Chapter 10/11

Front 1

A mutant that has a nutritional requirement for growth is an example of a(n)A) autotroph.B) auxotroph.C) heterotroph.D) organotroph.

Back 1

B) auxotroph.

Front 2

2) Consider a mutation in which the change is from UAC to UAU. Both codons specify the amino acid tyrosine. Which type of point mutation is this?A) silent mutationB) nonsense mutationC) missense mutationD) frameshift mutation

Back 2

A) silent mutation

Front 3

3) A mutation that readily reverses to restore the original parental type would most likely be dueto a(n)A) deletion.B) insertion.C) point mutation.D) frameshift mutation.

Back 3

point mutation.

Front 4

Which process listed below does NOT require homologous recombination to maintain the newgenetic material in the recipient cell?A) conjugation of an F+ plasmidB) gene transfer through a genetic transfer agentC) transduction by a dsDNA phage MuD) transformation of a linear piece of DNA

Back 4

gene transfer through a genetic transfer agent

Front 5

The mutagens 2-aminopurine and 5-bromouracil are examples ofA) alkylating agents.B) nucleotide base analogs.C) chemicals reacting with DNA.D) None of the answers are correct.

Back 5

B) nucleotide base analogs.

Front 6

The killing of cells by UV irradiation involvesA) absorption at 260 nm by proteins only.B) absorption at 260 nm by RNA only.C) formation of pyrimidine dimers.D) formation of purine dimers.

Back 6

formation of pyrimidine dimers.

Front 7

Ionizing radiation does NOT includeA) gamma rays.B) UV rays.C) X-rays.D) cosmic rays.

Back 7

UV rays.

Front 8

Which of the following methods may introduce foreign DNA into a recipient?A) transformationB) transductionC) conjugationD) transformation, transduction, and conjugation

Back 8

transformation, transduction, and conjugation

Front 9

9) The uptake of DNA released from a cell is ________, while transfer of DNA with cell-to-cell contact would most likely result in ________.A) transformation / conjugationB) transduction / conjugationC) conjugation / transformationD) transformation / transduction

Back 9

A) transformation / conjugation

Front 10

Which of the following proteins is NOT required for homologous recombination?A) HfrB) RecAC) proteins having helicase activityD) endonuclease

Back 10

Hfr

Front 11

Consider the following experiment. First, large populations of two mutant strains ofEscherichia coli are mixed, each requiring a different, single amino acid. After plating them onto a minimal medium, 45 colonies grew. Which of the following may explain this result?A) The colonies may be due to back mutation (reversion).B) The colonies may be due to recombination.C) Either A or B is possible.D) Neither A nor B is possible.

Back 11

Either A or B is possible.

Front 12

You have performed the following mating experiment using Hfr and F- strains ofEscherichia coli:Hfr (thr+ leu+ gal+ strs) × F- (thr- leu- gal- strr). Which of the following selective media would you use to score recombinant colonies?A) minimal mediumB) minimal medium + streptomycinC) minimal medium + threonineD) minimal medium + streptomycin + threonine

Back 12

minimal medium + streptomycin

Front 13

Horizontal gene transfer in ArchaeaA) is infrequent in nature and therefore difficult to use for genetic studies in the laboratory.B) has not been documented, thus all genetic studies of archaea are done via genomic sequencing.C) frequently occurs in nature and has been used to perform genetic studies in the laboratory as well.D) frequently occurs in nature, but there are very few laboratory studies because archaea do not cause human disease.

Back 13

frequently occurs in nature and has been used to perform genetic studies in the laboratory aswell.

Front 14

The positions of genes on a genetic map are marked according toA) degrees.B) nanometers.C) radians.D) minutes.

Back 14

D) minutes.

Front 15

The minimal amount of genetic information required for specialized transduction wouldincludeA) the att region.B) the cos site.C) a helper phage.D) the att region, cos site, and a helper phage.

Back 15

the att region, cos site, and a helper phage.

Front 16

Lysogeny probably carries a strong selective advantage for the host cell because itA) prevents cell lysis.B) confers resistance to infection by viruses of the same type.C) confers resistance to infection by viruses of a different type (or strain).D) confers resistance to infection by many virus types and prevent cell lysis.

