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75 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Prisoners of war are not subject to the UCMJ

1. True
2. False
2. False
What officer is responsible for preparing prisoner muster lists and having prisoners photographed for record purposes

1. Supply officer
2. First Lieutinant
3. Operations officer
4. Wardroom mess treasurer
2. First Lieutenant
Which of the following officers is/are authorized to confiscate all arms, military equipment, and military documents in the possession of the prisoners

1. Intelligence officer
2. Communications officer
3. Either 1 or 2 above
4. First Lieutenant
3. Either 1 or 2 above
Members of the U.S. Armed Forces and prisoners of war may be confined together

1. True
2. False
2. False
What instruction provides guidance for handling prisoners of war

1. OPNAVINST 5580.1
2. OPNAVINST 5530.14
3. SECNAVINST 3461.3
4. SECNAVINST 1643.1
3. SECNAVINST 3461.3`
What agency provides direct investigative support as needed both ashore and afloat for the Department of the Navy

1. The NCIS
2. The FBI
3. The CIA
1. The NCIS
What authority and/or agency should a commanding officer notify when naval personnel are involved in a major crime committed outside a naval installation

1. The NCIS
2. The officer with general court-martial jurisdiction
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. The local police agency
3. Both 1 and 2 above
What authority should determine whether or not an investigation should be referred to the Federal Bureau of Investigation

1. The Chief of Naval Operations
2. The Naval Criminal Investigative Service
3. The commanding officer of the installation
4. The local law enforcement agency
2. The Naval Criminal Investigative Service
When a crime involves robbery or larceny of government property or funds, should immediately advise the FBI

1. The commanding officer
2. The security officer
3. The Naval Criminal Investigative Service Representative
4. The Master-at-Arms
3. The Naval Criminal Investigative Service Representative
A major criminal offense is defined as one punishable under the UCMJ by confinement for a term of more than 1 year

1. True
2. False
2. False
The Director of the Naval Criminal Investigative Serivce may decline to investigate a case that may be fruitless and unproductive

1. True
2. False
1. True
A petty larceny occurred in a Naval officer's stateroom and you have been assigned to investigate. Although only petty larceny is involved, you should still inform the NCIS

1. True
2. False
1. True
A major criminal offense may constitute a violation of both military and civil law and could involve both military and civilian personnel

1. True
2. False
1. True
A minor criminal offense is defined as one punishable under the UCMJ by confinement of 1 year or less

1. True
2. False
1. True
Which of the following is a seperate operating agency of the Department of Defense and provides for the conduct of personnel security investigations

1. The NCIS
2. The FBI
3. The CIA
4. The DIS
4. The DIS
Which of the following incidents would justify the commanding officer requesting support from NCIS

1. Sabotage
2. Espionage
3. Subversion
4. All of the above
4. All of the above
Information derived by law enforcement personnel from a person, object, or recorded data is defined as what type of information

1. Police
2. Source
3. Criminal
4. Operational
2. Source
In the criminal information process, there are a total of how many steps

1. Seven
2. Six
3. Five
4. Four
2. Six
What term defines combining informaition with related information

1. Collation
2. Dissemination
3. Analyzing
4. Reporting
1. Collation
In what year was the Privacy Act enacted

1. 1973
2. 1974
3. 1975
4. 1976
2. 1974
One who provides information because of a peculiar quirk in personality

1. Mercenary
2. Perverse
3. Egotistical
4. Eccentric
4. Eccentric
One who provides informaiton for the sole purpose of financial gain

1. Mercenary
2. Perverse
3. Egotistical
4. Eccentric
1. Mercenary
One who takes pleasure in spreading news to the investigator

1. Mercenary
2. Perverse
3. Egotistical
4. Eccentric
3. Egotistical
One who provides information in the hope of gaining some unusual advantage

1. Mercenary
2. Perverse
3. Egotistical
4. Eccentric
2. Perverse
Generally, military courts will treat informant information as which of the following types of information

1. Hearsay
2. Credible
3. Probable cause
4. Expert testimony
1. Hearsay
A guiding case demonstrating a conscieintious effort to corroborate information is demonstrated in which of the following trials

