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210 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Multiple punched out lesions of the same size in an Xray of the skull is indicitive of what?
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Multiple Myeloma
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What is the AKA for Scleraderma?
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Systemic sclerosis.
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What deformity can be seen in Psoriatic Arthritis?
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Pencil-in-cup deformity
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Pencil-in-cup deformity can be seen in what condition?
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Psoriatic Arthritis.
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What sex and age group is represented in Scheurman's disease?
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Both males and females of 10 to 16 years of age.
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Multiple punched out lesions of different sizes in an Xray of the skull is indicitive of what?
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Lytic Mets
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What is the AKA for Multiple Myeloma?
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Plasmacytosis.
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What is Vertebral Plana?
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Flattening of the vertebra due to cancer.
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What is the first sign of Myesthenia Gravis?
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A defect in vision.
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What type of sound is percussed over the majority of the abdomen?
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Tympanic.
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What kind of headache produces knife-like pain?
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Cluster Headache.
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What is the age group for temportal arteritis?
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ove age 50.
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Cluster headaches are seen in what group?
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Adolescent to adult males.
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What is the AKA for Hyperadrenalism?
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Cushing's disease.
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What is the AKA for Hypoadrenalism?
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Addison's disease.
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Signs and symptoms of Cushings disease?
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Buffalo hump, moon face, and hirtsuism [hair where there shouldn't be any].
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Signs and symptoms of Addison's disease
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bronze or brown or tan skin, confusion, orthostatic hypotension
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What are the S/S of Reiter's syndrome?
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Eye pain, joint pain, heel pain.
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A bruit heard over the epigastic region is most likely from what structure?
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a renal artery
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A diabetic might present with what kind of breath?
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fruity breath from ketoacidosis
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fruity breath may indicate what?
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ketoacidosis
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What is the palpatory finding of a patient with emphysema?
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decreased fremitus
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What is the percussive finding on a patient with emphysema?
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hyperressonant
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What is a break in the pars called?
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An isthmic spondylolesthesis.
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A patient with TOS with have pain where?
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At the medial border of the forearm, wrist and hand.
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TOS affects which part of which plexus?
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The lower part of the brachial plexus.
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Distal tuft reabsorption,seen in the hand on xray, is a symptom of what disorder?
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Scleraderma.
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Which cancer is most likely to metastisize?
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Melanoma
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What is the reflex for the CN-V and the Pons?
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The Corneal reflex
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What is the reflex for the CN 5, the Pons, and the Medulla?
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The Occulocardiac reflex.
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When is a A skin lesion is suspected to be malignant?
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When it had irregular borders.
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Bonnet's Test is for what?
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Piriformis Syndrome.
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a positive Oppenheimer's test is indicitive of what?
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An UMNL.
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Is a myelopathy an UMNL or LMNL?
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UMNL.
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What is Hypercholesterolemia treated with?
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Omega 3 Fatty acids.
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Where and when does physiological splitting occur?
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At S1 upon inspiration.
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Which hemorroids are painful?
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External hemorroids.
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Which hemorroids are painless?
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Internal hemorroids.
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What Vitamin prevents Beri Beri?
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Thiamine/Vitamin B1
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What is Thiamine also known as?
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Vitamin B1.
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Small, raised, red spots with a halo are also known as what?
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Cherry angiomas.
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where are Bankhart lesions found?
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In the shoulder.
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Self breast examination should be done when?
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1x/M, just after menses.
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Is unconjugated biliurubin prehepatic or posthepatic?
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Prehepatic.
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Is conjugated biliurubin prehepatic or posthepatic?
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Posthepatic.
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Is prehepatic bilirubin conjugated or unconjugated?
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Unconjugated.
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is posthepatic bilirubin conjugated or unconjugated?
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Conjugated.
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What is the AKA for AST?
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SGOT.
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What is the AKA for ALT?
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SGPT.
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What is the AKA for SGOT?
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AST.
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What is the AKA for SGPT?
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ALT.
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Name the conditions that are HLAB-27 positive, sero (RA) negative
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Psoriatic artheritis, Enteropathic artheritis, Ankylosising Spondylitis,& Reiter's Syndrome.
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If patient has shin splints, what muscle do you want to stretch?
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the gastrocnemius.
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if the patient has shin splints, what muscle do you want to strengthen?
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The tibialis anterior.
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Which enzymes are made by the liver?
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AST (SGOT), ALT (SGPT) and LDH.
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Cystic Fibrosis will cause what type of deformity?
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Barrel Chest deformity.
