system -manufacture new lymphocytes and monocytes (white blood cells) -filters out foreign matter in lymph nodes -involved in immunological activity in body -it is a means where cell can proliferate |
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Where are lymphocytes and monocytes manufactured?
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lymph nodes
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What parts of immunological immunity is the lymphatic system involved with?
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cellular immunity and humor immunity
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What does cellular immunity do?
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sensitizes lymphocytes
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what disease occurs when sensitized lymphocytes stop working correctly?
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AIDS
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Where are lymphocytes sensitized by cellular immunity?
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lymph tissue
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What is humor immunity?
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when lymphocytes are able to produce antibodies
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What aides in the spread of cancer within a body?
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lymph nodes, because this provides a means that cells can proliferate and then move throughout the body
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What are other organs that are made up of lymphatic tissue?
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spleen, thymus, tonsils, adenoids
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What control smooth m contraction?
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ANS
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What controls cardiac m contractions?
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ANS and intrinsic pacing mechanism of heart (ie- SA/AV nodes, pacemaker cells)
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What Characteristics are seen in a Tendon of Origin?
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closer to midling and is less movable
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What characteristics are seen in a tendon of insertion?
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distal to midline, movable, attach to part of body m moves
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DEFINE tendons
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CT made up of collagen (type of protein) and attach Muscle to Bone
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DEFINE Ligaments
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CT made of collagen and attach Bone to Bone
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What is the primary function of ALL skeletal mm?
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move body (locomotion)
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What sort of physics system does the body use to move?
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lever
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DEFINE Fulcrum
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pt. around which something pivots (ie-articulations of skeletal system)
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DEFINE lever
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bar moving around a fixed point
(ie-bones) |
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DEFINE force or energy source
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force to move something (ie-skeletal mm contract to move levers around fulcrums)
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DEFINE weight or resistance
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Outside force acting against body (ie-gravity)
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What is the most common type of lever system in the body?
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Type III
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DEFINE Type III lever system
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M crosses joint that is moves (ie-Deltoid M crosses shoulder joint to move arm)
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What is the function of the vertebral column?
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-protect spinal cord and spinal roots
-provides a rigid but flexible axis for the trunk -provides a pivot pt. for the head to move posture and gait |
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What is the name of the joint that provides a pt for the head to move around?
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atlantoccipital joint
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What movements can the vertebral column allow?
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flexion (bend forward)
extension (bend backward) lateral bending circumduction (rotate around pelvis) |
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What are the 3 curvature deformaties of the vertebral column?
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kyphosis, lordosis, and scoliosis
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DEFINE kyphosis
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extreme posterior curvature (humpback)
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DEFINE Lordosis
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extreme lumbar curvature (swayback)
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DEFINE scoliosis
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abnormal lateral curvature
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How many vertebrae make up the vertebral column?
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33
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What 2 ligaments attach to the body of a vertebra?
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anterior and posterior longitudinal ligaments
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What cellular processes come off of the vertebral arch?
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1 spinous process, 2 superior articulating processes, 2 inferior articulating processes, 2 transverse processes
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where on the occipital bone does the atlas articulate with it?
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occipital condyles
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What is the joint that is formed between the occipital bone and the atlas?
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atlantocciptal joint
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What joint is formed between the atlas and axis?
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atlantoaxial articulation
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What is the purpose of the axis?
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allow head to bend side to side (ie nod)
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What is the purpose of the dens?
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prevents horizontal displacement of the axis which would damage the spinal cord.
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What is another name for the vertebra C7?
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Prominent Vertebra
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What is unique about the spinous processes of cervical vertebra?
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They are bifed
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Which cervical vertebra does the vertebral A NOT pass through the transver foramen?
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C7
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What is the purpose of the transverse foramena of the cervical vertebra?
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allow passage of the vertebral A
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What is unique about the body of the thoracic vertebra?
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they have sup./inf. costal facets
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What is unique about T1-T10 in regards to costals?
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have costal facets on the transverse processes as well as on the body
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What part of the costal do the transverse costal facets articulate with?