1. Aguilar v. Texas
2. McCray v. Florida
3. Spinelli v. United States
4. Draper v. United States
4. Draper v. United States
Of the five senses, which two are relied upon the most for description and identification

1. Touch and sight
2. Smell and hearing
3. Sight and hearing
4. Touch and smell
3. Sight and hearing
When observing physical objects for later description, you should follow a pattern proceeding from specific to general

1. True
2. False
2. False
What term is used to describe the uncommon chatacteristics of a person

1. General
2. Specific
3. Distinctive
4. Typical
3. Distinctive
An important part of a female description is the appearance of the bust. Which of the following terms may be used to describe a woman's bust

1. Flat
2. Medium
3. Heavy
4. Each of the above
4. Each of the above
When estimating a person's weight, you should do so in how many pound increments

1. 5
2. 2
3. 10
4. 20
3. 10
When the age of a person is estimated, it should be estimated in multiples of how many years

1. 5
2. 2
3. 6
4. 10
1. 5
Which of the following characteristics will often constitute the major part of a person's description

1. Dress
2. Appearance
3. Mannerisms
4. Hair style
3. Mannerisms
It is extremely important that witnesses be interviewed how soon after their observation

1. As soon as possible
2. Within 48 hr
3. Within 72 hr
4. Within 96 hr
1. As soon as possible
Which of the following are considered the two least reliable senses

1. Taste and hearing
2. Smell and touch
3. Taste and smell
4. Smell and hearing
3. Taste and smell
Which of the following psychological influences may impair the functioning of a person's senses and result in inaccurate observation

1. Fear
2. Prejudice
3. Anger
4. All of the above
4. All of the above
Which of the following techniques is used to minimize error and elimate false identification of persons or objects

1. Lineups
2. Photographs
3. Artist sketches
4. Tape recordings
1. Line ups
A lineup should contain a minimum of how many people

1. 10
2. 6
3. 5
4. 4
2. 6
When more than one witness is to view a lineup, they should do it at the same time

1. True
2. False
2. False
The person under observation

1. Decoy
2. Blown
3. Subject
4. Surveillant
3. Subject
The term used to indicate that the identity of a surveillant has been discovered

1. Decoy
2. Convoy
3. Blown
4. Surveillant
3. Blown
A person engaged in observing a subject

1. Decoy
2. Contact
3. Subject
4. Surveillant
4. Surveillant
Any person with whom the subject confers

1. Decoy
2. Contact
3. Convoy
4. Subject
2. Contact
A person used by the subject to detect a surveillance

1. Contact
2. Convoy
3. Blown
4. Subject
2. Convey
A person who attempts to divert the surveillant's attention from the subject

1. Decoy
2. Contact
3. Convoy
4.Surveillant
1. Decoy
How many general types of surveillance are used by the Master-at-Arms

1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
2. Two
What term is commonly used to describe mobile surveillance

1. Dogging
2. Chasing
3. Escorting
4. Shadowing
4. Shadowing
What type of surveillance is used when it is not necessary to keep the subject under constant observation

1. Loose
2. Closed
3. Unrestrained
4. Detached
1. Loose
What term describes constant observation of a subject

1. Loose
2. Close
3. Secretive
4. Maintained
2. Close
When is the best time to obtain background knowledge of a person in relation to the interview

1. Before the interview
2. After the interview
3. Throughout the interview
4. During the initial part of the interview
1. Before the interview
If a suspect you are interviewing doubts your identity or authority, what should you do

1. Show your credentials
2. Reassure the suspect verbally
3. Ignore the doubt and proceed with the interview
4. Withdraw in favor of another investigator
1. Show your credentials
During an opening statement, should a person who is about to be interrogated be warned of his or her rights? If so, when

1. Yes, when there is some doubt about the person's involvement in the crime
2. Yes, when the crime involves narcotics
3. Yes, when only one investigator is present
4. No
1. Yes, when there is some doubt about the person's involvement in the crime
As an investigator, what attribute determines the success or failure of an interview

