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195 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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The AN/WSC-3'S FREQUENCY RANGE IS?
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225 MHZ-399.975 MHZ
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THE WSC-3 HAS HOW MANY POSSIBLE CHANNELS?
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7000
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CHANNEL SPACING FOR THE WSC-3 IS?
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25KHZ
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THE WSC-3 HAS HOW MANY PRESET CHANNELS?
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20
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WHAT IS THE TRANSMIT OUTPUT POWER FOR AM AND FM?
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FM=1 TO 1OO WATTS ADJUSTABLEAM=30 WATTS
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WHAT IS THE SENSITIVITY FOR THE WSC-3 IN AM AND FM
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AM=3.5 MICROVOLTSFM=3.0 MICROVOLTS
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OF THE FOUR WSC-3 VERSIONS WHICH ARE ONLY USED FOR LINE OF SIGHT(LOS)?
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VERSIONS SIX AND SEVEN
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WHAT ARE THE 3 TYPES OF INTERFACE MODULES FOR THE WSC-3?
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STANDARD, SAS, SWITCHABLE AUDIO
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WHAT ARE THE 5 MAJOR FUNCTIONS PERFORMED BY THE WSC-3?
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TRANSMIT, BUILT-IN-TEST-EQUIPMENT(BITE), CONTROL, RECEIVE ADN POWER DISTRIBUTION
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WHAT ARE THE FOUR TIME INTERVALS ASSOCIATED WITH THE WSC-3?
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WEEKLY, MONTHLY, SEMIANNUALLY, AND AS SPECIFIED
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ON WHAT CUTTERS IS THE SCCS CONCORDE SERVER ON?
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270 AND 378
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WHAT CUTTERS IS THE GULFCOAST SPARCSTAR/SUNFIRE SERVER ON?
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210 AND 110
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WHAT NETWORK ATTACHED STORAGE DEVICE DOES THE SCCS USE?
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RAIDTECH SNAZ E6
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HOW MANY PORTS DOES THE SCCS TERMINAL SERVER HAVE?
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16
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WHAT TACTICAL EQUIPMENT DOES THE SCCS-378 USE?
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LINK-11 AND TAC-3 TACTICAL ADVANCE COMPUTER
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WHAT SENSORY EQUIPMENT DOES THE SCCS INCORPORATE?
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GPS/DGPS RECEIVERS, LORAN (RAYNAV-750)RECEIVER, 73 AND MK-92 RADARS, DEPTH SOUNDER, SPEED LOGS, NAV DATA, AND AIS
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WHAT IS COMDAC USED FOR?
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IT IS A SOFTWARE APPLICATION USED FOR SHIPBOARD NAVIGATION AND COLLISION AVOIDANCE.
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HOW MANY CG CUTTERS AND NAVY VESSELS USE COMDAC?
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50 CUTTERS, 117 NAVY VESSELS.
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WHAT CUTTERS USE ECPINS?
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WLB AND WLM BUOY TENDERS. 399 WAGB POLAR ICE BREAKERS
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WHAT ARE THE FIVE SYSTEMS USED BY ECPINS?
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OPERATOR CONTROL PANEL, 5200 NG COMPUTER, KEYBOARD, VIDEO AND TRACKBALL SWITCH, VIDEO INTERFACE AND FLAT PANEL DISPLAY MONITOR
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WHAT CUTTERS USE TRANSAS?
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87'S AND 110'S
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WHAT RADAR REPLACED THE AN/SPS-64?
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AN/SPS-73
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WHAT RADAR REPLACED THE AN/SPS-69?
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SINS
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WHAT IS THE TRANSMIT POWER FOR X-BAND AND S-BAND?
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X-BAND=25KWS-BAND=30KW
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WHO IS THE MANUFACTURER OF THE 73 RADAR'S ANTENNA ELEMENT?
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FURUNO
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WHO IS THE MANUFACTURER OF THE ANTENNA SAFETY SWITCH?
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RAYTHEON
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HOW MANY CARD SLOTS ARE IN THE RAYTHEON DESIGNED SAOP?
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21
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WHAT VERSION OF THE 73 RADAR IS ON THE WAGB 400 POLAR ICE BREAKER?
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V1
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WHAT VERSION OF THE 73 RADAR IS ON THE 378?
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V2
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WHAT VERSION OF THE 73 RADAR IS ON THE 270'S?
