Certified Ophthalmic Assistant

Front 1

The specific reason a patient is being seen for an eye exam is referred to as the

Back 1

Chief Complaint

Front 2

A past ocular history includes all of the following with the exception of :

a) strabisumus sx at age 5

b) first reading glasses at age 6

c) a cousin dx with glaucoma x 10 yrs ago

d) red eye x 1 month ago

Back 2

C) a cousin diagnosed with glaucoma x 10 years ago

Front 3

A family history includes all of the following with the exception of the patient's:

a) mother

b) daughter

c) spouse

d) brother

Back 3

c) spouse

Front 4

A patient who reports waviness when looking at straight lines or letters (metamorphosia) MOST likely has

a) astigmatism

b) cataract

c) macular disease

d) optic neuritis

Back 4

c) macular disease

Front 5

A patient calls the office giving the history that they had cataract surgery two years ago. For the past 2 days he has noticed flashes of light in the operated eye. Which is the proper action?

Back 5

Patient should see an ophthalmologist within 24 hours

Front 6

Which of the following is included in past medical history?

a) Details of ocular treatment

b) Diabetes in parent

c) Drug allergies

d) Family history

Back 6

c) Drug allergies

Front 7

Which of the following symptoms suggests an urgent problem?

a) difficulty seeing at night

b) increased difficulty in reading fine print

c) sudden onset of blurry VA and halos around lights

d) visual flashes followed by headache

Back 7

c) sudden onset of blurry VA and halos around lights

Front 8

In taking a history, which of the following is the most important?

a) allergies and drug reactions

b) medications taken at present

c) past ocular history

d) the chief complaint

Back 8

d) the chief complaint

Front 9

Anisocoria is described as

Back 9

difference in pupil size

Front 10

The acronym RAPD stands for

Back 10

relative afferent pupillary defect

Front 11

All of the following may cause irregularly shaped pupils with the exception of

a) congenital abnormalities

b) iris inflammation

c) presbyopia

d) surgical intervention

Back 11

c) presbyopia

Front 12

The most serious complication of the improper removal of rigid contact lenses is

Back 12

corneal abrasion

Front 13

Which of the following statements is TRUE about soft contact lenses compared to hard contact lenses?

a) soft lenses are more difficult to keep clean and free from deposits

b) soft lenses have minimal overwear reaction

c) soft lenses have better optics and usually give better vision

d) soft lenses may be more easily modified

Back 13

b) soft lenses have minimal overwear reaction

Front 14

In order to maintain to maintain the retinoscope, you need to

Back 14

keep an adequate supply of spare bulbs in the examining room

Front 15

Proper care of a phoropter does NOT include

a) wiping the cross cylinder with a lens tissue occasionally

b) protecting the phoropter with a dust cover when not in use

c) cleaning the retinoscopy lens and other back lenses with a glass cleaner and cotton tipped swab

d) placing a finger in the sight aperture to check lens placement

Back 15

d) placing a finger in the sight aperture to check lens placement

Front 16

What is the cause of a projected image to become dim on one half of the acuity projector screen?

Back 16

The projector bulb is failing

Front 17

If dirt accumulates on the mirror of the slit lamp, the technician may clean it by using all of the following EXCEPT:

a) a soft lint-free cloth

b) a lens brush

c) a blast of air

d) alcohol

Back 17

d) alcohol

Front 18

Which of the following statements regarding the accurate measurement of VA is true?

a) Binocular acuity testing is more important than monocular testing

b) Patients who cannot see the largest letters on the distance acuity chart should be allowed to move closer until they are able to read some of the letters

c) The patient must be allowed to squint during the test to attain his or her best visual image

d) Patients who wear corrective lenses should NOT wear them for the VA test.

