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48 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
1. What is the gold standard for diagnosis of pneumonia?
a. The presence of infiltrates on CXR
b. However, a normal x-ray does not exclude the diagnosis
c. X-rays may be normal early in the course of disease and a patient who is dehydrated may not demonstrate infiltrate until the patient is adequately rehydrated.
2. Pneumonia vs. Pneumonitis?
a. Pneumonia is infection of lung parenchyma caused by agency bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites
b. Pneumonitis inflammation of the lungs from a variety of noninfectious causes such as chemicals, blood, radiation, and autoimmune processes.
3. What is the most common mechanism triggering pneumonia
a. Upper airway colonization by potentially pathogenic organisms that are subsequently aspirated
4. What is the most common bacterial cause of community acquired pneumonia?
a. Streptococcus pneumoniae (Pneumococcus)
b. Other common bacterial etiologies include:
1. Haemophilus influenzae
2. Moraxella catarrhalis
5. Classic Presentation of pneumococcal pneumonia?
a. Illness of acute onset with cough productive of RUST-coloured sputum!
b. Fever
c. Shaking chills
d. Bulbar infiltrates on radiograph
6. In whom is Haemophilus pneumonia often seen?
a. Patients with COPD
7. Presentation of atypical pneumonia on radiograph (compared to typicals)?
a. Tend to cause bilateral, diffuse infiltrates
b. Rather than focal, lobar infiltrates
8. Atypical pneumonia causes (3 listed)?
1. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
2. Chlamydia pneumoniae
3. Legionella pneumoniae
b. Also several different viruses
9. In whom do the typical vs. Atypical pneumonias commonly occur?
a. Typical pneumonia: the very young and very old
b. Atypical pneumonia: more common in adolescent or young adult patients.
10. Pneumonia with radiographic findings of bilateral, ground-glass appearing infiltrate, think?
a. Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia
11. Pneumonia with apical consolidation, think?
a. TB
12. Pneumonia caused by aspiration of gastrointestinal contents, the seen where?
a. Right lower lobe pneumonia.
13. How can Legionella be identified?
a. Urinary antigen testing
14. Empiric Treatment of pneumonia in otherwise healthy persons?
a. The macrolide: Clarithromycin or azithromycin
b. Or
c. Doxycycline
15. Empiric Treatment of pneumonia in otherwise healthy persons in the areas with high rates of macrolide resistance?
a. Treatment with a newer fluoroquinolone (levofloxacin, moxifloxacin)
b. Or
c. A combination of a beta-lactam plus a macrolide
16. Treatment of hospitalized patients with community acquired pneumonia who do not require ICU?
a. IV beta-lactam (eg, cefuroxime, cefotaxime, ceftriaxone, or ampicillin – sulbactam)
b. +
c. IV macrolide (erythromycin or azithromycin)
d. NIV fluoroquinolone activity against S pneumoniae can be substituted.
17. Why are early follow-up chest x-rays mandatory in those who fail to show clinical improvement at 5 to 7 days?
a. Because bronchogenic carcinoma can present the picture of a typical pneumonitis
18. Duration of Streptococcus pneumonia treatment?
a. Should continue until the patient is afebrile for at least 72 hours.
19. Duration of pneumonia treatment if caused by S aureus, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Klebsiella, anaerobes, M pneumoniae, C pneumoniae, or Legionella species?
a. A minimum of 2 weeks of therapy is appropriate
20. When may be necessary to perform a thoracentesis with Gram stain and culture of pleural fluid with pneumonia?
a. It's more than a minimal amount of fluid is present, as evidenced by significant blunting of the costophrenic angles on radiograph.
21. For whom is the pneumococcal vaccine recommended?
1. All persons 65 and older
2. All adults with chronic cardiopulmonary diseases
3. All immunocompromised patients
b. Consider revaccination every 5 years in patients known to have a rapid decline in anybody titres, such as those with nephritic syndrome or renal failure.
