Ch 369 Finals Peerwise Qs

Front 1

1. “Which of the following are false”?
A. In the Tree of Life, the three domains are Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukarya.
B.The Tree of Life is based on rRNA.
C. Viruses aren't included in the Tree of Life.
D. Prokaryotes include Archaea and Bacteria. They can be uni or multicellular organisms.
E. Prokaryotes don't have a nucleus. They have a nucleoid.

Back 1

D. Prokaryotes include Archaea and Bacteria. They can be uni or multicellular organisms.

Front 2

2. “Which of the following must result in a negative free energy change for a reaction?”
A. The enthalpy change is negative.
B.The entropy change is positive.
C. The enthalpy change is negative, and the entropy change is negative.
D. The enthalpy change is negative, and the entropy change is positive.

Back 2

D. The enthalpy change is negative, and the entropy change is positive.

Front 3

3. Which biopolymers support cellular structure?
A. Proteins
B. Nucleic Acids
C. Polysaccharides
D. A and C
E. All of the above

Back 3

E. All of the above

Front 4

1. Carbon dioxide in the blood forms carbonic acid. This reaction is...
A. Not Spontaneous
B. Spontaneous
C. Occurs with the aid of carbonic anhydrase
D. Both A and C
E. Both B and C

Back 4

E. Both B and C

Front 5

2. Which of the molecules phenylalanine, glucose, palmitate, and cholesterol would be soluble in water?
A. Phenylalanine and Palmitate
B. Phenylalanine and Glucose
C. Palmitate and Cholesterol
D. Palmitate and Glucose

Back 5

B. Phenylalanine and Glucose

Front 6

3. 100mL of 1.5M NaOH is added to 1L of 0.5M formic acid (pKa - 3.75) what is the pH of the resulting buffer?
A. 3.23
B. 3.75
C. 3.38
D. 4.12

Back 6

C. 3.38

Front 7

1. In a nucleotide, the nitrogen base is connected to the sugar at the ____ carbon, while the triphosphate is connected at the _____ carbon.
A. 3', 5'
B. 1', 5'
C. 5', 1'
D. 5', 3'
E. 1', 4'

Back 7

B. 1', 5'

Front 8

2. Which of the options account for the stability of DNA's double helical structure?
A. Hydrogen bond
B. Stacking interaction (a form of van der Waals interaction)
C. Ionic bond
D. A and B
E. All of the above

Back 8

D. A and B

Front 9

3. Select the correct statement regarding the denaturation and renaturation of DNA.
A. When thermal energy is greater than hydrogen-bond energy, DNA is in double helix form.
B. Relative absorbance (A260) is least when DNA is in single stranded form.
C. Melting of DNA depends on the length and A:T content of the strand.
D. No matter how fast you cool the DNA strand, it will always find the right complementary strand.
E. Strands with higher G:C content require higher temperatures to denature.

Back 9

E. Strands with higher G:C content require higher temperatures to denature.

Front 10

1. Which of the following amino acids is the most nonpolar?
A. V
B. F
C.W
D. I

Back 10

B. F

Front 11

2. A polypeptide would probably exhibit stronger tertiary structure with higher amounts of which following amino acids?
A. Alanine
B. Methionine
C. Cysteine
D. Asparagine

Back 11

C. Cysteine

Front 12

3. Mass Spectrometry and Edman degradation both ____(1)____ proteins. Mass Spectrometry utilizes __(2)___ characteristics of amino acids, while Edman degradation uses ___(3)____ characteristics of amino acids.
A. isolate; physical; chemical.
B. sequence; physical; chemical.
C. isolate; chemical; physical
D.sequence; chemical; physical.