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tubercle of the costal
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What does the sacrum articulate with?
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the ileum of the pelvis
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How many pair of ant/post foramena does the sacrum have?
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4 anterior and 4 posterior
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What passes through the anterior and posterior foramena of the sacrum?
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the dorsal and ventral roots
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Where do the pia mater and dura mater end?
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saccral hiatus
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How many fused vertebra make up the coccyx?
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3-5
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FUNCTION coccyx
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mm attachment
ligament attachment |
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What is the nucleous pulposus and evolutionary remnant of?
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notachord
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What does the ant. surface of the intervertebral disc attach to? posterior surface?
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Anterior longitudinal lig (strong)
Posterior longitudinal lig (weak) |
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FUNCTION intervertebral disc
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absorb energy (shock) and dissipate it so it does not concentrate on the next vertebra.
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DEFINE hernia
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one anatomical structure is protruding into another anatomical area
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What is a spinal hernia?
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When the nucleous pulposus of the intervertebral disc protrudes through the annulous pulposus and into the spinal column and pinches spinal cord and roots
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In which region of the vertebral column do most spinal hernias occur? Which is second most common?
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lumbar
cervical |
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What joint is formed between vertebrae?
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zygophosphygeal joint
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What is the importance of the zygophocphygeal joint?
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facilitates movements of spine
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From what point (in regards to the vertebral column) does the spinal cord run?
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magnum foramen to L2
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How much of the vertebral column does the spinal cord run?
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upper 2/3
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What is the rostral end of the spinal cord continuous with?
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Medulla oblongata
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What protects the spinal cord?
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vertebral canal, 3 meninges, cerebral spinal fluid (CSF), and ligaments of vertebra
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DEFINE conus medullaris
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tapered terminal pt. of spinal cord (begins around L2)
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DEFINE filum terminalis
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continuation of Pia Mater past the conus medullaris and connects w/ coccyx (not neurological)
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DEFINE cauda equine
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collection of dorsal and ventral roots that descend through the vertebral canal until they exit the vert. column
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Where are the roots and rootlets of the cauda equina found in specifically?
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suparachnoid space
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What is the general function of all meninges?
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protect, stabalize and immobilize the brain and spinal cord
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What are some characteristics of the Dura Mater?
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vascular, thick, terminates at coccyx
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Where does the Dura Mater attach itself?
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magnum foramen (superiorly)
post. long. lig. (ventrally) |
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How far does the Dura Mater extend laterally?
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into the intervertebral foramen
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What suspends the spinal cord within the dura mater?
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denticulate ligs.
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What makes up denticulate ligaments?
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pia mater
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How many pairs of denticulate lig. are there?
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21
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What are some characteristics of arachnoid mater?
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thin, avascular, continuous w/ arachnoid mater of brain, seperated from dura mater by small, POTENTIAL space
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What is the name of the small, potential space between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater?
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subduraol space
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What fills the subarachnoid space?
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CSF
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Where is CSF found?
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subarachnoid space in spine and brain and ventricular system of brain
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Where is CSF formed?
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lateral ventricals (1st and 2nd ventrical), 3rd ventrical, and 4th ventrical
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What exactly manufactures CSF?
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choroid plexus of 1st-4th ventricals
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What are some characteristics of CSF?
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clear, no color
protein free contains electrolytes |
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What is one illness that can be diagnosed by the CSF?
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meningitis
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What is continuous with the subarachnoid space but goes by a different name?
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ventricular system
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What are the 4 major arterial blood supplies to the spinal cord?
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r/l post. spinal aa, ant. spinal a, and radicular aa
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Which aa that supply the spinal cord are a branch off the vertebral aa?
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r/l post. spinal aa
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How far down the spinal cord does the post. spinal aa supply?
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1/3 of way down posteriorly
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What makes up the ant. spinal a?
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2 fused branches off of the vertebral a
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how far down the spinal cord does the ant. spinal a supply?
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1/3 of way down anteriorly
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What 3 aa anastomose through lateral branches in the spinal cord region?