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What type of complication can follow a thigh contusion?
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Myositis Ossificans.
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How is Osgood Schlaater's disease managed?
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Brace the knee.
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What structure is likely responsible for lateral knee pain when running downhill?
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The Iliotibial Band.
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What can the overuse of corticosteroids lead to?
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Fracture of the vertebra with an Angular Kyphosis.
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Genu Valgus is considered normal in what age group?
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2 - 10 year olds.
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Genu Varus is considered normal in what age group?
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Birth to 1 year olds.
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Accomodation checks what Cranial Nerve(s)?
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CN II and III.
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The Consensual Light Reflex checks what Cranial Nerve(s)?
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CN III.
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What is contraindicated for an acute cervical sprain/strain?
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Cervical traction.
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Pain is ellicited at 35 degrees during a SLR. What is the most likely cause?
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Sciatic tension.
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Pain is ellicited at less than 20 degrees during a SLR. What is the most likely cause?
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SI involvement.
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A genetically shortened radius with radial deviation of the wrist is known as what?
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Madalung's deformity.
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Which bone is adjusted for carpal tunnel syndrome?
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The Lunate.
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What is the line of drive to correct a subluxated Lunate?
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A to P.
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What nerve runs through the Cubital Tunnel?
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The Ulnar nerve.
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Where is the Cubital Tunnel located?
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The medial aspect of the elbow.
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What is the most common benign tumor in the body?
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Osteochondroma.
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For a reinforced pisiform contact between the levels of T4 & L2, the doctor makes contact with which hand?
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The superior hand.
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For a reinforced pisiform contact at T1-T3 & L3-L5, the doctor makes contact with which hand?
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The inferior hand.
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Where is the contact to correct a left AI sacrum?
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At the right sacral base.
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What is the initial treatment for Adhesive Capsulitis.
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PROM into the painful area.
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If Piriformis is the only tissue responsible for pain, what will not be an accompanying factor?
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Low back pain.
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Facet pain refers to where?
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No further than the knee.
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Radicular pain is from what?
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Nerve root involvement.
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What adjusting technique is contraindicated for a spondylolesthesis?
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A knee-chest table.
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What is the position of choice for a spondylolesthesis?
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The knee-chest position.
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What is the bacteria associated with peptic ulcers?
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Heliobacter pylori.
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What condition is contraindicated for axis adjusting?
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VBI.
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Numbness described as 'burning' or 'pins and needles' is called what?
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Parasthesia.
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Toxic levels of selenium will lead to what?
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Dermatitis, and a loss of hairs and nails.
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What is the best way to diagnose an Abdominal aortic aneurysm?
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Ultrasound.
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A 26 YO male with increase urine frequency and volume, but no dysuria or nocturia is best Dx with what?
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Diabetes Mellitus.
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What muscle is affected in Tennis Elbow?
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Extensor carpi radialis brevis.
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Loss of supplemental or associated movement suggests what?
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A lesion in the basal ganglia.
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What age group does Scheuermann's disease affect, and what does it result in?
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Adolescents, and and increase thoracic kyphosis.
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Clinic manifestation of hepatitis results in what?
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Jaundice.
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Which muscle is responsible for extension of the leg?
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The Quads.
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What view is a rotator cuff injury with an avulsion of the Supraspinatus tendon best seen in?
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External rotation.
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What causes a radiculopathy?
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Compression of a nerve root.
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What kind of pain does a facet cause?
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Scleratogenous pain.
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Which are taste receptors?
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CN 7, 9 and 10.
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What is the AKA for the corticospinal tracts?
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The pyramidal tracts.
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When are tension headaches the worst?
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At the end of the day.
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When are potential risks discussed with the patient?
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During informed consent.
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An increase in basophils indicates what?
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Some problem of the blood.
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What PT mod is used to treat chronic bronchitis?
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Shortwave diathermy.
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A positive Lhermitte's is indicative of what?
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Multiple Sclerosis.
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What condition accompanies rust-colored sputum?
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Pneumonia.
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What might accompany a 25mm difference between upper extremity BP and lower extremity BP?
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Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm.
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What kind of pain is experienced with an Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm?
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Generalized back pain.
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What kind of pain is experienced with a dissecting Aortic Aneurysm?
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Sharp, stabbing pain.
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A decrease in MCV, MCH, and MCHC may indicate what condition?
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Iron deficiency anemia.
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An increase in MCV, and variable MCH and MCHC may indicate what condition?
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A Vitamin B12 deficiency (due to pernicious anemia) and folic acid deficiency.