Back 16

confers resistance to infection by viruses of the same type.

Front 17

A plasmid mayA) replicate independently of the chromosome.B) be transferred cell-to-cell during conjugation.C) be integrated into the chromosome.D) replicate independently of the chromosome, integrate into the chromosome, or be transferred cell-to-cell during conjugation.

Back 17

replicate independently of the chromosome, integrate into the chromosome, or be transferredcell-to-cell during conjugation.

Front 18

Plasmids that govern their own transfer are known asA) transformable.B) transmutable.C) conjugative.D) transfective.

Back 18

C) conjugative.

Front 19

Which of the following would NOT be a trait of a resistance plasmid?A) It may carry antibiotic resistance genes.B) It may carry heavy metal resistance genes.C) It increases the host's growth rate.D) It may undergo genetic recombination.

Back 19

It increases the host's growth rate.

Front 20

Homologous recombination has been observed inA) Archaea.B) Bacteria.C) Eukarya.D) Archaea, Bacteria, and Eukarya.

Back 20

Archaea, Bacteria, and Eukarya.

Front 21

Hfr strains of Escherichia coliA) do not possess an F factor.B) have the F factor as a plasmid.C) have an integrated F factor.D) transfer the complete F factor to recipient cells at a high frequency.

Back 21

have an integrated F factor.

Front 22

F+ strains of Escherichia coliA) do not have an F factor.B) have the F factor as a plasmid.C) have an integrated F factor.D) transfer the F factor to recipient cells at a high frequency.

Back 22

have the F factor as a plasmid.

Front 23

F- strains of Escherichia coliA) do not have an F factor.B) have the F factor as a plasmid.C) have an integrated F factor.D) transfer the F factor to other strains at a high frequency.

Back 23

A) do not have an F factor.

Front 24

All Hfr strains integrate into the chromosome atA) the same locus.B) several specific sites.C) the same locus most of the time, although there may be some variation.D) loci that cannot be accurately determined.

Back 24

B) several specific sites.

Front 25

Transposition is a(n)A) homologous recombination event.B) analogous recombination event.C) site-specific recombination event.D) general recombination event.

Back 25

site-specific recombination event.

Front 26

The enzyme transposase may be coded for by insertion sequences on aA) chromosome.B) phage.C) plasmid.D) chromosome, phage, or plasmid.

Back 26

D) chromosome, phage, or plasmid.

Front 27

A strain of an organism with an increased mutation rate is known as a(n)A) adaptive mutagen strain.B) hypermutable or mutator strain.C) encoded dnaQ system.D) phenotypic variation.

Back 27

hypermutable or mutator strain.

Front 28

A "point mutation" refers to mutations involvingA) a base-pair substitution.B) the gain of a base pair (microinsertion).C) the deletion of a base pair (microdeletion).D) a substitution, deletion, or addition of one base-pair.

Back 28

a substitution, deletion, or addition of one base-pair.

Front 29

A deleterious mutation in recA results inA) a decrease in specific recombination.B) a decrease in homologous recombination.C) an increase in homologous recombination.D) no change in either general or specific recombination.

Back 29

B) a decrease in homologous recombination.

Front 30

The production of a functional gene product by transforming bacteria that lack a lacZ genewith a plasmid containing a lacZ gene is known asA) complementation.B) mitosis.C) transfection.D) reversion.

Back 30

A) complementation.

Front 31

31) Consider conjugation in Escherichia coli. In which of the following matings wouldchromosomal genes be transferred most frequently?A) F+ × F-B) F- × F-C) Hfr × F-D) Hfr × F+

Back 31

C) Hfr × F-

Front 32

Which of the following features are common to transformation, transduction, andconjugation?(1) unidirectional transfer of genes(2) incomplete gene transfer(3) homologous recombination(4) meiosis occurring in the recipientA) 1, 2, 3B) 1, 2C) 3, 4D) 1, 2, 4

Back 32

A) 1, 2, 3

Front 33

Which of the following is most similar to lysogeny?A) Hfr stateB) F+ stateC) F- stateD) F' state

Back 33

Hfr state

Front 34

In the bacterial world, a gene located on which of the following would be the LEAST likelyto be transferred?A) R factorB) F+C) the phage MuD) the chromosome

Back 34

the chromosome

Front 35

Genetic recombination involving insertion sequences typically results in what type ofmutation?A) base-pair substitution mutationB) silent mutationC) frameshift mutationD) base-pair deletion mutation

Back 35

C) frameshift mutation

Front 36

The SOS regulatory system is activated byA) the activity of DNA polymerase IV.B) DNA damage.C) transcription of LexA.D) repression of RecA.