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r/l post. spinal aa, ant. spinal a
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What part of the spinal cord do the radicular aa supply?
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lower 2/3 of spinal cord
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Where do the radicular aa come off of?
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vertebral aa, post. intercostal aa, lumbar aa
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What are characteristics of superficial back mm?
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-attach to upper extremity
-involved w/ moving upper extremity *therefore extrinisic mm |
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DEFINE extrinsic mm
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mm that move an anatomical area other than where they are found (ie- trapezius found on back but moves arm)
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What are characteristics of intermediate back mm?
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-insert into ribs
-involved w/ breathing -extrinisic |
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What are characteristics of deep back mm?
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-attach to spine
-intrinsic |
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DEFINE intrinsic mm
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mm that move the anatomical area where they are found (ie-transversospinalis m found on the back and moves the spine)
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What innervates the mm of the back in general?
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dorsal and ventral rami of spinal nn
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What specifically innervates the superficial and intermediate mm of the back?
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ventral rami
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What specifically innervates the deep mm of the back?
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dorsal rami
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What are characteristic of the thoracolumbar fascia?
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thick, dense fascia that overlies tendon of latissimus dorsi
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How many layers does the thoracolumbar fascia have? names?
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2; dorsal and ventral
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FUNCTION thoracolumbar fascia
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-stabilize lumbar region
-hold mm together -act as origin site |
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CHARACTERISTICS trapezius m
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-extrinsic, superficial back m
-triangular -3 parts: superior, middle, inferior bellies |
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ORIGIN trapezius m
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superior nuchal line
ext. occipital protuberance ligamentum nuchae (assoc w/ cervical vertebra) Spinal processes C7-T12 |
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INSERTION trapezius m
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spine and acromion of scalpula
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INNERVATION trapezius m
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spinal accessory n and ventral rami of C3 and C4
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FUNCTION trapezius m
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-extends and laterally bends the head
-ADducts scalpula |
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What is Avascular necrosis?
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cellular death of bone resulting from a temporary or permanent loss of blood supply
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Where is avasucular necrosis normally seen?
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femoral neck fracture
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In what age group of people is avascular necrosis usually seen in?
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elderly
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What are the 2 main reasons people nee joint replacement?
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degenerative joint disease and joint destruction
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Which type of joint is commonly affected by degeneratice joint disease and joint destruction?
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large joints (hip, knee, shoulder)
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Are both sides of a joint normally replaced at the same time?
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yes
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What is muscular atrophy?
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a wasting disorder of muscle
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What can cause muscular atrophy?
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long-term rest and disuse of mm
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What is an example of a surgery that often results in muscular atrophy?
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ACL reconstruction often causes quad atrophy due to disuse
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What are Varicose Veins?
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tortuos dilated veins thattypically occur in the legs
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What causes varicose veins?
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increased volume and pressure in veins produces dilation and tortuosity
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What are some results of having varicose veins?
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skin may become pigmented and atrophic w/ poor response to tissue damage
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How do you treat varicose veins?
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superficial veins can be excised and stripped, allowing blood only to drain into the deep system
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What is Spina Bifida in general?
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a disorder in which the two sides of vertebral arches, usually in lower vertebrae, fail to fuse during development--resulting in an "open" vertebral canal
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What are the 2 types of spina bifida?
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Spina bifida occulta and Spina Bifida (severe)
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What is Spina bifida occulta?
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defect in the vertebral arch of L5 or S1, most common-cuases a failure of the posterior arch to fuse in the midline
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What is Spina bifida (severe)?
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results from complete failure of fusion of the posterior arch at the lumbosacral junction with a large outpouching of meninges, may hold CSF
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What is scoliosis (general)?
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an abnormal lateral curvature of the vertebral column
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What is "True" scoliosis?
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involves a rotational element of one vertebra upon another
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What is the most common type of scoliosis? When does this type of scoliosis tend to appear?
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idiopathic scoliosis which is never present at birth, but appears in infantile/juvenile/adolescent age groups. All vertebral bodies are normal
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What is congenital scoliosis?