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V4
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WHAT VERSION OF THE 73 RADAR IS ON 210'S?
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V6
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WHAT VERSION OF THE 73 RADAR IS ON 110'S AND 87'S?
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V11
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WHAT IS THE SERVICE LIFE OF THE SINS?
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8 YEARS
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WHAT CUTTERS USE THE BRIDGEMASTER E SERIES RADAR?
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WLB/WLM BUOY TENDERS
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WHAT DOES THE FIRST NUMBER REPRESENT ON A CABLE TAG?
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THE SYSTEM NUMBER FOR WHEN THERE ARE TWO OR MORE IDENTICAL SYSTEMS
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THE SECOND DIGIT IN THE CABLE TAG IS?
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CABLE SEGREGATION MARKING OR CLASS OF THE CABLE. A FOR ACTIVE, S FOR SUSCEPTIBLE AND PASSIVE CABLES HAVE NO MARKING.
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THE SECOND SET OF LETTERS IN A CABLE TAG ARE?
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THE TYPE OF SYSTEM. ES IS SURFACE SEARCH RADAR.
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WHAT DOES THE LAST GROUP OF NUMBERS REPRESENT ON A CABLE TAG?
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SYSTEM CABLE NUMBER
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WHAT DOES THE CONNECTOR DESTINATION TAG TELL YOU?
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WHICH CONNECTOR THE CABLE IS GOING TO.
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WHAT IS DISPLAYED ON THE ANTENNA TAG?
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THE ANTENNA NUMBER AND TYPE
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WHAT MATERIAL ARE CABLE TAGS MADE OF?
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ALUMINUM
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What components make up the Earth electrode Subsystem?
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System of buried, driven rods interconnected with bare wire, metallica pipe systems that have no insulation joints and a ground plane of horizontal buried wires.
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The most common type of ground rods are those made of?
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Copper-clad steel.
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Ground rods have a diameter and length of?
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3/4 inch diameter and 10 feet in length.
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The metal framework of buildings may exhibit a resistance to earth of less than ___ ohms?
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10
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What is a class A bond?
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Welding of metallic surfaces
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What is a class B bond?
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bolting or clamping of metallic surfaces
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What is a class C bond?
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Bridging using a metallic strap
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The DC resistance across bond and grounding junctions shall not exceed?
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.1 Ohms
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RF impedance across bonding and grounding junctions shall not exceed?
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25 ohms at 30 MHz
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The earth electrode subsystem rods are interconnected with
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1/0 AWG or larger bare copper cable.
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How often do you measure the resistance to earth of the earth electrode subsystem and what method?
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every 12 months, FALL-OF-POTENTIAL METHOD.
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How many ohms should the resistance to earth be using the FALL-OF-POTENTIAL METHOD?
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Less than 10 ohms
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The resistance to earth of all equipment, structures, fences and gates that are required to be bonded to ground must be less than __ ohms?
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.5 ohms
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The fault protection subsystem ensures that ___ ?
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personnel are protected from shock hazards and equipment is protected from damage or destruction.
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Fault protection conductors allow what to happen?
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Electrical paths of sufficient current-carrying capacity to operate fuses and circuit breakers.
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Which executive order requires the Coast Guard to maintain a safety and occupational program IAW OSHA?
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Executive Order 12196.
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What are the three primary steps of the risk management process?
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Identify the hazards, Risk assessment adn Risk control.
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What is the thickness of the RADHAZ signs?
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.004 inches
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What is the type 1 RADHAZ sign?
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Advises personnel that a RF Hazard exists in this area.
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What is the type 2 RADHAZ sign?
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Advises personnel to check with command authority before proceeding.
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What is the type 3 RADHAZ sign?
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warns that a burn hazard may exist on metallic objects in this area.
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What is the type 4 RADHAZ sign?
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Hazards of electromagnetic radiation to fuel(HERF) used to warn personnel prior to fueling operations to check with command authority.
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What is the type 5 RADHAZ sign?
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Used below decks in a system equipment room to advise operators of specific safety precautions.
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What is the type 6 RADHAZ sign?
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advises not to use unauthorized radio transmitters(Cell phones and other wireless comms)
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What is the type 7 RADHAZ sign?
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ensures that personnel follow the Hazards of electromagnetic radiation to ordnance(HERO) practices.
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What is the type 8 RADHAZ sign?
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Used to advise operators to refer to HERO emission control plan before operating transmitters.