1. Poise
2. Attitude
3. Appearance
4. Intellect
2. Attitude
A criminal is surprised and apprehended in the act of committing a crime. When is it best to interrogate that individual

1. On the spot
2. When you get the individual in the patrol car
3. When your supervisor is present
4. When you get the individual in the interrogation room
1. On the spot
When you are interrogating a suspect whose guilt is uncertain or doubtful, you should use what type of approach

1. Logic
2. Direct
3. Indirect
4. Empathic
3. Indirect
The most commonly used interrogation techniques are logic and reasoning and psychological

1. True
2. False
1. True
Interviewer confronts suspect with testimony and evidence

1. Cold shoulder
2. Logic and reasoning
3. The hypothetical story
4. Playing one suspect against another
2. Logic and reasoning
Interviewer relates a story of a fictitious crime that varies only in minute details from the crime

1. Cold shoulder
2. Logic and reasoning
3. The hypothetical story
4. Playing one suspect against another
3. The hypothetical story
Interviewer takes the suspect for a walk past the crime scene without saying anything

1. Cold shoulder
2. Logic and reasoning
3. The hypothetical story
4. Playing one suspect against another
1. Cold shoulder
Interviewer confornts one suspect with known facts that have been allegedly given by another suspect

1. Cold shoulder
Logic and reasoning
3. The hypothetical story
4. Playing one suspect against another
4. Playing one suspect against another
Interviewer points out the futility of denying guilt to the suspect

1. Cold shoulder
2. Logic and reasoning
3. The hypothetical story
4. Playing one suspect against another
2. Logic and reasoning
Whenever doubt exists as to the elements of proof in a case, the MCM should be reviewed

1. True
2. False
1. True
What title of the U.S. Code addresses juvenile deliquents

1. Title 15 section 5028
2. Title 16 section 5029
3. Title 17 section 5030
4. Title 18 section 5031
4. Title 18 section 5031
Which of the following jurisdictions could police authority exercise on a military reservation

1. Military
2. Federal
3. State
4. A combination of all
4. A combination of all
When you are dealing with concurrent jurisdiction, the agency that will become involved is often more a matter of policy than of law

1. True
2. False
1. True
Does the UCMJ apply to juveniles? If so, to whom

1. Yes, dependents
2. Yes, nondependents
3. No
3. No
In which of the following instances would a state crime become an assimilated federal crime

1. When the crime is committed on a federal reservation
2. When the crime is not in violation of federal laws or policy
3. When the federal government exercises exclusive or concurrent jurisdiction
4. Each of the above
4. Each of the above
When juveniles commit minor Federal offenses, the cases may be heard by what authority

1. District court
2. Magistrate
3. State court
4. Local court
4. Local court
What will determine the extent to which the Master-at-Arms will become involved in disposing of juvenile

1. Local policies
2. Regulations
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. Federal courts
3. Both 1 and 2 above
Who will probably be the first to enter a junevile case and conduct the investigation

1. FBI
2. NCIS
3. Local police
4. Master-at-Arms
4. Master-at-Arms
Any questions concerning jvenile suspects at overseas installations require close personnel and what other authority

1. NCIS
2. Local police
3. Secretary of the Navy
4. Judge advocate's office
4. Judge advocate's office
The juvenile Justice and Delinquency Prevention Act was passed in what year

1. 1974
2. 1975
3. 1976
4. 1977
1. 1974
In which, if any of the following facilities may you detain a juvenile suspect

1. Confinement facility
2. Detention cell
3. Hospital prisoner ward
4. None of the above
4. None of the above
You are takinf a juvenile into custody and you intend to prosecute him/her as an adult. From whom should you get written consent prior to taking fingerprints and photography

1. The individual's parents
2. The judge of juvenile court
3. The NCIS
4. The local police
2. The judge of juvenile court
When a junevile is found innocent, what should happen to the individual's record concerning the offense

1. Held for 1 year
2. Held for 2 years
3. Given to the individual's parents
4. Destroyed
4. Destroyed