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92 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What treatment offers the best prognosis in bronchogenic carcinoma?
Resection of affected lung tissue (vs. radiation and chemo)
What are the two main questions for preop assessment of patients undergoing pulmonary resection?
a. Does the risk of potential postop complications preclude performing the surgery?
b. Will postop pulmonary function be sufficient to allow reasonable quality of life?
- The postop risks must be extremely high before they would preclude the operation
How do spirometry parameters change following lobectomy and pneumonectomy?
FEV-1 and FVC decline 10% after lobectomy and 33% pneumonectomy
List 5 postop complications of thoracic surgery
arrhythmias, MI, PE, pneumonia, empyema
What has markedly decreased the rate of postop pulmonary complications?
The use of video-assisted thoracoscopy (VAT)
What should be evaluated prior to small lung resections? 3
preop eval of cardiac disease, gas exchange, oxygenation
What should be evaluated prior to pneumonectomy?
complete PFTs and cardiac testing
Patients with cancer: 4 M’s
Mass effects, Metabolic effects, Metastases, and Medications
List 3 risk factors of pulmonary disease
Cigarette smoking, air pollution, industrial chemical exposure
Signs of pulmonary disease 6
Exertional dyspnea
Productive cough
Poor exercise tolerance
Hemoptysis
Cyanosis
Chest pain
Difficulty breathing in the supine position could result from what? 2
COPD, compression the airway by a mediastinal mass
What does the chest radiograph of a patient with COPD show? 3
a. Hyperinflation, increased anteroposterior (AP) diameter, increased vascular markings
b. Bullae of emphysema may also be present
c. Infections or pleural effusions may be noted
What does increased PVR result from in the patient with COPD? What is the consequence?
compression of the vascular bed; it increases the likelihood of right ventricular failure
Why are hormonal abnormalities common in patients with lung tumors?
they often secrete endocrine-like substances such as ACTH, ADH, serotonin, parathyroid hormone, and insulin
What are two common nutritional problems in patients with lung cancer, associated with increased postop complications?
hypoalbuminemia and malnutrition – increased risk of pneumonia
What are the factors that characterize patients with low-risk for postop complications? 4
A. FEV-1 >2L or 80% of predicted
b. Predicted postoperative (PPO) FEV-1 at least 80% of predicted normal value
c. VO2max >20 ml/kg/min
d. ability to climb 5 flights of stairs
What are the factors that characterize high-risk patients?
a. FEV1 <2l>< 40% predicted
b. PPO FEV1 < 40%of predicted normal value
c. DLCO < 40% of predicted
d. Inability to climb one fligh of stairs
e. VO2max <10 mL/kg/min
f. Oxygen desaturation > 4% during exercise
Chest radiograph should be assessed in lung cancer patients to determine what?
if the lesions compress mediastinal structures, cause tracheal shift, or invade the airway
What changes are seen on ECG in patients with pulmonary disease?
a. changes indicative of RV hypertrophy and strain, such as….
- low-voltage QRS waves and poor R-wave progression over the precordial leads
-R/S ratio greater than 1 in lead V1
-shift toward right axis deviation
b. changes indicative of RA hypertrophy such as….
-initial component of a biphasic P wave in lead V1 to be larger than the second component
Increased PVR and RV strain could preclude pneumonectomy - why?
because of the added resistance produced by clamping the vasculature of one lung
Measurement of preop room air ABGs is useful for what purpose?
guiding the weaning of O2 and ventilation postop
What aspects of an ABG result indicate poor ventilatory function? What is a good indicator of post-op complications?
a. CO2 retention (PCO2 > 45)
-hypercapnia is not a reliable predictor of incr. risk of periop pulmonary complications
c. Preop hypoxemia (SaO2 &lt;90%) and desaturation during exercise are predictive of inc. complications following thoracic surgery
What PFTs predict complications? 4
a. FVC &lt; 50% of predicted
b. FEV1 &lt; 2L
c. FEV1/FVC &lt; 50%
d. DLCO (lung carbon monoxide diffusing capacity) &lt; 50% of predicted
Should you assess spirometry before or after bronchodilator therapy?