Back 36

DNA damage.

Front 37

Which of the following factors has delayed the development of laboratory-based geneticsystems in Archaea?A) There are no documented systems of conjugation in Archaea.B) Homologous recombination does NOT occur in Archaea.C) Archaea do NOT host viruses or plasmids.D) Many archaea grow in extreme or unusual conditions that make the use of agar and traditional mutant screening techniques problematic.

Back 37

Many archaea grow in extreme or unusual conditions that make the use of agar and traditionalmutant screening techniques problematic.

Front 38

38) Transformation and homologous recombination allow for the formation of heteroduplex DNA. Which of the following would occur during DNA replication of this molecule?A) One daughter strand is complementary to the recombinant DNA molecule, while the other daughter strand is complementary to the parent DNA molecule.B) Both daughter strands are complementary to the recombinant DNA molecule.C) Both daughter strands are complementary to the parent DNA molecule.D) None of the answers are correct.

Back 38

One daughter strand is complementary to the recombinant DNA molecule, while the otherdaughter strand is complementary to the parent DNA molecule.

Front 39

You work for a biotechnology company that uses Streptomyces strains to producepharmaceutical products. A phage has infected and killed some of your Streptomyces strains during production, resulting in dramatically decreased yields. To protect the strains from infection you propose to A) introduce gene transfer agents into the Streptomyces cultures to transfer antibiotic resistance genes into your Streptomyces strains.B) design and insert CRISPR spacer sequences into the genomes of your strains that are complementary to the genomes of the phages that are infecting the cultures.C) infect the Streptomyces strains with a helper phage that will help the strains resist infection.D) transform the Streptomyces strains with plasmids encoding antibody proteins that will protect them from phage infection.

Back 39

design and insert CRISPR spacer sequences into the genomes of your strains that arecomplementary to the genomes of the phages that are infecting the cultures.

Front 40

Hfr means high frequency of ________, and these cells are capable of transferring genesfrom their ________ to other cells.A) transformation / chromosomeB) transduction / plasmidsC) recombination / chromosomeD) transduction / chromosome

Back 40

recombination / chromosome

Front 41

Mutation rates are similar in Bacteria and Archaea, yet certain stressful conditions mutationrates increase. Why is the mutation rate not constant and close to zero all of the time?A) Increased mutation rates can be advantageous in rapidly changing environments because some random mutations may be useful for survival.B) Microorganisms carefully control the mutation rate of their DNA to match the environmental conditions and maximize evolution.C) The increased mutation rate under stressful conditions is an indication that the microorganisms can no longer replicate their DNA properly and are about to die.D) Constant mutation rates would halt evolution completely.

Back 41

Increased mutation rates can be advantageous in rapidly changing environments becausesome random mutations may be useful for survival.

Front 42

Chemical mutagens, UV radiation, and ionizing radiation all increase mutation rates, but theyhave different mechanisms. Which type of mutagen would be best suited for creating large deletions and rearrangements within a genome?A) chemical mutagensB) UV radiationC) ionizing radiationD) Chemical, UV, and ionizing radiation would create large deletions and rearrangements if used in a very high dose.

Back 42

C) ionizing radiation

Front 43

The SOS system repairs DNA that has gaps, breaks, and other lesions byA) cutting DNA from other parts of the genome and pasting it into the gaps or damaged areas.B) stabilizing single-stranded DNA until the next round of normal replication.C) using specialized DNA polymerases that will synthesize a new DNA strand even if there is not a normal complementary DNA strand to act as a template.D) using available mRNA and a special RNA-dependent DNA polymerase to fill in the gaps and replace damaged DNA.

Back 43

using specialized DNA polymerases that will synthesize a new DNA strand even if there isnot a normal complementary DNA strand to act as a template.