Back 18

b) Patients who cannot see the largest letters on the distance acuity chart should be allowed to move closer until they are able to read some of the letters

Front 19

The spherical equivalent of a (-2.00 + 3.00 x 090) lens is

Back 19

-0.50

Front 20

Lensometry always begins with

Back 20

focusing the eyepiece

Front 21

Keratometry is the procedure for measurement of the patient's

Back 21

corneal curvature

Front 22

The term ophthalmometer is also known as

Back 22

keratometer

Front 23

The purpose of the chin rest adjustment knob on the keratometer is to

Back 23

position the keratometer to the patient's eye roughly in line with the keratometers barrel

Front 24

Medical ethics are

Back 24

a set of moral values

Front 25

The process by which a patient is able to make a knowledgeable assessment of a specific medical or surgical procedure is referred to as

Back 25

informed consent

Front 26

Information on a chart should not be shared without the patient's

Back 26

written consent

Front 27

What should the medical ophthalmic medical assistant do if the patient refuses to discuss their medical history?

Back 27

Defer the history to the physician

Front 28

The ophthalmic medical assistant may perform which of the following?

a) Diagnose ophthalmic conditions

b) Treat medical conditions

c) Collect data as authorized by the supervising physician

d) Perform surgical procedures as authorized by the supervising physician

Back 28

c) Collect data as authorized by the supervising physician

Front 29

Which of the following is most likely to be responsible for the transmission of epidemic adenovirus keratoconjunctivitis?

a) finger to eye transmission

b) applanation tonometry

c) fluorescein angiography

d) kissing

Back 29

a) finger to eye transmission

Front 30

Washing hands between patient is an example of:

Back 30

standard precaution

Front 31

Dilation of the pupil is referred to as

Back 31

mydriasis

Front 32

The primary disadvantage of ophthalmic topical solution medication is

Back 32

diminished contact with the eye

Front 33

The following are the main methods of ophthalmic drug delivery to patients EXCEPT

a) nasal delivery

b) oral delivery

c) injectable delivery

d) topical delivery

Back 33

a) nasal delivery

Front 34

Which method would be recommended for delivering drug to a crying child?

a) drops

b) ointments

c) solutions

d) suspensions

Back 34

b) ointments

Front 35

Intravenous, intramuscular and subcutaneous injections of pharmaceutical substances are classified as

Back 35

Systemic drug delivery

Front 36

Which is not an antifungal agent?

a) Amphotericin B

b) Natamycin

c) Miconazole

d) Vidarabine

Back 36

d) Vidarabine

Front 37

Cycloplegic agents differ from mydriatic agents in that they

Back 37

both dilate the pupil and paralyze accomodation

Front 38

Local anesthetics by injection are used in ophthalmology to produce all of the following EXCEPT

a) anesthesia of the globe

b) anesthesia of the eyelid

c) anesthesia of the cornea

d) paralysis of the facial muscles

Back 38

b) anesthesia of the cornea

Front 39

If eyes are misaligned or the extraocular muscles are unable to move the eyes in a coordinated manner, then

a) the brain may be unable to merge the two images received from the eyes

b) the two images received by the brain should still maintain corresponding retinal points

c) the physical appearance of the eyes should not be affected

d) stereopsis will not be affected

Back 39

a) the brain may be unable to merge the two images received from the eyes

Front 40

Strabismus is failure of both eyes to spontaneously direct their gaze at the same object due to

Back 40

muscular imbalance

Front 41

The Worth four-dot test is used to detect the

Back 41

suppression of one eye

Front 42

How many eye pads are used when applying a pressure patch?

Back 42

2

Front 43

A concern with using ultrasonic cleaning systems is is that they can

Back 43

remove all lubrication

Front 44

The method used to treat eyelid lesions by freezing is called

Back 44

cryotherapy

Front 45

A properly applied eye dressing should be secured with

Back 45

parallel strips of surgical tape from the forehead to the cheekbone

Front 46

When an ophthalmologist does not perform surgery in an operating room, but rather in the ophthalmologists office this is referred to as

Back 46

minor surgery

Front 47

Factors that determine whether or not surgery will be performed in the ophthalmologists office include all of the following EXCEPT

a) outpatient facilities in a nearby hospital

b) time spent at the hospital by the physician

c) type of insurance the patient has

d) presence of a trained ophthalmic assistant

Back 47

c) type of insurance the patient has

Front 48

A pledget is a

Back 48

small tuft of cotton soaked in anesthetic solution

Front 49

The part of the retina which is MOST concerned with fine visual resolution and good color perception is call the

Back 49

fovea

Front 50

A common endocrine problem associated with eye disorders is

Back 50

diabetes

Front 51

The chief advantage of the projected acuity chart compared with the printed Snellen distance chart is that it can be used to

a) show the patient one line of print at a time

b) allow for an actual testing distance of less than 20 feet (6.0 meters)

c) test color vision

d) test dark adaptation

Back 51

b) allow for an actual testing distance of less than 20 feet (6.0 meters

Front 52

What is the MOST common cause of low vision among the elderly today?