Back 12

B. sequence; physical; chemical.

Front 13

1. What residue is located in the center of the Collagen triple helix?
A. Ala
B. Pro
C. Val
D. Gly
E. Leu

Back 13

D. Gly

Front 14

2: Which of the following is NOT true about myosin.
A. Myosin works with actin to produce movement by transducing chemical energy to mechanical energy.
B. 2 polypeptide chains form 2 heads and a long tail.
C. Movement is processive, meaning one head is always bound and the cargo remains attached and keeps moving along.
D. Myosin operates through a lever mechanism

Back 14

C. Movement is processive, meaning one head is always bound and the cargo remains attached and keeps moving along.

Front 15

3. Which hemoglobin conformation is preferable for oxygen binding and why?
A. Tense (T) deoxyhemoglobin, because there is a larger space in the center of the four subunits.
B. Relaxed (R) oxyhemoglobin, because the Fe ion is planar in the porphyrin ring.
C. Tense (T) deoxyhemoglobin, because the heme group displays more affinity for oxygen in this conformation.
D. Relaxed (R) oxyhemoglobin, because the Fe ion sticks out slightly from the heme ring.

Back 15

B. Relaxed (R) oxyhemoglobin, because the Fe ion is planar in the porphyrin ring.

Front 16

1. Correctly match the amino acids with the role they perform in the catalytic mechanism of chymotrypsin.
A. His: acts as covalent catalyst because it is nucleophilic
Ser: extracts H+ from His to make it more nucleophilic
Asp: stabilizes the resulting positively charged Ser
B. Asp: acts as covalent catalyst because it is nucleophilic
Ser: extracts H+ from Asp to make it more nucleophilic
His: stabilizes the resulting positively charged Ser
C.Ser: acts as covalent catalyst because it is nucleophilic
Asp: extracts H+ from Ser to make it more nucleophilic
His: stabilizes the resulting positively charged Asp
D.His: acts as covalent catalyst because it is nucleophilic
Asp: extracts H+ from His to make it more nucleophilic
Ser: stabilizes the resulting positively charged Asp
E.Ser: acts as covalent catalyst because it is nucleophilic
His: extracts H+ from Ser to make it more nucleophilic
Asp: stabilizes the resulting positively charged His

Back 16

E.Ser: acts as covalent catalyst because it is nucleophilic
His: extracts H+ from Ser to make it more nucleophilic
Asp: stabilizes the resulting positively charged His

Front 17

3. The specificity pocket of a protease enzyme contains a Phe residue at its base and is lined with Leu residues along the sides. Which of the following amino acids will be targeted by the enzyme for hydrolytic cleavage?
A. W
B. K
C. E
D. A
E. H

Back 17

D. A

Front 18

2. Given the following enzyme values, which of the following enzymes would have the highest catalytic efficiency?
A. High kcat and High KM
B. Low Kcat and Low KM
C. High Kcat and Low KM
D. Low kcat and High KM

Back 18

C. High Kcat and Low KM

Front 19

3. A Lineweaver-Burk plot is constructed for an uninhibited enzyme and for the same enzyme under the effects of some inhibitor. The inhibited enzyme exhibits a higher y-intercept value and the same x-intercept value as the uninhibited enzyme. Under the effects of what type of inhibitor is this enzyme?
A. Competitive
B. Uncompetitive
C. Pure Noncompetitive
D. Mixed

Back 19

C. Pure Noncompetitive

Front 20

1. Which lipid contains the distinct feature of an amide bond?
A. Glycerophospholipids
B. Triacylglycerols/triglycerides
C. Spingomyelins
D. Sterols

Back 20

C. Spingomyelins

Front 21

2. Which of the following are responsible for packing acyl chains together?
A. van der Waals
B. Hydrophobic Effect
C. Covalent Bonds
D. Hydrogen Bonds

Back 21

A. van der Waals

Front 22

3. Why is a transverse diffusion of membrane lipids very unfavorable?
A. Membrane proteins are extremely compact preventing any sort of movement
B. The hydrophobic heads of the lipids has to pass through the hydrophobic interior of the bilayer
C. A and B
D. Hydrophillic head of the lipids passes through the hydrophobic interior, this results in a slow rate of movement.