Front 44

Microinsertions and microdeletions often result in ________ mutations.A) auxotrophicB) advantageousC) silentD) frameshift

Back 44

frameshift

Front 45

When damaged or single-stranded DNA activates the RecA protein, the RecA proteinstimulates the cleavage of LexA. This results inA) repression of polymerase V and activation of endonuclease.B) activation of the Hfr system. C) derepression of the SOS system.D) increased transduction and recombination.

Back 45

derepression of the SOS system.

Front 46

The F (fertility) plasmid contains a set of genes that encode for the ________ proteins thatare essential in conjugative transfer of DNA.A) piliB) SOS repairC) transductionD) transformation

Back 46

A) pili

Front 47

The designations Phe-, Leu-, and Ser+ refer to an organism'sA) plasmid type.B) genotype.C) phenotype.D) mutation type.

Back 47

phenotype.

Front 48

If a bacterium carrying a plasmid that confers resistance to ampicillin is placed into mediumwithout ampicillin, it mayA) gain resistance to other antibiotics.B) transfer resistance to other cultures in the laboratory. C) undergo a reversion mutation.D) lose the plasmid because there is no selection for ampicillin resistance.

Back 48

lose the plasmid because there is no selection for ampicillin resistance.

Front 49

When DNA is transferred into a prokaryotic cell it mayA) be degraded by enzymes.B) replicate independent of the host chromosome. C) recombine with the host chromosome.D) be degraded by enzymes, replicate independent of the host chromosome, or recombine with the host chromosome. Answer: D

Back 49

D) be degraded by enzymes, replicate independent of the host chromosome, or recombine withthe host chromosome.

Front 50

The process in which related DNA sequences from two different sources are exchanged iscalledA) transduction.B) phage conversion. C) reversion.D) homologous recombination.

Back 50

D) homologous recombination.

Front 51

51) Integration of linear transforming DNA into the chromosomeA) is not required for the expression for the transformed genes.B) is catalyzed by the RecA gene. C) almost never occurs because restriction endonuclease will degrade the DNA before it is integrated.D) only occurs in laboratory-based systems in artificial competent cells.

Back 51

is catalyzed by the RecA gene.

Front 52

High-efficiency natural transformationA) is common in Bacteria and Archaea.B) requires specialized DNA uptake, DNA binding, and integration proteins. C) is only common in Archaea.D) usually involves plasmids.

Back 52

B) requires specialized DNA uptake, DNA binding, and integration proteins.

Front 53

53) The CRISPR systemA) facilitates homologous recombination through a complex system of proteins and clustered repeats.B) recognizes foreign DNA sequences that have previously entered the cell and directs the Cas proteins to destroy them. C) repairs DNA and increases DNA damage tolerance during times of stress.D) synthesizes gene transfer agents during stationary phase.

Back 53

recognizes foreign DNA sequences that have previously entered the cell and directs the Casproteins to destroy them.

Front 54

UV radiation is a useful tool in producing mutants of microbial cultures.

Back 54

TRUE

Front 55

When UV radiation damage occurs, DNA repair occurs only in the absence of templateinstruction.

Back 55

Answer: FALSE

Front 56

3) Following uptake, transforming DNA becomes attached to a competence-specific protein thatprevents it from nuclease attack until it reaches the chromosome.

Back 56

TRUE

Front 57

The evolutionary significance of phage conversion likely stems from an effective alteration ofhost cells.

Back 57

TRUE

Front 58

Bacterial mating (or conjugation) is a bidirectional process where nucleic acids (DNA orRNA) are transferred between two cells.

Back 58

FALSE

Front 59

Laboratory-based genetic systems have been difficult to develop for Archaea, because they doNOT naturally undergo conjugation or transduction.

Back 59

FALSE

Front 60

Almost all plasmids are double-stranded DNA.

Back 60

Answer: TRUE

Front 61

Most plasmids are circular rather than linear.

Back 61

TRUE

Front 62

When the F factor is integrated, all Hfr strains have the origin of replication functioning in thesame direction.

Back 62

Answer: FALSE

Front 63

In a prokaryotic genome, either insertion elements OR transposons are present, but both arenever present at the same time.

Back 63

FALSE

Front 64

The use of transposons to generate mutations is a convenient way to create bacterialmutations in the laboratory.