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it is present from birth, with a strong association with other abnormalities of the chest wall, genitourinary tract, and heart disease
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What is Neuropathic scoliosis?
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a menifestation of central or peripheral nerve abnormalities
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What is a common example of scoliosis associated w/ abnormal mm?
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muscular dystrophy
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What is a herniation of intervertebral discs?
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When there is a tear in annulus fibrosus that can allow nucleus pulposus to push through into the vertebral canal
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What can the nucleus pulposus do once it pushes into the vertebral canal or vertebral foramen?
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impinge on neural structures`
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What often results from a herniated intervrtebral disc?
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severe back pain
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What are cervical protrusions?
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protrusion of annulous fibrosus that can ossify and become disc osteophyte bars (occurs in cervical area)
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Why is the sternum a common place get bone marrow from a patient?
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sternum has a hard outer cortex that can withstand a needle into the internal cavity containing bone marrow
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What can bone marrow help diagnose?
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certain blood diseases such as leukemia
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What is pericarditis?
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an inflammatory condition of the pericardium
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What are some common causes of pericarditis?
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viral and bacterial infections, systemic illnesses, post-myocardial infarction
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What can pericarditis be mistake for? Is it dangerous if a patient is misdiagnosed?
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myocardial infarction. Dangerous due to treatment differences
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What can you use to distinguish between pericarditis and myocardial infarction?
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ECG
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What are the 2 basic types of heart valve problems?
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incompetence-poorly functioning valves
stenosis-narrowing of orifice, valve doesn't fully open |
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What is Mitral valve disease?
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mixed pattern of incompetence and stenosis
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What are some heart change is someone has Mitral valve disease?
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-left ventricular hypertrophy
-increased pulmonary venous pressure -pulmonary edema -enlargement and hypertrophy of left atrium |
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What is aortic valve disease?
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both aortic stenosis and regurgitation
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What can cause valve disease on the right side of the heart? What can it induce?
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most likely cuased by infection. Can induce cardiac failure
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What is coarctation of the aorta?
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a congenital abnormality in which the aortic lumen is constricted distal to the origin of the left subclavian artery
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What results from coarctation of the aorta?
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limited blood flow to the lower limbs
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How does the body compensate for coarctation of the aorta?
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collateral vessels develop to deliver blood to lower limbs and causes heart to work harder to pump blood to the peripheries, can cause heart failure
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Where is the most common place for inguinal hernias?
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groin of the lower abdominal wall
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What can cuase congenital inguinal hernias?
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caused by persistence of processes vaginalis and the passage of viscera through the inguinal canal
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What can cause acquired hernias? What age group is most susceptible to this type of hernia?
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raised inter-abdominal pressure (excessive coughing), damaged nn of ab. wall, weak inguinal canal walls. Usually in older patients
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What are some problems that can arise from having an inguinal hernia?
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-bowel and fat may become stuck in hernia sac causing bowel obstruction needing urgent surgery
-strangulation: where blood supply to the bowel is cut off at the neck of hernia sac, renders bowel ischemic and susceptible to perforation |
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What is an indirect inguinal hernia?
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passes lateral to the inferior epicastris vessels, may pass through superficial inguinal ring
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What is a direct inguinal hernia?
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medial to the inferior epigastric vessels, passes through the inguinal ring
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How can you diagnose whether an inguinal hernia is indirect or direct?
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You can not make this diagnosis until surgery
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In what sex are inguinal hernias more common? why?
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men, due to larger inguinal canals
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What are femoral hernias?
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viscera pass through the femoral canal and into the medial aspect of the anterior thigh
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What is can be caused by femoral hernias?
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bowel strangulation due to positioning and narrowing of femoral canal
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Are femoral hernias acquired of congenital?
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acquired
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If what group of people are femoral hernias most common in? Why?
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middle-aged to elderly women due to wider pelvises
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How common are umbilical hernias?
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They are RARE
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What causes conginital umbilical hernias?
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failure of small bowel to return to abdominal cavity during development
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What can cause acquired umbilical hernias?
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incomplete closure of the umbilicus (naval)
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When do most umbilical hernias close?