AFTER - represents the patient’s potential lung function once optimized on medications
What is the most reliable way to assess PFTs?
based on predicted postoperative (PPO) function tests, as opposed to assessing a static value for all patients that doesn’t account of age/gender/height
How do you calculate the PPO FEV1? What values are you looking for?
a. current FEV1 x fraction of functioning lung (or the fraction of lung segments that will remain after resection)
b. a value of at least 40% of predicted is a good criterion for lung resection
d. less than 35% are at a high risk of postop complications
If preop lung function tests indicate an increased risk for periop complications, what further testing can predict postresection lung function?
split lung function tests of ventilation and perfusion
b. can multiply current function by the fraction of functioning lung that will remain postop to determine postresection function
c. important to note that removal of a diseased portion of lung may NOT decrease overall lung function
How can ventilation be measured?
patient inhales one vital capacity breath of a radioisotope, then measure the isotope counts with multiple scanners placed over the chest wall
How can perfusion be measured?
a. radioisotope injected intravenously and imaged shows the distribution of perfusion to all areas of the lung
b. radionuclide studies have an imprecision rate of 20% in predicting postop pulm function
Lung reduction surgery is most useful in which patients? this effect is better appreciated with?
a. patients with heterogenous emphysema, where removal of a segment or lobe will result in better pulmonary function overall
b. upper rather than lower lobectomy
Describe diffusion capacity and how it is tested? What values are you looking for?
a. tests the lung’s ability to allow transport of gas across the alveolar-capillary membrane
b. O2 is difficult to measure
c. Carbon monoxide (CO) is used instead; pt. inhales a small amount of CO, holds the breath for 10 seconds, and the amount of CO in the exhalation is measured. After subtracting the amount of CO that should be expired with dead space air, the resulting amount exhaled provides and indicator of the diffusing capacity of the lungs (DLCO)
d. a value less than 60% of predicted is associated with inc. complications and mortality; less than 40% is high risk
e. this test has good specificity but low sensitivity as an independent measurement
Diffusion capacity should be done if patient has evidence of?
interstitial lung disease or dyspnea
What is the predicted postoperative product?
a. product of the predicted values for DLCO and FEV1
b. more reliable than the single measurements alone
c. <1650 in 75% who died
Describe the use of maximal oxygen consumption (VO2max) testing, when should the test be performed?
a. when used during exercise testing, it is a strong predictor of outcomes
b. VO2max &lt; 10 ml/kg/min (or 50% predicted) assoc. high risk of death following surgery
c. VO2max &lt; 15 ml/kg/min indicates an increased risk
d. VO2max > 20ml/kg/min is favorable, suggesting little risk of complications
e. test should be performed if preop or PPO FEV1 or DLCO are &lt;40% of predicted normal
How else can VO2max be estimated?
a. if a patient can climb five flights of stairs, VO2max >20
b. if a patient cannot climb one flight of stairs, VO2max <10
List some preoperative conditions that, if treated, greatly reduce the postop risk (8)
a. infection
b. excess bronchial secretions
c. bronchospasm
d. dehydration
e. malnutrition
f. electrolyte imbalance
g. smoking
h. ETOH abuse
Describe the importance of timing of smoking cessation
transient increases in mucus production may increase complications in patients who have surgery within 2 months of smoking cessation
What are the 5 components of an aggressive preop respiratory preparation regimen?
a. Terminate stimulus for bronchoconstriction and secretions: QUIT SMOKING
b. Dilate the airways: DRUGS
c. Loosen secretions: HYDRATION
d. Remove secretions: POSTURAL DRAINAGE, CHEST PT, COUGHING
e. Increase patient participation: EDUCATE, MOTIVATE, COUGH, IS, EXERCISE, WT LOSS
Monitoring of what ECG leads detects more than 85% of ischemia?
II and V5
What is the purpose of the airway pressure monitor? 2
a. detects changes in airway compliance
b. assists in identifying proper placement of double-lumen tubes (DLTs)
Why is an arterial line suggested for thoracic surgery? 2
a. arterial BP instantly identifies hypotension with surgical manipulation
b. frequent sampling for ABGs
Where should the arterial line be placed, based on procedure? thoracotomy? mediastinoscopy?
a. thoracotomy: the dependent arm, where it is more easily stabilized
b. mediastinoscopy: right arm, detects compression of the innominate artery and helps prevent dec. CBF
Describe the use of CVP monitoring in thoracotomies
inc CVP or pulm. cap. wedge pressures are associated with greater lung injury and prolonged mechanical ventilation after complex pulm. surgery
Is the use of pulmonary artery pressure monitoring helpful? What may it help avoid?