Back 64

TRUE

Front 65

Transposons can be found on many genetic elements, including plasmids, chromosomes, andviral genomes.

Back 65

TRUE

Front 66

In transformation experiments using a variety of Bacteria, it has been noted that essentiallyall of the cells in a population can become competent.

Back 66

FALSE

Front 67

In specialized transduction, virtually any genetic marker can be transferred from donor torecipient.

Back 67

FALSE

Front 68

In specialized transduction, as exemplified by lambda phage in E. coli, transduction occurs athigh efficiency for only a restricted group of genes near the insertion site of lambda.

Back 68

TRUE

Front 69

Many Bacteria isolated from nature are natural lysogens.

Back 69

TRUE

Front 70

17) Lysogeny is essential for the virulence of many pathogenic bacterial strains.

Back 70

TRUE

Front 71

Proteins and nucleic acids absorb light maximally at 260 nm; hence, proteins protect cellsfrom UV effects.

Back 71

Answer: FALSE

Front 72

19) Insertion sequences are found on both ends of transposons and encode for transposase.

Back 72

TRUE

Front 73

Toxigenicity in Corynebacterium diphtheriae is due to phage conversion.

Back 73

TRUE

Front 74

All Hfr strains possess an F factor integrated into the host chromosome.

Back 74

TRUE

Front 75

Penicillin selection is a positive selection for the isolation of mutants with growth factorrequirements.

Back 75

FALSE

Front 76

Intercalating agents, like acridine orange and ethidium bromide, lead to mutagenesis bypushing DNA base pairs apart, which can lead to insertions or deletions.

Back 76

TRUE

Front 77

24) A typical mutation rate for a bacterium is in the range of 10-6 to 10-9 per kbp.

Back 77

Answer: TRUE

Front 78

Archaea have a unique form of conjugation involving cytoplasmic bridges for bidirectionaltransfer of DNA.

Back 78

TRUE

Front 79

If a foreign gene is cloned into an expression host, it is important that the host itselfA) not produce the protein being studied.B) produce the protein in larger amounts than the vector.C) repress the genetic expression being studied.D) produce signal proteins to tag the host protein.

Back 79

not produce the protein being studied.

Front 80

Detecting a specific protein with an antibody is considered a(n) ________ method.A) selectionB) screeningC) isolationD) duplication

Back 80

screening

Front 81

To discover a catabolic gene cluster, cloning large sequences of approximately 40 kbprequires the utility ofA) bacterial artificial chromosomes (BACs).B) cosmids or fosmids.C) a eukaryotic host to house the large foreign DNA.D) multiple gene fusions.

Back 81

cosmids or fosmids.

Front 82

Expression vectors are designed to ensure that ________ can be efficiently ________.A) mRNA / transcribedB) DNA / transcribedC) mRNA / translatedD) DNA / translated

Back 82

A) mRNA / transcribed

Front 83

A(n) ________ gene is a gene that encodes a protein that is easy to detect and assay.A) encoderB) translationalC) reporterD) recorder

Back 83

C) reporter

Front 84

One of the more formidable obstacles to mammalian gene cloning is the presence ofA) introns.B) exons.C) repressors.D) integrators.

Back 84

introns.

Front 85

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a type II restriction endonuclease?A) cleavage product can be either blunt or sticky ended but is always the same for an individual enzymeB) recognizes a specific palindromic site for cleavageC) recognition site length varies among enzymes but is always the same for an individual enzymeD) unable to cleave methylated DNA

Back 85

D) unable to cleave methylated DNA

Front 86

What type of vector can replicate and be maintained stably in two (or more) unrelated hostorganisms?A) virusB) expressionC) shuttleD) integrating

Back 86

shuttle

Front 87

The genes encoding luciferase, green fluorescent protein (GFP), and β-galactosidase aretypically used in cloning asA) transcription regulators.B) global control genes.C) promoter sequences.D) reporter genes.

Back 87

reporter genes.