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within the first year of life
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What are para-umbilical hernias?
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occur in adults around/at the umbilicus and often have small necks requiring surgical treatment
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What is the greater omentum?
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fatty double-layered vascular membrane which hangs like an apron over the transverse colon and lies freely suspended within the abdominal cavity
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What is the purpose/function of the greater omentum?
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"policeman of teh abdomen." apparent ability to migrate to any inflamed area and wrap itself around the organ to wall off inflammation
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What is a major problem that can arise from the greater omentum?
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important site for metastatic tumor spread. Direct omental spread by the transcoelomic route is common for carcinoma of the ovary.
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What is a gastronomy?
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it is a surgery that is performed when the stomach is attached to teh anterior abdominal wall and a tube is placed through the skin to the stomack
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When is a gastronomy performed?
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When a patient is incapable of taking food normally
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How is a gastronomy performed?
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Either surgically or through a direct needlestick in the anterior abdominal wall
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What is a hiatus hernia?
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When the fundus of the stomach herniates into the mediastinum if the diaphragm is lax at the level of the esophageal hiatus
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What can a hiatus hernia cause?
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Acid reflux, and ulcerations may occur producing bleeding and anemia
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How is a hiatus hernia diagnosed?
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through barium studies or endoscopy
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What is a major problem of kidney transplants?
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tissue rejection
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Where are transplants attained from?
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Either living or deceased donors
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What do deceased kidney's come with that kidneys from a living person do not?
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small cuff of aortic and venous tissue and the ureter
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Where is the ideal placement of a kidney transplant? Why?
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left or right iliac fossa, becuase able to leave everything else undisturbed
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What is deep vein thrombosis?
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potentially fatal condition where a clot is formed in teh deep venous system of the legs and then veins of the pelvis
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How is deep vein thrombosis diagnosed?
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patients undergo a D-dimer blood test, measure levels of fibrin degradation product; high=high probability of deep vein thrombosis
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What are some complications that can occur with deep vein thrombosis?
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-clot can dislodge and make its way to the heart and lodge there to obstruct blood flow causing instantaneous death.
-destruction of the normal valvular system in the legs leading to venous incompetency and leg swelling |
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How is deep vein thrombosis treated?
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The only guaranteed treatment is PREVENTION, filters can be put in place to try and prevent clots from moving through the system
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What type of back muscle is the Latissimus dorsi?
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extrinsic and superficial
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ORIGIN Latissimus Dorsi
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Iliac crest
thoracolumbar fascia lower 4 ribs (8-12) Spinal processes of T7-T12 |
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INSERTION Latissimus Dorsi
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intertubercular groove of the humerus
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INNERVATION Latissimus Dorsi
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thoracodorsal N
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FUNCTION Latissimus Dorsi
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Extends, rotates, and ADducts the humerus
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What type of back muscle is the levator scapulae?
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extrinsic and superficial
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INNERVATION Levator scapulae
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dorsal scapular N
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FUNCTION Levator scapulae
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elevates the scapula
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What type of back mm are Rhomboid major and minor?
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extrinsic and superficial
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INNERVATION Rhomboid major and minor
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dorsal scapular N
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FUNCTION Rhomboid major and minor
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ADducts and rotates scapula
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What type of back muscle is the serratus posterior superior m?
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extrinsic and intermediate
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INNERVATION Serratus post. sup.
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Spinal nn T1-T4
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FUNCTION Serratus post. sup.
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aids with respiration
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What type of back muscle is the serratus post. inf.?
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extrinsic, intermediate
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INNERVATION Serratus post. inf.
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spinal nn T10-T12
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FUNCTION Serratus post. inf.
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aids in respiration
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What type of mm are Splenius capitis and splenius cervicis?
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intrinsic, deep
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INNERVATION Splenius capitis and splenius cervices
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dorsal rami of cervical spinal nn
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FUNCTION Splenius capitis and splenius cervices
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laterally bends and extends head
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What is another name for the erector spinae mm?
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sacrospinalis mm
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What type of back mm are the erector spinae mm?