Back 52

macular degeneration

Front 53

The area of eye MOST critical to central vision is the

Back 53

macula

Front 54

An ocular shield is indicated in which of the following circumstances

a) corneal abrasion

b) globe laceration

c) conjunctivitis

d) blepharitis

Back 54

b) globe laceration

Front 55

Protocols for applying pressure patches or shields require that adhesive tape must be applied from

Back 55

forehead to the cheek

Front 56

What is the best method for someone to assist a blind patient to ambulate?

Back 56

Walk slightly ahead of the patient allowing the patient to rest their hand on your arm.

Front 57

The structure that provides color to the eye is the

Back 57

iris

Front 58

The tear film consists of which three layers

Back 58

Oily, aqueous, mucin

Front 59

In regard to metabolic diseases, diabetes is the one that

Back 59

carries the greatest risk of blindness

Front 60

Red eye may be the result of all the following EXCEPT

a) conjunctivitis

b) subonjunctival hemorrhage

c) keratoconus

d) iritis

Back 60

c) keratoconus

Front 61

Systemic disorders that manifest retinal effects include all of the following EXCEPT

a) thyroid disorders

b) sickle cell disease

c) the common cold

d) hypertension

Back 61

c) the common cold

Front 62

Which of the following ophthalmic emergencies require immediate attention?

a) chemical burns, sudden severe vision loss, lacerated or penetrated globe

b) ocular discomfort, mucus discharge, tearing or itching

c) double vision, eyelid swelling, lid twitching

d) photophobia, floaters, near vision difficulty

Back 62

a) chemical burns, sudden severe vision loss, lacerated or penetrated globe

Front 63

The acronym CPR stands for

Back 63

cardiopulmonary resuscitation

Front 64

The uvea consists of the

Back 64

iris, ciliary body, and choroid

Front 65

Slit lamp biomicroscope photography is useful for

Back 65

imaging the anterior segment of the eye

Front 66

A-Scan biometry measures the

Back 66

distance between internal ocular structures

Front 67

B-scan ultrasonography provides a

Back 67

two dimensional reconstruction of ocular and orbital tissues

Front 68

In the myopic eye, parallel rays of light are brought into focus

Back 68

in front of the retina

Front 69

In the hyperopic eye, parallel rays of light are brought into focus

Back 69

behind the retina

Front 70

The term astigmatism refers to the refractive condition that may be corrected with

Back 70

cylinder lenses

Front 71

Refractometry is the clinical procedure for determining a patients

Back 71

refractive error

Front 72

The determination of a patients refractive error through retinoscopy is

Back 72

objective

Front 73

Cycloplegic refraction is a procedure which paralyzes the eyes

Back 73

accommodative ability

Front 74

The pantoscopic angle of an eyeglass frame on the face is best estimated by viewing the eyeglasses from the

Back 74

side

Front 75

Interpupillary distance is measured by a

a) lensometer

b) laser interferometer

c) Geneva lens clock

d) pupillometer

Back 75

d) pupillometer

Front 76

The following all represent a type of bifocal spectacle lens EXCEPT

a) cement

b) ultex

c) mono lens

d) kryptok

Back 76

c) mono lens

Front 77

The image below is a

Back 77

phoropter

Front 78

A Schirmer test measures the patients

Back 78

tear output

Front 79

If upon examination, the anterior chamber appears shallow, the patient may be

Back 79

prone to narrow angle glaucoma

Front 80

The lighting system of a slit lamp biomicroscope can be adjusted to vary the

a) ocular acuity and beam length

b) beam width and angle

c) beam color and tonometer strength

d) tonometer strength and angle

Back 80

b) beam width and angle

Front 81

The slit lamp biomicroscope is most often utilized for the

Back 81

anterior segment examination of the eye

Front 82

The image below is a

Back 82

keratometer

Front 83

A brightness acuity tester (BAT) determines the effect of

a) glare on VA

b) illumination on VA

c) contrast on VA

d) color on VA

Back 83

a) glare on visual acuity

Front 84

The thickness of the cornea is measured using a

a) lensometer

b) laser interferometer

c) pachymeter

d) pupillometer

Back 84

c) pachymeter

Front 85

Tonometry refers to the measuremennt of the eyes'