Front 88

To verify a gene was cloned into a vector successfully, sequencing the vector as well as________ are commonly performed.A) agarose gel electrophoresisB) fluorescence in situ hybridizationC) protein purificationD) northern blots

Back 88

agarose gel electrophoresis

Front 89

Which objective would be best to use a Southern blot rather than a Northern blot?A) Determine if a gene is present in a genome.B) Discover gene function.C) Identify regulatory gene-protein interactions.D) Quantify expression profiles of a gene.

Back 89

Determine if a gene is present in a genome.

Front 90

A polymerase chain reaction (PCR) copies an individual gene segment in vitro with a(n)________ primer(s).A) individual RNAB) individual DNAC) pair of RNAD) pair of DNA

Back 90

pair of DNA

Front 91

Which of the following sequences would be cleaved by a type II restriction endonuclease?A) TTGCCGAAACGGCTB) GGGGGGGCCCCCCCCC) GTAATGCATTACD) GAATTCCTTAAG

Back 91

GAATTCCTTAAG

Front 92

14) At which time period(s) during PCR thermocycling is/are hottest in temperature?A) during DNA denaturationB) during primer annealingC) during primer extension/elongationD) Both the first and last cycles are hotter in temperature than all other cycles.

Back 92

A) during DNA denaturation

Front 93

To estimate the total concentration of a beneficial bacterial species in yogurt, ________would provide the quickest results.A) fluorescence in situ hybridizationB) qPCR C) RT-PCRD) a Southern blot

Back 93

qPCR

Front 94

Which of the following is NOT a common step in creating a genomic library?A) Fragment DNA into small segments.B) Hybridize DNA sequences to form inserts of a target size range.C) Ligate DNA into vectors.D) Transform the vectors into a host.

Back 94

Hybridize DNA sequences to form inserts of a target size range.

Front 95

What molecular mechanism/feature does site-directed mutagenesis exploit to introduce amutation at a specific site?A) flanking complementary bound nucleotides permit non-complementary base pairing B) methylated nucleotides disrupt DNA polymerase's proofreading C) nucleotide substitution when one is depleted D) transposase-induced base pair changes

Back 95

flanking complementary bound nucleotides permit non-complementary base pairing

Front 96

Inserting a kanamycin resistance cassette into a catabolic operon to confirm the gene isessential in degradation of a particular compound would involve all of the following EXCEPTA) a reporter gene.B) ligation.C) recombination.D) transformation.

Back 96

a reporter gene.

Front 97

Which statement is TRUE?A) YACs are more likely than BACs to undergo recombination and rearrangement.B) BACs are more likely than YACs to undergo recombination and rearrangement.C) YACs and BACs undergo recombination and rearrangement at about the same rate.D) It is impossible to state with any certainty whether YACs or BACs are more likely to undergo recombination and rearrangement, because environmental factors play a major role in the probability of one or the other occurring.

Back 97

YACs are more likely than BACs to undergo recombination and rearrangement.

Front 98

Which of those listed below is LEAST similar in what is measured and concluded?A) fluorescence in situ hybridizationB) GFP fusion proteinC) Northern blotD) RT-PCR

Back 98

fluorescence in situ hybridization

Front 99

The principle behind a nucleic acid probe design is that the probe itself must containA) a key complementary part of the target gene sequence of interest.B) all of the nucleotide sequence of the gene of interest to conclusively identify the gene.C) an antibody to specifically bind to the gene of interest.D) at least three separate complementary regions of the gene of interest.

Back 99

a key complementary part of the target gene sequence of interest.

Front 100

22) Which of those below is NOT an important consideration when designing a fusion proteinconstruct?A) Avoid hybridization of the fusion gene in the artificial construct.B) Reading frame is the same for both the fusion gene and reporter gene.C) Transcriptional start and stop signals are shared.D) Translational start and stop signals are shared.

Back 100

A) Avoid hybridization of the fusion gene in the artificial construct.

Front 101

A shuttle vector is most useful forA) engineering a complete metabolic pathway.B) identifying the localization of a protein.C) knocking out a gene by cassette displacement.D) making a foreign protein in a mammalian cell.

Back 101

making a foreign protein in a mammalian cell.

Front 102

After digesting a DNA sequence, a restriction endonuclease can generateA) blunt ends.B) overhangs.C) sticky ends.D) blunt ends, overhangs, or sticky ends.

Back 102

D) blunt ends, overhangs, or sticky ends.