b. not helpful in predicting postop complications; right heart catheterization may even promote cardiac complications
d. may be useful in preventing fluid overload (which can worse postop pulm function)
Where should the axillary roll be placed in a thoractomy?
caudal to the axilla
What nerve can be damaged with the placement of leg safety strap?
peroneal nerve in the area of the fibular head of the dependent leg and the femoral head of the nondependent leg
SPONTANEOUSLY BREATHING, UPRIGHT POSITION (normal lung) blood perfusion increases lineraly from the?
apex(where flow is very low) to the base (where flow is the greatest) of the lung (West Zones)
in the normal lung, pleural pressure is most negative at the?
apex, which keeps alveoli distended
How much does pleural pressure increase for every cm down the lung?
0.25 cm H20
Which alveoli are less distended and therefore more compliant, nondependent or dependent?
dependent, (they can expand by a greater volume for a given pressure change because they are starting at a lower resting volume)
Where is most of a tidal breath distributed to in the normal lung?
the dependent alveoli; this is optimal because the higher ventilation in the dependent base matches the higher perfusion in the dependent base
In the awake lateral there is less...?
vertical distance present to cause differences in the intrapleural pressure and blood pressure gradients
In the awake lateral patient describe the dependent lung. 2
1. abdominal contents displace the diaphragm in a cephalad manner on the dependent side
2. the dependent hemidiaphragm can contract further in a higher position in the thorax; thus, during inspiration the diaphragmatic contraction causes more of the Vt to fill the dependent lung
Which lung in the awake lateral patient is better perfused?
dependent, V/Q remains unchanged and gas exchange remains efficient
ANESTHETIZED LATERAL, SPONTANEOUSLY BREATHING, CHEST CLOSED describe the FRC once upon induction
Total FRC decreases
What is further decreased besides FRC in the anesthetized lateral spontaneously breathing, chest closed patient?
also reduces proportion of favorable zone 3 area
ANESTHETIZED LATERAL, SPONTANEOUSLY BREATHING, CHEST CLOSED, describe lung volumes and place on the compliance curve.
Lung volumes in both lungs are lower, and their place on the compliance curve is shifted: lungs are less compliant when they are at very high volume (alveoli distended) or very low volume (alveolar atelectasis)
Describe the nondependent lung in the anesthetized lateral, spont. breathing, closed chest patient?
the proportion of FRC in the nondependent lung increases in contrast to the dependent lung; as the dependent lung loses FRC, its volume becomes so low as to decrease its compliance and it shifts to a flatter, less compliant portion of the curve. The nondependent lung moves from a flat, noncompliant portion of the curve to a more compliant position
Describe changes that occur in the ANESTHETIZED, PARALYZED, VENTED, LATERAL, CHEST CLOSED patient
diaphragm no longer contributes to ventilation of the lower lung, and FRC further declines as the compression from abdominal viscera is no longer counteracted by the force of the contracting diaphragm
In the ANESTHETIZED, PARALYZED, VENTED, LATERAL, CHEST CLOSED patient, ventilation shifts to follow?
path of least resistance, favoring the nondependent lung
In the ANESTHETIZED, PARALYZED, VENTED, LATERAL, CHEST CLOSED there is further deterioration of?
V/Q ratio
In the ANESTHETIZED, PARALYZED, VENTED, LATERAL, CHEST CLOSED what helps restore FRC and the V/Q ratio?
PEEP
In the ANESTHETIZED, VENTED, OPEN CHEST patient, describe what occurs b/c of the open chest?
open chest greatly reduces resistance to gas flow in the nondependent lung by detaching the lung from its pleural connection with the chest wall, causing further loss of ventilation of the dependent lung
In the ANESTHETIZED, VENTED, OPEN CHEST the mediastinum shifts?
further downward because of loss of negative intraplueral pressure in the nondependent lung, which helped to distend it, which further decreases ventilation to the dependent lung
What diminishes the effects of mediastinal shift and paradoxical respiration?