Back 85

Pressure

Front 86

Responsibilities of the ophthalmic technician in the care of patients include all of the following EXCEPT

a) determining the diagnosis & resulting treatment of the disease

b) identifying factors in the patients history that may be indicative of glaucoma

c) performing tests to determine the status of the patients glaucoma

d) teaching the patient about their condition

Back 86

a) determining the diagnosis & resulting treatment of the disease

Front 87

The instrument most commonly used to measure intraocular pressure by flattening the cornea is the

a) Schiotz tonometer

b) Stein tension tonometer

c) Helmholtz applanation tonometer

d) Goldmann applanation tonometer

Back 87

Goldmann applanation tonometer

Front 88

Inaccurate pressure readings when performing indentation tonometry can be attributed to the

a) corneal curvature

b) ocular rigidity

c) crystalline lens

d) extraocular muscles

Back 88

b) ocular rigidity

Front 89

Shining a bright light into one eye normally causes both pupils to constrict equally. The pupillary reaction in the illuminated eye is called

a) indirect light reflex

b) consensual light reflex

c) direct light reflex

d) near light reflex

Back 89

c) direct light reflex

Front 90

Pupillary function is an important objective clinical sign in patients with visual field loss and neurological disease. What finding would be expected during a normal pupil exam?

a) iris color in both eyes is unequal

b) pupil size in both eyes is unequal

c) both pupils are large in dim light

d) both pupils are small in dim light

Back 90

c) both pupils are large in dim light

Front 91

The primary visual acuity test performed as part of the comprehensive ocular exam is the

a) Helmholtz test

b) Snellen acuity test

c) Schiotz tonometry test

d) Farnsworth d-15 test

Back 91

b) Snellen acuity test

Front 92

A near visual acuity test determines the ability of the of the patient to see

a) the large E at a predetermined distance

b) the large E at normal distance

c) the specified M unit at a far point

d) the card clearly at a normal distance

Back 92

d) the card clearly at a normal distance

Front 93

The following are all methods of color vision testing EXCEPT

a) Goldmann

b) Ishihara

c) Farnsworth-Munsell

d) Nagel anomaloscope

Back 93

a) Goldmann

Front 94

The ability in human vision to discern objects of relative different lightness and darkness from their surroundings is referred to as

a) individual magnification

b) visual field extent

c) contrast sensitivity

d) distance visual acuity

Back 94

c) contrast sensitivity

Front 95

The elements that convert light into electrical impulses for transmission of messages to the brain are

a) retinal elements

b) sensory receptors

c) pigment epithelium layers

d) rods and cones

Back 95

d) rods and cones

Front 96

The electro-oculogram (EOG) is a test that provides information about

a) corneal response

b) retinal response

c) crystalline lens response

d) extraocular muscle response

Back 96

b) retinal response

Front 97

The partial or complete blindness within a normal visual field is known as

a) confrontation field

b) diplopia

c) hemianopia

d) scotoma

Back 97

d) scotoma

Front 98

The condition in a visual field in which the right half or left half of the field is missing is referred to as a

a) perimetry cone

b) semi-hemisphere

c) hemianopsia

d) macropia

Back 98

c) hemianopsia

Front 99

The test that is used to determine if a patient may be suffering from age related macular degeneration is the

a) Amsler grid check

b) Entropic test

c) Four-Prism Diopter test

d) Fournier analysis

Back 99

a) amsler grid check

Front 100

Which is not a valid visual field test?