Front 103

What makes eukaryotic transcripts easier to isolate than transcripts in bacteria?A) Eukaryotic transcripts are not methylated but their genes are often methylated.B) Larger transcript size in eukaryotes enables easy size-selection methods.C) mRNA is polyadenylated in eukaryotes.D) Transcripts are the most abundant RNAs in eukaryotes.

Back 103

mRNA is polyadenylated in eukaryotes.

Front 104

The enzyme that covalently links both strands of a vector and inserted DNA in molecularcloning isA) DNA ligase.B) DNA phosphatase.C) DNA hydrolase.D) DNA transferase.

Back 104

A) DNA ligase.

Front 105

Type II restriction endonucleasesA) are heterodimers.B) natively function to methylate specific nucleotides and prevent foreign DNA from being incorporated into the genome.C) recognize nucleotide sequences that are palindromic.D) require ATP energy to cleave dsDNA.

Back 105

recognize nucleotide sequences that are palindromic.

Front 106

The Ti plasmid is best suited for genetically manipulatingA) Agrobacterium spp.B) fish.C) plants.D) viruses.

Back 106

plants.

Front 107

29) Which of the following terms is used to describe a synthetic DNA fragment?A) DNA cassetteB) DNA hybridC) recombinant DNAD) artificial chromosome

Back 107

DNA cassette

Front 108

Which construct would be MOST useful in studying translational control?A) gene fusionB) operon fusionC) protein fusionD) shuttle vector

Back 108

C) protein fusion

Front 109

If a protein to be overexpressed is toxic to the expression host, it is best to select anexpression vector thatA) is compatible with a binary vector able to be regulated.B) is inducible.C) has a relatively low copy number per cell.D) prevents folding of the overexpressed protein into its toxic form.

Back 109

is inducible.

Front 110

Some proteins overexpressed at high levels resulting in the formation of inclusion bodies canabolish the goal of producing large quantities of active protein. What could be done to minimize this issue?A) Codon optimize the gene.B) Decrease the number of biobricks in the vector.C) Simultaneously produce intracellular chaperonins.D) Switch to an expression host with a larger intracellular volume.

Back 110

C) Simultaneously produce intracellular chaperonins.

Front 111

The principle underlying how salmon were genetically engineered to grow faster is theA) removal of a gene responsible for feeling full after eating.B) replacement of inducible to constitutive hormone production.C) resistance to bacterial infections which waste metabolic energy in the salmon to fight off.D) addition of genes to enhance blood circulation and tissue development.

Back 111

replacement of inducible to constitutive hormone production.

Front 112

Polyvalent vaccines using vaccinia virus are highly favored by doctors and physicians but areespecially challenging for those who develop them, because A) coat proteins form a relatively rigid structure and do not allow much space for additional proteins to be expressed.B) multiple foreign proteins simultaneously synthesized often disrupts each other's activity.C) vaccinia and most other viruses engineered for vaccines contain only one restriction site for cloning in their genome.D) virus genetic manipulation uses transfection, which is an inherently inefficient process.

Back 112

B) multiple foreign proteins simultaneously synthesized often disrupts each other's activity.

Front 113

35) Recognizing pathogens that contain multiple unique proteins which enable the humanimmune system to recognize just one and mount an effective response has opened the door on development of some vaccines only beingA) attenuated carrier viruses.B) monovalent.C) subunit vaccines.D) purified protein administered.

Back 113

subunit vaccines.

Front 114

A poorly immunogenic vaccine often suggests the foreign proteins were not properlyrecognized by the immune system due to a lack of ________ necessary, which can also be engineered to occur with additional molecular manipulations.A) complex foldingB) methylationC) glucosylationD) glycosylation

Back 114

glycosylation

Front 115

Which of the following is NOT an example of synthetic biology?A) assembling gene sequences together into genome and creating a living organism from itB) creating a new metabolic pathway that produces a previously unidentified compoundC) developing a novel polyvalent vaccineD) making Escherichia coli phototrophic

Back 115

developing a novel polyvalent vaccine

Front 116

Cloning vectors can be distinguished from expression vectors byA) carrying ori genes for replication of the cloned sequence.B) having a multiple cloning site (MCS).C) having a high copy number per cell.D) lacking a promoter site upstream of the insertion site.