Back 22

D. Hydrophillic head of the lipids passes through the hydrophobic interior, this results in a slow rate of movement.

Front 23

1. Which of the following statements about Na+/K+-ATPase is FALSE?
A. 3 Na+ ions are transported from the cytosol to the extracellular space.
B. Phosphorylation occurs at an Asp residue on the extracellular face of the protein.
C. It consists of a large alpha-subunit with 10 transmembrane helices.
D. Once the bound phosphate group is hydrolyzed the protein returns to its original conformation.

Back 23

B. Phosphorylation occurs at an Asp residue on the extracellular face of the protein.

Front 24

2. Sequence the following steps of an action potential in the correct order:
1. K+ voltage-gated channels open
2. Membrane potential becomes more negative
3. Membrane potential becomes more positive
4. Na+ voltage-gated channels open
A. 1, 3, 4, 2
B. 1, 2, 4, 3
C. 4, 3, 1, 2
D. 1, 3, 4, 2

Back 24

C. 4, 3, 1, 2

Front 25

3. If SNAREs were not functioning, what would happen when there is a signal for muscle contraction?
A. Calcium ions would not enter the axon terminus.
B. Acetoylcholine would not be packaged into vesicles and would eventually degrade.
C. Muscle contraction would still occur but at a slower rate.
D. There would be no membrane fusion, and therefore, no release of acetylcholine into the synaptic cleft.
E. Acetylcholine would not be able to bind to the receptors on the muscle cell to cause contraction.

Back 25

D. There would be no membrane fusion, and therefore, no release of acetylcholine into the synaptic cleft.

Front 26

1. Receptor Tyrosine Kinases can use autophosphorylation, but in order to activate Ras G-protein, it needs:
A. ATP
B. Calcium
C. An Adaptor Protein

Back 26

C. An Adaptor Protein

Front 27

2. Which of the following residues would be best to have on a loop around a porin in order to weakly select for cations?
A. Lys
B. Arg
C. Gln
D. Tyr
E. Ile

Back 27

C. Gln

Front 28

1. In an open ring formation, there are ___ possible epimers of ribose (an aldopentose) and ___ possible epimers for galactose (an aldohexose).
A. 6, 8
B. 10, 12
C. 8, 16
D. 16, 25
E. 25, 36

Back 28

C. 8, 16

Front 29

2. Which of the following glycoproteins undergoes processing by glycosidases?
A. Glycosidases add monosaccharides residues to N-linked oligosaccharides.
B. Glycosidases remove monosaccharides residues from O-linked oligosaccharides.
C. Glycosidases remove monosaccharides residues from N-linked oligosaccharides.
D. Glycosidases add monosaccharides residues to O-linked oligosaccharides.

Back 29

C. Glycosidases remove monosaccharides residues from N-linked oligosaccharides.

Front 30

3. A 6-carbon carbohydrate with a ketone group and penultimate carbon with the -OH group facing to the right on a Fischer projection is a...
A. L-aldopentose
B. D-ketopentose
C. L aldohexose
D. D-ketohexose

Back 30

D. D-ketohexose

Front 31

1. Which would make the best control point in a metabolic pathway?
A. a reaction with a small negative change in free energy
B. a reaction with a small positive change in free energy
C. a reaction with a large negative change in free energy
D. a reaction with a large positive change in free energy
E. any of the above as long as the reaction is irreversible

Back 31

C. a reaction with a large negative change in free energy

Front 32

2. Which of the following describe a way that amino acids are utilized in the body for fuel storage?
A. Excess amino acids used to build protein (a fuel storage molecule)
B. Excess amino acids converted into carbohydrates and stored as glycogen (a fuel storage molecule)
C. Excess amino acids converted to acetyl units, which are converted to fat (a fuel storage molecule)
D. Two of the above
E. None of the above

Back 32

D. Two of the above (correction: B and C)

Front 33

2. Which of the following statements is NOT true about the pentose phosphate pathway?
A. It generates NADH.
B. Some of the glucose in the liver may be catabolized by this pathway.
C. It has reversible interconversion reactions.
D. It is an oxidative pathway.
E. A and B.