PPV
During mechanical ventilation, the open chest provides no? higher proportion of ventilation goes to?
resistance, and the greatly increased compliance of that lung allows a higher proportion of ventilation to go to the nondependent lung (the least perfused area of the thorax)
The less ventilated, better-perfused dependent lung contributes to?
physiologic shunt (as blood flows through the atelectatic areas without acquiring oxygen)
What are the absolute indications for OLV?
a. infectious contamination of one lung or massive hemorrhage of one lung
b. control of the distribution of ventilation in the case of:
1. bronchopleural fistula
2. bronchopleural cutaneous fistula
3. surgical opening of a major conducting airway
4. giant unilateral lung cyst or bullae
5. tracheobroncheal tree disruption
6. life-threatening hypoxemia r/t unilateral lung disease
c. unilateral bronchopulmonary lavage for pulm. alveolar proteinosis
What are the relative indications for OLV?
a. surgical exposure – high priority
1. thoracic aortic aneurysm
2. pneumonectomy
3. thoracoscopy
4. upper lobectomy
5. mediastinal exposure
b. surgical exposure – medium priority
1. middle and lower lobectomies and subsegmental resections
2. esophageal resection
3. procedures on the thoracic spine
c. post CPB pulmonary edema/hemorrhage after removal of totally occluding unilateral chronic pulmonary emboli
d. severe hypoxemia r/t unilateral lung disease
What are 4 different methods that can be used for OLV?
a. a traditional single lumen ETT advanced into the non-operative lung
b. bronchial blockers
c. Univent ETT (built-in bronchial blocker in a second lumen)
d. double lumen tube (Carlens, White, or Robertshaw)
Describe bronchial blockers
a. catheter with an inflatable balloon that blocks the bronchus
b. a separate ETT is then placed in the trachea
When is a bronchial blocker useful? 5
useful in patients with difficult airways, patients already intubated, nasal intubations, peds, VAT procedures
What are two current types of bronchial blocker?
8F Fogarty embolectomy catheter and the Wire-Guided Endobronchial blocker (WEB)
What is a Univent tube?
integrated ETT with a 2nd lumen for deployment of the bronchial blocker
-after intubation, the blocker is advanced into the bronchus with the fiberoptic scope
T or F. A univent tube can easily be passed through a stoma in postlaryngectomy patients
True
What are the sizes available for a univent tube?
6-9mm, external diameter is larger than a single lumen tube
What is a double-lumen tube?
two bonded catheters, each with its own lumen – one for ventilating the trachea, and one for ventilating the bronchus
What is a Carlens DLT?
left sided DLT with a carinal hook to aid in stabilizing the tube
What is a white DLT?
right sided DLT, carinal hook
What is a robertshaw DLT?
right or left sided, no carinal hook; sizes 26, 28, 35, 37, 39, 41F
How do you size males and females of the Robertshaw DLTs?
Actually determined by height, but females usually get a 35-37, males 39-41
Distance from the carinal bifurcation to the left and right mainstem bronchi?
left – 4 to 5 cm
right – 2.5 cm
Which side should the DLT be placed on based on the side of surgery?
left sided placement for either right or left sided surgery unless there is a contraindication to left sided placement
What are contraindications to DLTs on one or both sides? 4
a. internal lesions of the trachea or main bronchi
b. compression of the trachea or main bronchi by an external mass
c. presence of a descending thoracic aortic aneurysm which can compress or erode the left main bronchus
-it may still be possible to use the DLT on the unaffected side
e. difficult airways in which DL is impossible is a contraindication to DLT on either side
Why are DLTs associated with an increased aspiration risk?
they take longer to place and verify placement
In the case of a patient already intubated with a single lumen tube who cannot tolerate extubation, how should ventilation be managed?
manual ventilation can be coordinated to surgical requirements
What are some options for ventilating pediatric patients undergoing thoracic surgery? 2
a. intentional endobronchial intubation
b. jet ventilation (combination of surgical pneumothorax and low mean airway pressures of jet ventilation should allow adequate deflation of the operative lung)
Which method for lung separation has the highest failure rate in practitioners with limited experience?
they are all the same
What are the indications for a Fogarty occlusion catheter? 5
a. critically ill patient
b. small bronchus
c. difficult airway
d. nasotracheal intubation
e. use with a standard ETT at least 6.0 mm
What are the indications for a Univent blocker? 2
a. selective lobar blockade
b. difficult airway requiring lung separation
What are the indications for WEB blockers? 4
a. critically ill patients
b. selective lobar blockade
c. difficult airway
d. nasotracheal intubation requiring lung separation
All lung separation devices should be placed and confirmed via what?
fiberoptic bronchoscopy