a) Confrontation field

b) Tangent screen

c) Exophthalmometry

d) Goldmann perimeter

Back 100

c) Exophthalmometry

Front 101

While performing an automated visual field test, your patient has 2 or more false negatives. The best course of action is:

a) make sure the fellow eye is patched properly

b) let the patient take a break

c) Remind the patient to only look at the fixation light

d) Increase the stimulus size

Back 101

b) let the patient take a break

Front 102

As you are instructing a patient how to take an automated visual field test; the patient states they cannot see the fixation light. Your next step would be:

a) tape the patients upper eye lid

b) increase the stimulus size

c) change the fixation target to a diamond

d) Remove the patch from the fellow eye

Back 102

c) change the fixation target to a diamond

Front 103

Which of the following instructions are important to tell patients when performing an automated visual field test?

a) tell me when you see a light

b) push the button when you see very bright lights

c) do not blink during the test

d) push the button when you see any light

e) be sure not to miss any lights

Back 103

d) push the button when you see any light

Front 104

A patient doesn't push the response button when a light is a present to him during automated visual field. A light is again presented to the patient in the same point of the visual field only this time its a brighter light. This is an example of:

a) kinetic visual field testing

b) Threshold visual field testing

c) False negatives

d) Fixation loss

Back 104

b) Threshold visual field testing

Front 105

A patient responds to a light that is presented where the visual field machine has already determined his blind spot is. This is an example of

a) a false negative

b) Kinetic visual field testing

c) Threshold visual field testing

d) A fixation loss

Back 105

d) a fixation loss

Front 106

A patient who is performing an automated visual field test has multiple fixation losses and false positives. This is likely due to

a) anxiety

b) fatigue

c) a dense visual field defect

d) a lens rim artifact

Back 106

a) anxiety

Front 107

If an automated visual field machine cannot locate the patients blind spot the best course of action is to

a) repeat the "blind spot check"

b) Make sure the fellow eye is properly patched

c) reinstruct the patient

d) all of the above

Back 107

d) all of the above

Front 108

When performing kinetic visual field testing its important to

a) move the stimulus quickly

b) move the stimulus from a non seeing area to a seeing area

c) instruct the patient to be certain the stimulus is present before responding

d) map the nasal field first

Back 108

b) move the stimulus from a non seeing area to a seeing area

Front 109

The main difference between static and kinetic visual field testing is

a) one is automated ant the other is manual

b) one tests only the central 10 degrees of VF while the other tests the central 30 degrees of VF

c) One is performed with a moving stimulus and the other with a stationary stimulus

d) once is considered a gross assessment of the VF and the other is a formal method of VF testing

Back 109

c) One is performed with a moving stimulus and the other with a stationary stimulus

Front 110

Which of the following tests only the central 20 degrees of VF?

a) Ptosis Visual Field

b) Amsler grid

c) Confrontation field

d) Threshold Visual Field

Back 110

b) amsler grid

Front 111

When performing Confrontation VF testing it is important to define a VF defects boundaries by vertical and horizontal markers because

a) it indicates how dense the defect is

b) it ensures there are no artifacts

c) it can indicate or rule out neurologic causes

d) it helps the doctor determine whether the patient needs glaucoma drops or surgery

Back 111

c) it can indicate or rule out neurologic causes

Front 112

The extent of vision beyond the central fixation point is the

a) binocular field

b) visual field

c) neurological field

d) pathway of light

Back 112

b) visual field

Front 113

The peripheral vision of a normal person is

a) 60 degrees temporal, 60 degrees inferior, 75 degrees nasal, 95 degrees superior

b) 75 degrees temporal, 60 degrees inferior, 95 degrees, 60 degrees superior

c) 95 temporal, 60 inferior, 75 nasal, 60 superior

d) 95 temporal, 75 inferior, 60 nasal, 60 superior

Back 113

d) 95 degrees temporal, 75 degrees inferior, 60 degrees nasal, 60 degrees superior