Back 33

A. It generates NADH.

Front 34

3. Which reaction of glycolysis produces NADH?
A. The enolase reaction
B. The fructose-1,6-bisphosphate reaction
C. The aldolase reaction
D. The phosphoglycerate kinase reaction
E. The glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase reaction

Back 34

E. The glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase reaction

Front 35

1. What is the purpose of E1, E2, and E3 of the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex?
A. E1: oxidizes the lipoamide cofactor; E2: regenerate the (thiamine pyrophosphate) TPP cofactor and add CoA to the acetyl group; E3: decarbolate the pyruvate
B. E1: decarbolate the pyruvate; E2: regenerate the (thiamine pyrophosphate) TPP cofactor and add CoA to the acetyl group; E3: reoxidizes the lipoamide cofactor
C. E1: regenerate the (thiamine pyrophosphate) TPP cofactor and add CoA to the acetyl group; E2: oxidizes the lipoamide cofactor; E3: decarbolate the pyruvate
D. E1: decarbolate the pyruvate; E2: reoxidizes the lipoamide cofactor; E3: regenerate the (thiamine pyrophosphate) TPP cofactor and add CoA to the acetyl group
E. E1: generate the (thiamine pyrophosphate) TPP cofactor and add CoA to the acetyl group; E2: reoxidizes the lipoamide cofactor; E3: decarbolate the pyruvate

Back 35

B. E1: decarbolate the pyruvate; E2: regenerate the (thiamine pyrophosphate) TPP cofactor and add CoA to the acetyl group; E3: reoxidizes the lipoamide cofactor

Front 36

2. Which of the following can be made into glucose?
A. malate
B. alpha-ketoglutarate
C. oxaloacetate
D. all the above
E. none of the above

Back 36

D. all the above

Front 37

3. Which steps of the citric acid cycle produces CO2?
A. 1) Citrate Synthase and 3) Isocitrate Dehydrogenase
B. 3) Isocitrate Dehydrogenase and 4) Alpha-ketoglutarate Dehydrogenase
C. 2) Aconitase and 7) Fumarase
D. 1) Citrate Synthase and 4) Alpha-ketoglutarate Dehydrogenase

Back 37

B. 3) Isocitrate Dehydrogenase and 4) Alpha-ketoglutarate Dehydrogenase

Front 38

1. How many molecules of QH2 are needed to fully reduce 1 molecule of O2?
A. 5
B. 4
C. 3
D. 2
E. 1

Back 38

B. 4

Front 39

2. The component in the ETC that transfers electrons directly to oxygen is:
A. NADH dehydrogenase
B. succinate dehydrogenase
C. cytochrome bc1
D. cytochrome c oxidase

Back 39

D. cytochrome c oxidase

Front 40

1. The reduction of plastoquinine occurs in the __________, while the oxidation of water occurs in the ____________.
A. thylakoid membrane; stroma
B. stroma; thylakoid lumen
C. thylakoid lumen; stroma
D. thylakoid membrane; thylakoid lumen
E. thylakoid membrane; stroma

Back 40

D. thylakoid membrane; thylakoid lumen

Front 41

2. Which is the active metal ion in plastocyanin?
A. Mg2+
B. Cu2+
C. Fe3+
D. Ca2+
E. Mn4+

Back 41

B. Cu2+

Front 42

3. Which of the following is true?
A. The energy from photons is transferred to the reaction centers, P680 and P700, through photooxidation.
B. Fluorescence occurs when some of the energy from a photon of UV light is lost as the electron returns to its ground state, and the released energy has a longer wavelength, putting into the range of visible light.
C. Energy is transferred from Photosystem II to Photosystem I through exciton transfer.
D. The heat released after an electron returns to the ground state can be used to give energy to Photosystem II and Photosystem I so that less energy is lost
E. In photooxidation, another carrier becomes oxidized while the chlorophyll is reduced and transfers the electron to down a chain of carriers in a Z-like formation.

Back 42

B. Fluorescence occurs when some of the energy from a photon of UV light is lost as the electron returns to its ground state, and the released energy has a longer wavelength, putting into the range of visible light.