Back 116

Cloning vectors can be distinguished from expression vectors byA) carrying ori genes for replication of the cloned sequence.B) having a multiple cloning site (MCS).C) having a high copy number per cell.D) lacking a promoter site upstream of the insertion site.

Front 117

Using a host defective in proteases is likely to be necessary when engineeringA) a complete metabolic pathway requiring several different enzymes.B) overproducing proteins.C) production of a small protein.D) transgenic animals with immune systems.

Back 117

production of a small protein.

Front 118

While other types exist, Type II restriction endonucleases are by far the most commonly usedenzymes for genetic engineering.

Back 118

TRUE

Front 119

High expression levels of a eukaryotic gene in a bacterium such as Escherichia coli cannot beaccomplished due to the presence of introns.

Back 119

FALSE

Front 120

The key steps in cloning a foreign gene into a vector, regardless of the application, involveisolating the insert fragment, ligating the insert into a vector, and transforming it into a host.

Back 120

TRUE

Front 121

Strong promoters used for genetic manipulation are usually regulated by specific molecules.

Back 121

TRUE

Front 122

DNA polymerases from Escherichia coli cannot be used to artificially copy gene sequenceswith a thermocycler.

Back 122

TRUE

Front 123

Although various codons often code for the same amino acid, it is important to choose thecodon preferred by the expression host itself.

Back 123

TRUE

Front 124

The lacZ gene is commonly used as a reporter gene, because its substrate lactose is wellknown and easily measured.

Back 124

FALSE

Front 125

One problem with both BACs and YACs is that genetic regions of these chromosomes cannotbe subcloned.

Back 125

Answer: FALSE

Front 126

In principle, a type II restriction endonuclease with an 8-nucleotide recognition sequenceshould cut 1 in every 48 nucleotide positions.

Back 126

TRUE

Front 127

One fundamental technique of genetic engineering includes the ability to cut DNA intorandom fragments.

Back 127

TRUE

Front 128

11) Modification enzymes typically methylate specific bases within the recognition sequence toprevent digestion of the nucleotide sequence by restriction endonucleases.

Back 128

Answer: TRUE

Front 129

Engineering a metabolic pathway enables a researcher to use different genes from unrelatedorganisms.

Back 129

FALSE

Front 130

Developing vaccines for humans relies heavily on manipulating and engineering vectors.

Back 130

TRUE

Front 131

14) One important advantage of eukaryotic cells as hosts for cloning vectors is that they alreadypossess the complex RNA and posttranslational processing systems required for the production of eukaryotic proteins.

Back 131

Answer: TRUE

Front 132

15) Due to well developed molecular tools and careful screening designs, functional genes canbe isolated directly by isolation from the environment rather than cultivating the diverse species in a microbial community.

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TRUE

Front 133

Regardless of the DNA polymerase used in PCR, such as Taq or Pfu, they all have aninherent inability to perfectly copy the template strand, which means the polymerases themselves occasionally make mutations in the sequences they copy.

Back 133

Answer: TRUE

Front 134

DNA ligase mediates the insertion of foreign DNA into a vector, but it will only be able todo so if the inserts and vector have matching sticky or blunt ends.

Back 134

TRUE

Front 135

Genomic libraries enable the discovery of individual gene(s) involved in a particular functionof interest with cloning vectors in an expression host, such as Escherichia coli.

Back 135

Answer: FALSE

Front 136

Artificially synthesizing DNA strands (e.g., oligonucleotide primers) involves the carefulattachment of one nucleotide at a time to an immobilized sequence.

Back 136

TRUE

Front 137

Green fluorescent protein (GFP) is used for detecting translational activity of a fused protein,whereas lacZ reporters are used to detect transcriptional activity of a fused gene.

Back 137

FALSE

Front 138

One method to circumvent issues with introns when expression eukaryotic gene is abacterium is to simply clone the mature transcript.

Back 138

TRUE

Front 139

If vaccinia viruses were not both immunogenic and relatively benign, they would likely notbe a favored vehicle for vaccinations.

Back 139

If vaccinia viruses were not both immunogenic and relatively benign, they would likely notbe a favored vehicle for vaccinations.