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intrinsic, deep
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INNERVATION Erector Spinae mm
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dorsal rami of intercostal nn
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FUNCTION Erector spinae mm
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bilaterally-extends the spine
unilaterally-laterally bends the spine |
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What are the 3 subdivisions of the erector spinae MM?
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iliocostalis, longissimus, and spinalis
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Into how many part are the iliocostalis, longissimus and spinalis mm further divided into?
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3 subdivisions each ...18 total mm on back
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Where is the mediastinum located?
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in the middle of the thoracic cavity
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What are the 4 regions of the mediastinum?
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anterior, posterior(larynx), middle (heart), and superior
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What is the pleural cavity?
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the space between the visceral pluera and parietal pluera
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What is another name for the cervical parietal pluera?
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cupola pleura
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What are the only 2 things that attach the lungs to the rest of the body?
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bronchi and pulmonary lig.
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How many bronchopulmonary segments does the R. lung have?
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10
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How many bronchopulmonary segments does the L lung have?
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9
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What do the r. bronchial vv flow into?
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azygous V
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What do the l bronchial vv flow into?
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hemiazygous v and accessory hemiazygous v
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Where should the tip of the heart be located?
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in the 5th intercostal space
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What are the two systems of the heart?
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pulmonary and systemic
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What is the outermost layer of the heart?
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Pericardium
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What are the 3 layers of the pericardium?
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fibrous, parietal serous, visceral serous
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Between what 2 layers of the pericardium is there an actual space?
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between the parietal serous and visceral serous layers
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FUNCTION Papillary MM
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prevent the AV valves from inverting during systole
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FUNCTION Trabeculae carnae
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increases the frequency of the intrinsic pacing mechanism
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Which ribs are considered "true" ribs? why are they considered this?
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1-7, because articulate w/ sternum directly
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How many ribs are in a normal human body?
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12
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What is the function of the costal groove on each rib?
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To protect the intercostal V, A, N
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What kind of cartilage is costal cartilage?
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hyaline
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How many pairs of external intercostal mm are there?
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11
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ORIGIN ext/int intercostal mm
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inferior border of a superior rib
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INSERTION ext/int intercostal mm
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superior border of an inferior rib
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INNERVATION ext/int intercostal mm
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intercostal nn
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What is endocarditis?
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an infection of the heart that is not uncommon, but can be serious if left untreated
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What is the purpose of the R Atrium?
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a receiving chamber for venous blood?
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What 3 vessels deliver venous blood to the R atrium?
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SVC, IVC, Coronary Sinus
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What is the Fossa Ovalis a remnant of?
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Foramen ovale from fetal circulation that moves blood directly from the R atrium to the L Atrium
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What is the purpose of the R and L Auricles?
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add volume to the R and L Atrium
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What is the Function of the R Ventricle?
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pump venous blood to lungs so that oxygenation can occur via the pulmonary A
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What are the names of the 3 Papillary MM?
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Anterior, posterior, septal
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What is the function of the L atrium?
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to receive oxygenated blood from the lungs via the Pulmonary VV
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What is the function of the L ventricle?
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pumps blood to all cells of the body
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Why is the L ventricle the largest chamber of the heart?
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takes a lot of energy to move blood throughout the body. Therefore, requires more cardiac MM
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What are the names of the 2 Papillary MM of the L ventricle?
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anterior and posterior
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What are the names of the 3 semilunar cusps of the aortic valve?
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-R coronary cusp (where R coronary A branches off)
-L coronary cusp (where L coronary A branches off) -non-coronary cusp (NO A branches off) |
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What are the names of the 3 semilunar cusps of the pulmonary valve?
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anterior, left, and right
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What are you measuring when you take someone's blood pressure?
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You are measuring the diastole and systole pressure of the L ventricle
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DEFINE diastole
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resting phase of heart
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DEFINE systole
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pumping phase of heart
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What spinal nn make up the Phrenic N?
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the ventral roots of C3, C4, C5
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What does the Phrenic N innervate?
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diaphragm
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What system is the Thymus gland a part of?