Front 43

1. Which of these is the least dense?
A. VLDL
B. HDL
C. Chlyomicrons
D. IDL
E. LDL

Back 43

C. Chlyomicrons

Front 44

2. What makes essential fatty acids like linoleate so essential?
A. Mammals cannot create double bonds past C9
B. There are no essential fatty acids, only essential amino acids.
C. Mammals cannot synthesize these fatty acids in the amounts required by their bodie so they must supplement their production with additional intake of these fatty acids.
D. Mammals cannot elongate fatty acids past C9.
E. Mammals do not have the enzymes to modify polyunsaturated fatty acids.

Back 44

A. Mammals cannot create double bonds past C9

Front 45

3. List the following steps in sequential order of phospholipid synthesis
1) Phosphoryl group attacks CTP
2) OH group on C3 of diacylglycerol displaces CMP
3) Head group is phosphorylated by ATP hydrolysis
4) PPi hydrolysis
5) Head group is phosphorylated by Pi transfer from phosphoryl transferase
A. 5, 1, 4, 2
B. 3, 1, 4 ,2
C. 3, 5, 2, 4
D. 3, 5, 4, 2
E. 3, 1, 4, 5

Back 45

B. 3, 1, 4 ,2

Front 46

1. Which intermediate of the citric acid cycle can be converted to the amino acid Asn?
A. alpha-keto glutarate
B. Oxaloacetate
C. Aspartate
D. Citrate

Back 46

B. Oxaloacetate

Front 47

2. Of the following, which can be broken down into compounds that feed into other metabolic pathways?
1. Adenine
2. Thymine
3. Uracil
4. Cytosine
5. Guanine
A. 1 and 5 only.
B. 1, 3, and 5 only.
C. 2 and 4 only.
D. 2, 3, and 4 only.
E. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5.

Back 47

D. 2, 3, and 4 only.

Front 48

3. Which of the following is correctly paired regarding the amino acid synthesized by transamination reaction?
A. pyruvate ---> glutamate
B. pyruvate ---> aspartate
C. pyruvate ---> lysine
D. oxaloacetate ---> glutamate
E. oxaloacetate ---> aspartate

Back 48

E. oxaloacetate ---> aspartate

Front 49

4. Which of these concerning Glucogenic and Ketogenic amino acids is false?
A. Ketogenic amino acids give rise to acetyl-CoA
B. Glucogenic amino acids give rise to glycolysis precursors
C. Glucogenic amino acids give rise to gluconeogenic precursors
D. All but leucine and lysine are at least partly glucogenic
E. Ketogenic products can be used for fatty acid synthesis

Back 49

B. Glucogenic amino acids give rise to glycolysis precursors

Front 50

5. Carbamoyl Phosphate Synthetase is associated with which process?
A. Urea Cycle
B. Calvin Cycle
C. Beta-oxidation
D. Ketogenesis

Back 50

A. Urea Cycle

Front 51

1. During the glucose alanine cycle pyruvate is converted to what, and by what process?
A. Glucose, reduction
B. Alanine, transamination
C. Glutamine, denitrification
D. Alanine, oxidation

Back 51

B. Alanine, transamination

Front 52

2. Which of the following is NOT a response of high glucose levels in the blood?
A. GLUT4 receptors translocate to plasma membrane via fusion of vesicles
B. Binding of ATP shuts down K+ channels
C. Insulin is released from the beta cells in the pancreas
D. Membrane depolarization closes Ca2+ channels

Back 52

D. Membrane depolarization closes Ca2+ channels

Front 53

3. When acetyl-CoA carboxylase activity is decreased, there will also be a decrease in which of the following?
A. Beta-oxidation
B. Malonyl-CoA
C. Fatty-Acid Synthesis
D. B and C
E. All of the above

Back 53

D. B and C

Front 54

Glycogen synthase transfers glucose to the end of the glycogen branch with release of which molecule?
A. ATP
B. UDP
C. ADP
D. NAD+

Back 54

B. UDP