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the DANGER HIGH VOLTAGE" sign must be displayed when there is an excess of ___ volts"
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500V RMS or DC
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the CPR sign must be displayed where?
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Where electronic equipment is present or personnel work and must be readable from anywhere in the space.
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A power supply has how many volts?
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12V or more.
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What code contains the basic requirements for personnel protection from a lightning strike to a structure?
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NFPA NO. 780
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For lightning protection, where should the tip of the air terminal be and how many inches above the structure you are protecting?
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Where lightning will most likely strike, 10 inches.
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When a tall structure has lightning protection, what cones of protection do not require lightning protection?
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1:1 cone of protection does not require any. 2:1 does not require protection for non-critical structures.
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What is the maximum DC resistance a down contuctor can be?
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up to 75 ft. less than .176 ohms, more than 75 ft. less than .088 ohms.
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The down conductor shall be no less than No. ? AWG wire.
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No. 14 AWG
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The bend radius and angle of a down conductor should not be less than?
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8 inches, 90 degrees.
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The ground rods for lightning protection are usually copper-clad steel, how long are they and what is their diameter?
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8 ft, 1/2 in.
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lightning protection shall be inspected how often visually and mechanically?
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every 2 months visually, 12 months mechanically.
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What are the 3 signal reference grounding configurations?
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Floating ground, single-point ground, and multi-point ground.
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A floating ground is?
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Electrically isolated from the building ground and other conductive objects.
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The single point ground configuration is recommended for use in?
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Low frequency electronic systems (up to 300Khz)
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The multi-point ground is recommended for?
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electronic systems with Higher frequences 300Khz and above
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What is a equipotential ground plane?
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A network of multiple conductors in the form of a grid that has low impedance to ground at high frequencies.
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Name the four common types of equipotential ground planes.
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Concrete floor, raised floors, sub-floors and overhead.
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Which of the following documents is not required when inspecting fault protection subsystems?MIL-STD-188-124B, Civil Eng Manual, NEC Doc., MIL-HDBK-419.
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Civil Engineering manual
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To protect a structure from lightning damage, the grounding cable should be ___?
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0000 AWG
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What manual contains guidance for Multi-cable transit (MCT)?
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MIL-STD-2003
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Multi-Cable transits cannot be used on weather decks? True or False
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FALSE
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What are the two main types of MCT's used by the CG?
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Nelson Firestop and Roxtec
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What are the two main types of Heliax cables?
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Coxial and Waveguide
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Who is the manufacturer of Heliax products?
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Andrews
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Cables installed in shipboard systems shall be inspected for what prior to energizing?
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Continuity, insulation resistance, attenuation and VSWR
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The minimum bend radius for flexible coaxial cables shall be?
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10 times the cable diameter. 20 times if subject to repeated flexure.
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Rectangular Waveguides are usually supplied in ?
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10-foot to 14-foot sections
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Bends may be installed in waveguides in what angles?
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45,60 or 90
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Radar, Radio transmission and sonar cables shall be seperated at least __inches apart
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18
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The two types of Coax cable are
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flexible and semi-rigid
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The two types of stuffing tubes are
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metal and nylon
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A metal stuffing tube must be using in cable installations requiring what?
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airtight and watertight integrity
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When replacing a bushing in a stuffing tube with a cable already running through it, what angle slit should you cut the bush to be installed?
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30 degrees
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What is (PEL) Permissible Exposure Limits?
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Time limits set to allow human body time to dissipate or cool before returning to the RF field to prevent injury.
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Hearing protection shall be worn when the evironments or equipemtn produce an eight hour TWA of ___?
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85db or greater.
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What are the hazards of RF Radiation?
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Thermal effect, Biological effects, burns and electric shock.
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What body parts are particularly susceptible to tissue damage from the thermal effect of high frequencies?
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eyes and testes
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The maximum rate of absorption by the human body can occur within what frequency range?
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VHF 30-300MHz
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What is the Maximum permissible exposure(MPE) limit for occupatonal population/controlled exposure?
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6 minutes
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What is the maximum permissible exposure limit for general population/uncontrolled exposure?
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30 minutes
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when working within __ ft of exposed circuits, do not wear metal items.
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4 ft
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WHAT VOLTAGE ARE SHORTING PROBES RATED AT?
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25,000 VOLTS
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What kind of tape is used to seal the seams between rubber floor matting?