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Lymphatic system
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FUNCTION Thymus gland
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sensitizes T-lymphocytes (part of cellular immunity)
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What is the 1 major tributary of the SVC?
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Arch of the Azygos V
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What 2 VV join to make the SVC?
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R/L Brachiocephalic VV
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What 2 VV join to form the Brachiocephalic VV
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Subclavian V and Internal Jugular V
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What are the 4 major tributaries of the Brachiocephalic VV?
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Internal thoracic vv
inferior thyroid vv posterior intercostal vv pericardiophrenic vv |
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What is also a tributary of ONLY the R Brachiocephalic V?
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R lymphatic duct
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What is also a tributary of ONLY the L Brachiocephalic V?
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Thoracic duct
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Around which vertebra does the aortic arch become the descending aorta?
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T4
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What are the 3 major branches of the aortic arch?
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Brachiocephalic trunk "innominate A"
L common carotid A L subclavian A |
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What 2 aa branch off of the Brachiocephalic trunk?
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R common carotid A
R subclavian A |
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What is the ligamentum arteriosum a remnant of?
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Ductus arteriosus during fetal circulation that allows blood to flow from the pulmonary trunk to the Aorta
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From what spinal n does the vagus N come from?
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C10
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What does the Vagus N innervate?
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organs of the thorax, abdomen, and pelvis for parasympathetic activity
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What branches off of the vagus nerve in the superior mediastinum?
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the r/l recurrent laryngeal nn
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What does the vagus n form as it passes through the post. mediastinum?
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esophageal plexus
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What 2 nn does the esophageal plexi form?
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Anterior and posterior vagal trunks
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How far does the thoracic aorta extend?
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from T4 to the diaphragm
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FUNCTION Esophagus
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convey food and water from the oral pharynx to the lower esophageal sphincter
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What 2 types of mm make up the esophagus?
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skeletal mm (upper 1/3) and smooth mm (lower 1/3)
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What A supplies blood to the esophagus?
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esophageal aa
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What drains the blood from the esophagus?
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esophageal vv that flow into the azygos system
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Where does the thoracic duct start?
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around T12 as a dialatedd sac (chyle asternum)
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Which intercostal vv does the Azygos V drain?
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R post. intercostal vv T1-T12
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Which intercostal vv does the accessory hemiazygos v drain?
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L post intercostal vv T1-T5
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Whish intercostal vv does the hemiazygos v drain?
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L post intercostal vv T6-T12
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What does the diaphragm m consist of?
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striated m and a central tendon
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What 3 foramina are located in the diaphragm?
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Aortic foramen, esophageal foramen, and inferior vena cava foramen
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What aa/vv supply/drain the superior surface of the diaphragm?
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pericardiacophrenic aa and musculophrenic aa
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What aa/vv supply/drain the inferior surface of the diaphragm?
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inferior phrenic aa/vv
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From where does the term "anatomy" derive its name? what does it mean?
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Derived from Greek work "temnein" meaning "to cut"
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What are the 2 approaches to studying anatomy?
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regional and systemic
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DEFINE Synovial joints
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2 elements separated by an articular cavity consisting of layers of cartilage, usually hyaline cartilage, which covers teh articulating surfaces of teh elements
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DEFINE joint capsule
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capsule which contains an inner synovial membrane and outer fibrous membrane
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DEFINE synovial membrane
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highly vascular; produces synovial fluid which percolates into the articular cavity and lubricates the sufaces. Consists of synovial bursae
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DEFINE fibrous membrane
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formed by dense CT that surrounds and stabilizes the joint
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FUNCTION articular discs
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absorb compression forces, adjust to changes in contours of joint surfaces during movements and increase range of movement
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What are the y types of synovial joints?