22. Drug of choice for pneumonia caused by Legionella and S aureus?
a. Erythromycin
23. Drug of choice for Streptococcus pneumonia?
a. Penicillin
24. Drug of choice for pneumonia caused by Haemophilus?
a. Cefuroxime
25. Complete
25. Complete
1. What type of birth control is recommended for breast-feeding women?
a. The progestin only “minipill” as combined hormonal contraceptives can interfere with milk supply.
2. Endometritis?
a. A polymicrobial infection of the endometrium of the uterus, usually caused by ascending infection from the vagina.
3. Lochia?a. Yellow – white discharge, consisting of blood cells, decidual cells, and fibrous products, that occurs following delivery.
a. Yellow – white discharge, consisting of blood cells, decidual cells, and fibrous products, that occurs following delivery.
4. In women who are not breast-feeding, when does menstruation usually restart?
a. By the 3rd month postpartum
b. Anovulation persists for longer periods of time were exclusively breast-feeding their babies
5. What is the most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage?
a. Uterine atony.
b. Failure in the uterus to contract adequately resulting in continued bleeding from uterine vasculature
6. Risk factors for Uterine atony?
a. Prolonged labor
b. Prolonged use of oxytocin during labor
c. Large baby
d. Grand multipara (5 or more previous children)
7. Initial management of uterine atony?
a. IV oxytocin
b. Bimanual massage
8. Secondary management of uterine atony if the above does not control bleeding?
a. IM methylergonovine (Methergine)
9. Contraindication to administration of IM methylergonovine (Methergine)?
a. Hypertension, as it may cause an abrupt increase in blood pressure
10. 3rd line treatment of uterine atony if the above fails?
a. Prostaglandin F2α (Hemabate) IM or intramyometrially
11. In whom is Prostaglandin F2α (Hemabate) contraindicated?
a. Patients with asthma
12. Was another option which is given orally or rectally to control uterine bleeding?
a. Misoprostol (Cytotec).
13. Postpartum fever, especially if associated with uterine tenderness and foul-smelling lochia is often the sign of?
a. Endometritis
14. 3 other causes of fever in the postpartum period (esp in women w/c-sections)?
a. Identical to causes of fever in postsurgical patients:
1. Atelectasis
2. Wound Infection
3. Venous thromboembolic disease
15. Maternity or baby blues?
a. Occurs in 30 to 70% of women.
b. This condition develops within the 1st week after delivery typically resolves 510 postpartum day.
c. Sx:
i. Tearfulness
ii. Sadness
iii. Emotional mobility
16. First-line therapy for postpartum depression?
a. SSRIs because of the efficacy and safety.
b. They are also considered safe in breast-feeding
17. Postpartum psychosis?
a. A rare but potentially devastating complication following pregnancy.
b. Manic or frankly delusional behaviours be present in a few days to a few weeks afte delivery in up to 1 in 1000 postpartum patients.
a. A rare but potentially devastating complication following pregnancy.
b. Manic or frankly delusional behaviours be present in a few days to a few weeks afte delivery in up to 1 in 1000 postpartum patients.
a. Frequent position changes
b. Alternating breasts during feedings
c. Application of lanolin
19. Pathophys of mastitis?
a. Results from obstruction of milk glands sometime secondarily infected with bacteria.
20. Treatment of mastitis?
a. Treated by increased nursing or breast pumping
b. Oral antibiotics, such as cephalexin or dicloxacillin should not result in discontinuation of nursing.
21. How long after delivery should non-breast-feeding women wait to start combined OCPs?
a. 3 weeks, as the risk of thromboembolic disease is higher in those earlier times
22. How long after delivery should you wait to place an IUD?
a. 6 weeks
23. Note: lactation induced amenorrhoea provides a high level of natural contraception in the 1st 6 months postpartum. Women who breast-feed exclusively and are amenorrheic have a 98% contraceptive protection for 6 months.
23. Note: lactation induced amenorrhoea provides a high level of natural contraception in the 1st 6 months postpartum. Women who breast-feed exclusively and are amenorrheic have a 98% contraceptive protection for 6 months.