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four-inch wide 3M electrical tape
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CG authorized rubber matting is rated for no more than ____ volts?
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3,000 volts
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Permission to work aloft is required and must be obtained from the ___?
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OOD
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a personal fall arrest system consists of?
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Full body harness, deceleration lanyard, safety climbing device.
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the deceleration lanyard limits free-fall to _ ft?
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6 ft.
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climbing devices shall have a minimum tensile strength of ____ lbs.
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5000 lbs
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The working load for a full body harness is ___ lbs.
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310 lbs
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When using a TDR, how do you calculate the distance to the end of a cable?
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Multiply the distance, per division, by the number of vertical lines between the start pulse and the reflected pulse
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When using a TDR, what is the purpose of applying more power?
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Enables you to measure longer cable runs
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What form is used to record the results of the TDR transmission line test?
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NAVSHIP-531
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If you have a downward spike on your TDR display what does it mean?
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You have a short
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Why would you have to lower the power level on your TDR?
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For noise reduction
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What is a megger used for?
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to test transmission lines and antennas.
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When using a megger, a resistance of _ megaohms or less indicates an immediate and urgent need to correct the problem.
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5 megaohms
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cable maintenance is needed under what circumstances?
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The resistance record indicates a pattern of slowly detiorating reading or a resistance of 200 megaohms or less.
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What is the time interval between tests on antennas or transmission lines if station on a cutter?
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Montly or after extended periods at sea.
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What is the time interval between tests on submarine cable?
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annually
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What types of antennas or transmission lines do you avoid using a megger on?
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VHF/UHF antennas, wave-guide, Whip and wire antennas.
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The five methods to acquire supplies and/ or services are?
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CMPLUS, Mandatory turn-in repairable(MTR)/Deport-Level Repairable(DLR),DRMO, MILSTRIP, Direct purchase from a commercial source.
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What is a CG-4940?
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Surf Requisition Log
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What is a DOT F 4200.1.2.CG??
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Procurement Request Form.
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What is the Cognizance Code(COG) for Mandatory Turn in items (MTR)?
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0C
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Depot-Level Repairable items are supported by who and what COG Code?
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The Navy, COG code begins with 7.
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What is Cognizance code?
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a 2-digit alphanumeric used to identify a stock numbered item with the Coast Guard or Navy inventory
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Hazardous Materials need to have what when routed for approval?
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MSDS and Statement of Essential Need(SEN)
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What is the last option in acquiring supplies or services?
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Direct purchase.
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What is a SCAT code?
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a four or seven alphanumeric code used to identify a range of measurement parameters by functional category.
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What is the SCAT code for test equipment not authorized by NAVSEA?
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4999VAL
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What is a SPETERL(Ship/Shore Portable Electrical/Electronic Test Equipment Requirements Listing)?
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An allowance list document that only lists complete systems, not subsystems, and the test equipment required for that unit to support those major systems.
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What is the Allowance Change Request form?
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NAVSUP 1220-2
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The unit test equp. manager will ensure test equip. is sent to the cal lab at least _ weeks prior to expiration of cal. date.
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2 weeks.
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What is a short cycle calibration?
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a less than normal calibration interval needed to due special operations.
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NAVSEA will send out a notice __ days prior to the first test equipment due date
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30
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The calibrated label, with BLACK LETTERING on a WHITE BACKGROUND, indicates the instrument is ___
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within tolerance on all scales.
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The calibrated-refer to report label with RED LETTERING on a WHITE BACKGROUND is used when?
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actual measurement values must be known to use the the instrument.
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The SPECIAL CALIBRATION label, with black lettering on a yellow background, is used?
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Whenever some unusual or special condition in the calibration should be drawn to your attention
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The INACTIVE-calibrate before use label has green lettering on a white background and is used?
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When a piece of TE due for recalibration will not be used for some time in the future.
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The Calibration Not required label has orange lettering on a white background and is listed as ?
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not requiring calibration
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The REJECTED label has black lettering on a red background and is used when?
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Test equipment fails during calibration.
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What are the four types of CASREPS?
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Initial, Update, Cancel and Correct.
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What is the criteria of an Initial CASREP?
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Is sent within 24 hrs of equipment malfunction, Reduces a unit's ability to complete any mission, Cannot be corrected within 48 hrs and requires outside assistance.
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What is the criteria of a Update CASREP?
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Any change in status of CASREP, (status,request, parts, etc.) must be sent every 30 days.