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plane, hinge, pivot, bicondylar, condylar (ellipsoid), Saddle, ball and socket
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DEFINE plane joint
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allow sliding or gliding of one bone over another (ie-acromioclavicular joint)
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DEFINE hinge joint
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allow movement around one axis that passes transversely through the joint. permits flexion and extension (ie-elbow joint)
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DEFINE pivot joint
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allows movement around one axis that passes longitudinally along a bone. permits rotation (ie-atlantoaxial joint)
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DEFINE bicondylar joint
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allow movement mostly in 1 axis with limited rotation around a 2nd axis. Formed by 2 convex condyles and articulate with concave or flat sufaces (ie-knee joint)
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DEFINE condylar (ellipsoid) joint
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allows movement around 2 axes that are at right angles to each other. permits flexion, extension, ABduction, ADduction, and circumduction
(ie-wrist joint) |
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DEFINE saddle joint
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allow movement around 2 axis that are at right angles to each other, with the "saddled-shaped' articular surfaces. permits flexion, extension, ABduction, ADduction, circumductiona dn rotation
(ie-carpometacarpal joint of thumb) |
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DEFINE Ball and socket joint
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allow movement around multiple axis. permits flexion, extension, ABduction, ADduction, circumduction and rotation (ie-hip joint and shoulder joint)
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What are the 2 main types of joints?
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synovial and solid
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What differentiates a solid joint from a synovial joint?
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-no cavity is present between the elements and held together by CT
-movement is more restricted -connections between skeletal elements where adjacent surfaces are linked by either fibrous CT or cartilage |
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What are the 2 types of solid joints?
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fibrous and cartilaginous
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What are the 3 types of solid fibrous joints?
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sutures, gomphoses, and syndesmoses
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DEFINE suture joints
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occur only in the skull where adjacent bones are linked by a thin CT called sutural ligament
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DEFINE gomphoses joints
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occur between teeth and adjacent bone, connected by short collagen tissue fibers in the periodontal ligament
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DEFINE syndesmoses joints
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2 adjacent bones are linked by a ligament (ie-ligamentum flavum which connect adjacent vertebral laminae, OR an interosseous membrane which links the radius and ulna)
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What are the 2 types of solid cartilaginous joints?
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synchondroses and symphyses
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DEFINE synchondroses joints
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2 ossification areas in a developing bone remain separated by a layer of cartilage (ie-growth plate btw head and shaft of a developing bone). Allow bone growth but will eventually become completely ossified
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DEFINE symphyses joints
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2 separate bones are connected by cartilage. most occur in midline (ie-pubic symphysis and intervertebral discs
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FUNCTION lymphatic system
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-collect fluid lost in vascular capillary beds during nutrient exchange and, with uni-directional flow, is delivered back to the venous side of the vascular system
-major contributor to the transport of fat absorbed by the gut |
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What else (besides interstitial fluid) drains into the lymphatic capillaries?
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pathogens, cells of the lymphatic system, cell product (hormones), and cell debris
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DEFINE chyle
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the lymph that is carried from the small intestine and is opaque or milky due to the presence of chylomicrons
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DEFINE chylomicrons
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protein packed lipid droplets produced by the intestinal epithelium
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DEFINE lacteals
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lymphatic capillaries in sm. intestine
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Where are palpable (superficial) lymph nodes located?
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axillary, groin, femoral, and neck regions
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DEFINE Rectus Sheath
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long, aponeurotic sheath that encloses the rectus abdominis
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DEFINE aponeurosis
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large, broad, flat-like tendon
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What forms the linea alba?
|
all aponeuroses of the rectus sheath
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What is the fascia transversalis?
|
layer of transparent fascia that lines the entire abdominal wall
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Where is the fascia transversalis found?
|
between MM/aponeurosis and parietal peritoneum of abdominal cavity
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What is contained within the fascia transversalis?
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variable amount of fat
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DEFINE Peritoneum
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continuous serous membrane that lines the inner aspects of the abdominal wall, inner pelvis, and diaphragm (parietal peritoneum) and covers and surrounds visceral structures (visceral peritoneum) forming a potential space btw the 2 types of peritoneum
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DEFINE Peritoneal recess
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where the peritoneum forms blind pouches
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What is an example of a peritoneal recess?
|
omental bursa behind the lesser omentum through the epiploic foramen
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What structures are retroperitoneal?
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IVC, Aorta, kidneys, ureters
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