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What does a Shilling Shift to the Left indicate?
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Acute appendicitis.
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What is the best way to diagnose a cholelithiasis?
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Ultrasound.
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How can you distinguish between Bell's Palsy and a stroke?
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A patient with Bell's Palsy will be unable to lift their eyebrows or wrinkle their forehead.
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The values for alkaline phosphotase are abnormal in what disorders?
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Disorders of bone and liver.
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An increase in BUN is indicative or what?
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A kidney disorder.
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Spider angiomas are indicative of what?
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A liver disorder.
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Levels of what elevate in the blood following a myocardial infaction?
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CPK, SGOT and LDH.
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What laboratory findings change in Pancreatitis and Pancreatic Cancer?
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Amylase and Lypase.
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What lab findings are altered in renal disease?
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BUN and Uric acid.
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What are the significant lab findings for Muscular Dystrophy?
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Elevated CPK and decreased creatinine.
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A decrease in BUN is indicative of what?
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A liver disorder.
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What is the AKA for Myxedema?
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Hypothyroidism.
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What are the 3 findings for Horner's Syndrome?
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Ptosis, Miosis and Anhydrosis.
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What is periorbital Edema associated with?
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Nephrotic syndrome.
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What is blepharitis?
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Inflammation of the eyelid.
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What is exophthalmosis associated with?
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Bilaterally: Grave's disease (hyperthyroidism).
Unilaterally: Tumor. |
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Yellow sclera is associated with what disorder?
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Jaundice.
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When found in a patient other than the elderly, what is Corneal arcus associated with?
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Hyperlipoproteinemia.
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What is the AKA for Corneal arcus?
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Arcus senilius.
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Yellow skin and sclera is indicative of what?
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A billirubin problem.
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What is a Xanthelasma?
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A fatty plaque of the nasal surface of the eyelid, which can be normal or indicative of hypercholesterolemia.
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Tabes dorsalis is resposible for what conditions?
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Paralysis of CNs 3, 4 and 6, as well as demylination of the posterior columns.
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What are the S/S of Tabes dorsalis?
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Pupils that accomodate but don't react, difficulty seeing in the dark and loss of proprioception.
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Argyll Robertson pupils indicate what?
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Tertiary stages of Syphilis.
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Eyes that don't react or accomodate indicate what condition?
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Multiple Sclerosis.
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What is presbyopia?
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Loss of lens elasticity due to aging.
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What are the S/S of hypothyroidism?
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Fatigue, cold intolerance, puffy face, hoarseness and slow speech, dry skin, and constipation.
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What are the S/S of hyperthyroidism?
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Exophthalmosis, warm moist skin, heat intolerance, palpitations, fast speech, insomnia, and fine hair.
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Strict vegetarians are at risk of what?
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Vitamin B12 deficiency.
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What is the AKA for Tic delouroeux?
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Trigeminal neuralgia.
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What structures are involved in the "Terible Triad"?
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Medial meniscus, MCL and ACL.
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What does a positive WLR indicate?
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Medial disc involvement.
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What muscle should be tightened/stretched to help correct a hyperlordosis?
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Strengthen: Hamstrings, Abds, and Gluts.
Stretch: Psoas, Erector spinae, and Quads. |
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What kind of lifts should one use to correct a hypolordosis?
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Heel lifts.
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What muscles externally rotate the shoulders?
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The Infraspinatus spinatus(major) and the Teres minor (minor).
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What condition is responsible for a scissor gait?
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Cerebral palsy.
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What characterizes Raynaud's Phenomenon?
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A triphasic change of skin color: white to blue and then to red (due to a spasm and relax of an artery).
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A Shilling Test is used to determine what?
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Vitamin B12 deficiency.
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Trigeminal neuralgia affects what?
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CN 5.
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What is the AKA for hyperthyroidism?
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Grave's disease.
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What is the first sign of Ankylosing Spondylosis?
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Shiny corner sign.
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Metastasis from cancer is a contraindication for what?
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Cervical adjustment.
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Is congenital hip dysplasia unilateral or bilateral?
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Unilateral.
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What conditions can result in a scissor gait?
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CVA, Multiple Sclerosis, spinal cord trauma or tumor, syringomyelia, pernicious anemia, and cerebral palsy.
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What conditions can result in a steppage gait?
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Guillian-Barre syndrome, Multiple Sclerosis, poliomyelitis, spinal cord trauma, and polyneuropathy.
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What conditions can result in a waddling gait?
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Congenital hip dysplasia and Muscular dystrophy.
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What cord levels does Meralgia paresthetica affect?