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A correction CASREP(CASOR) provides?
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information regarding the repair of the failed equipment. and when the equipment has been repaired.
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A Cancel CASREP(CASCAN) is sent when?
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If the equipment is scheduled to be repaired during maintenance period or if it's being replaced by newer equipment.
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The prosign R in the CASREP header indicates what?
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Routine, speed of service 6 hours or less
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The prosign P in the CASREP header indicates what?
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Priority, speed of service 3 hours or less
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The prosign O in the CASREP header data indicates what?
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Immediate, speed of service 30 minutes or less
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The prosign Z in the CASREP header indicates what?
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Flash, speed of service is less than 10 minutes.
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Date time group has how many characters?
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12
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Plain language address(PLA) shall not exceed ___ characters
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50
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The body of a CASREP contains __ data sets.
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18
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Message originator specifies the type of unit and contains a maximum of __ characters
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30
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The CASREP message serial number begins with 1 and start over at what?
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999
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The position reports the location of the unit and has a maximum of __ characters.
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30
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The ________ is a four to seven character code that indentifies the equipment type.
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Equipment identification code(EIC)
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Casualty Category 2 indicates what?
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Minor degradation in any primary mission, or a major degradation or total loss of secondary mission.
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Casualty Category 3 is what?
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deficiency in mission-essential equipment, major degradation but not the loss of a primary mission.
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Casualty Category 4 is what?
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deficiency in mission essential equipment that is worse than category 3, and causes a loss of at least one primary mission.
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The quantity required, MICA allowance and quantity onboard fields in the CASREP have a maximum of ___ characters.
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3
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the Nomenclature field is limited to __ characters.
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10
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The remarks data set may contain a maximum of __ continuous lines.
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99
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The configuration change form is what?
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OPNAV 4790 C/K
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When filling out a configuration change form, what blocks should units fill in as a minimum?
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1-7, 13-23, signature blocks and work center supervisor.
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The 3 schedules of PMS are?
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Weekly, quarterly and cycle.
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The _______ is a report from the Navy(PMS 5) that is a part of the work center PMS manual.
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List of effective pages.
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The periodicity code is used to identify the time interval between completions or frequency of a maintenance what are the two types?
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Calender, NON-calendar.
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What is a CG-5269?
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Report of survey.
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How long will the report of survey(CG-5269 be retained for?
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3 years.
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Who can retain the report of survey(CG-5269)?
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Unit, ISC, or CG-842
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What does the Recoverability/ Repairability code C mean?
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Non-repairable item.
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What does the Recoverability/ Repairability code O mean?
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Repairable item. when not economically repairable, dispose of at organization/user level.
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What does the Recoverability/ Repairability code H mean?
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Repairable item. Repair, and disposal not authorized below intermediate/district level.
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What does the Recoverability/ Repairability code R mean?
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Repairable item. Repair and disposal not authorized below depor/ICP level.
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What is a CG-5236?
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Serviceable,Unserviceable Tag.
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At a minumum the CG-5236 must contain what?
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NSN, nomenclature, date of failure, OPFAC and description of symptoms.
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What 3 types of labels are required for DLR/MTI items?
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Caution label, unserviceable item label and unserviceable item tag.
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_____ _____ is the first step in troubleshooting and is based on a complete knowledge and understanding of equipment operation.
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System Recognition
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The second step in troubleshooting after an equipment trouble has been recognized, all the available aids designed into the equipment should be used to further elaborate on the symptom.
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Symptom Elaboration
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The third step in troubleshooting is to formulate a number of logical choices as to the basic cause of the symptom, or what is at fault.
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Listing probably faulty functions
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The 4th step in trouble shooting is using diagrams in tech manuals to localize the faulty function.
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Localizing the faulty function
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Once the faulty function is determined, it may be necessary to make additional choices as to which circuit or group of circuits is at fault. What troubleshooting step is this?
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Localizing trouble to the circuit.
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The final step in troubleshooting is after the faulty component has been located, bur prior to performing corrective action. What is this step called?
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Failure analysis
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What is the minimum height to be considered a tower?
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more than 20 ft
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Tall tower are those ___ ft in height or greater.
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300 ft.
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Who is responsible for the towers in their jurisdiction?
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CO of CEU units
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At approximately what minimum voltage potential should you be able to feel an electrostatic discharge?
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3,500 to 4,000 volts.
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