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L1-L2-L3.
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At what level is a degenerative spondylolesthesis found?
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L4.
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A spiculated periosteal response is indicative of what?
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Osteosarcoma.
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A laminated periosteal response is indicative of what?
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Ewing's sarcoma.
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What does a positive
Trendelenburg Test indicate? |
Weak Gluteus medius on the contralateral side.
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Horner's syndrome is caused by what?
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Interruption of the cervical sympathetics.
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What are the S/S of Grave's disease?
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Goiter, Tachycardia, fine tremors, increased appetite with weight loss, increased DTR's, and exophthalmosis.
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A missing pedicle on xray with sclerosing of the opposing pedicle indicates what?
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A congenital anomoly.
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Where do Chance Fractures occur?
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L1, L2 or L3.
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What condition is associated with DISH?
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D.M.
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How is Proprioceptive Insult defined?
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A minor injury that sends a muscle into spasm.
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What is Klein's Line used to determine?
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Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis.
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Flattening of the Femor head is associated with what condition?
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Legg Calve Perthes.
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What is the most common Fx at L1?
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A compression Fx.
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A missing pedicle on xray with an opposing pedicle that displays no changes indicates what?
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Lytic mets.
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Compression Fx most likely occur where.
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At transitional segments.
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What can Pes cavus lead to?
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Stress Fx of a metatarsal.
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What is the first sign of Hyperparathyroidism?
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Rugger Jersey Spine.
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Genu valgus is a result of a weakness of what muscle?
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Piriformis.
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What is contraindicated for Codman's excercises?
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Acute trauma.
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What is the treatment for a Grade 2 shoulder impingement?
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A sling (to immobilize the torn labrum).
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What caused Neurogenic claudication?
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Central canal stenosis.
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Bronchial sound are found in what disease?
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Pneunomia.
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What is the AKA for Osteochondroma?
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Multiple exostosis.
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Where is the most common site for an Enchondroma?
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In the hand.
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What is the AKA for a coin lesion?
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A Haratoma.
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What is the most common reason for bilateral Protusio acetabuli?
|
R.A.
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Intolerance to heat is associated with what diseases?
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M.S. and Grave's disease (hyperthyroidism)
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What is indicated by a positive Murphy's Test?
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Gallbladder dysfunction.
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What is the most efficient method for diagnosing cholelithiases?
|
Ultrasound.
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What do nitrates in the urine indicate?
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Acute cystitis.
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What is the best way to diagnose an AAA?
|
Angiogram.
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What are the best exercises for osteoporosis?
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Weight-bearing.
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White lesions on the tongue that peel off are caused by what?
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Antibiotics.
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White lesions on the tongue that do not peel off are indicative of what?
|
AIDS.
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A 5 YO with Duchenne's Muscular Dystrophy exhibits what kind of gait?
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A waddling gait.
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Bilateral Peroneal nerve palsy is indicative of what disease?
|
Charcot Marie Tooth Disease.
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Gout is made worse by ingesting what?
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Red wine or red meat.
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What is Arnold Chiari malformation associated with?
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Any midline brain/spinal cord defect.
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What are the symptoms of Meniere's Disease?
|
Vertigo, tinitus and deafness.
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What are heel spurs associated with?
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Plantar fascitis.
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Loss of joint space in the knee is indicative of what?
|
DJD.
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15 yo with rounded shoulders and hyperkyphosis...
|
Scheuermann's disease.
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DeQuervain's affects what where?
|
The Extensor policis brevis at the posterior radius.
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Black and blue spots from a vitamin deficiency are called what?
|
Petechia.
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How do you treat tenosynovitis of the Extensor policis brevis?
|
Splint the thumb and index finger.
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Where does the Gallbladder refer pain to?
|
The right shoulder and the inferior border of the Scapula.
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Where does the Pancreas refer pain to?
|
The thoracis spine.
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Stored glucose is called what?
|
Glycogen.
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Fruity breath is due to what metabolic action?
|
Oxidation of free fatty acids which produce ketone bodies that deplete extra and intracellular acid buffers which results in acidosis.
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Where, on an EKG, is S2 heard?
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At the end of the T-wave.
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Where, on an EKG, is S1 heard?
|
At the height of the QRS complex.
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Excessive use of a screwdriver can lead to what syndrome?
|
Pronator teres syndrome.
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Rhonci on inspiration and expiration are heard where?
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The trachea and major bronchii.
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Entrapment of the Subclavian artery occurs where?
|
Between the Scalenus anticus and the notch or the first rib.
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