Front 114

The configuration of the normal visual field is delimited by

a) the ear and nasal bridge

b) the brow and nose

c) the location of the fovea

d) the size of the optic nerve

Back 114

b) the brow and nose

Front 115

The key to performing any type of peripheral vision exam is to have the patient

a) maintain fixation

b) look at the moving target

c) gaze into all four quadrants

d) the size of the optic nerve

Back 115

a) maintain fixation

Front 116

An object on the patients right will be perceived by the patients

a) temporal retina OU

b) nasal retina OU

c) temporal retina OS and nasal retina OD

d) foveae OU

Back 116

c) temporal retina OS and nasal retina OD

Front 117

The anatomic pattern of the nerve fibers produces visual field defects

a) that are total blind spots

b) that correspond to the location of the rods and cones

c) that correspond to the location of the nerve fibers

d) that respond well to treatment

Back 117

c) that correspond to the location of the nerve fibers

Front 118

The "blind spot" as plotted on a visual field test corresponds to

a) the macula

b) the fovea

c) the optic disc

d) the angle

Back 118

c) optic disc

Front 119

On the VF, the average blind spot is located

a) 25 degrees temporal to fixation

b) 5 degrees nasal to fixation

c) 15 degrees nasal to fixation

d) 15 degrees temporal to fixation

Back 119

d) 15 degrees temporal to fixation

Front 120

Visual nerve fibers terminate at the

a) brain stem

b) occipital cortex

c) thalamus

d) pituitary

Back 120

b) occipital cortex

Front 121

Conversion of the VF map into a three dimensional representation results in

a) isopters

b) the island of vision profile

c) a comprehensive analysis

d) threshold gray tone analysis

Back 121

b) the island of vision profile

Front 122

The peak of the island of vision profile corresponds to the

a) optic nerve

b) center of the crystalline lens

c) nerve fiber layer

d) fovea

Back 122

d) fovea

Front 123

The blind spot would be represented on the island of vision profile as

a) a bottomless hole

b) a peak

c) a shallow dip

d) a deep pit

Back 123

a) a bottomless hole

Front 124

In the island of vision analogy, vision exists

a) a sea of blindness

b) a sea of vision

c) an expanse of vision

d) a time space continuum

Back 124

a) a sea of blindness

Front 125

The validity of all visual field testing depends on

a) the technical skill of the operator

b) the patients ability to maintain fixation

c) the complexity of the screening program

d) the illumination capabilities of the technique used

Back 125

b) the patients ability to maintain fixation

Front 126

The amsler grid is used to document visual field defects

a) within the central 30 degrees

b) within the central 20 degrees

c) within the central 10 degrees

d) from 30 degrees outward

Back 126

b) within the central 20 degrees

Front 127

All of the following warrant an amsler grid EXCEPT

a) the patient with macular degeneration

b) the patient complaining of a central blot in the vision

c) the patient complaining that letters are distorted when reading

d) the patient with a pituitary tumor

Back 127

d) the patient with a pituitary tumor

Front 128

When checking a patient with the amsler grid, it is important to do all of the following EXCEPT

a) cover one eye at a time

b) use good reading light

c) have the patient use his or her regular reading glasses

d) hold the chart 1 meter away

Back 128

d) hold the chart 1 meter away

Front 129

When checking a patient with the amsler grid, he or she is told to

a) look at the upper left corner

b) look at the lower right corner

c) look at the center dot

d) look at the bottom center

Back 129

c) look at the center dot

Front 130

When checking a patient with the amsler grid, it is helpful to tell the patient

a) not to touch the grid because the oils form the skin will mar it

b) to outline any missing or distorted area with a pencil

c) that the test is not conclusive

d) that the test is not very accurate

Back 130

b) to outline any missing or distorted area with a pencil

Front 131

Each of the following is an advantage of the Amsler grid EXCEPT

a) it is useful for bedridden patient exams

b) most people easily understand it

c) it is handy for home use by the patient

d) it is useful in monitoring field loss in glaucoma

Back 131

d) it is useful in monitoring field loss in glaucoma

Front 132

Each of the following is a standard question to ask when performing an amsler grid check EXCEPT

a) "Are you aware of the page beyond the grid"

b) "Are all the lines straight and square"

c) "Are you aware of all four corners of the grid"

d) "Is any part of the grid missing"

Back 132

a) "Are you aware of the page beyond the grid"

Front 133

You are assisting the physician during screening eye exams at a nursing home with minimal equipment. To check a patient peripheral vision, you will most likely perform

a) tangent screen

b) confrontation visual field

c) Goldmann visual field

d) automated visual field

Back 133

b) confrontation visual field

Front 134

What is the given assumption in confrontation field testing?

a) the patient has 20/20 vision

b) the fields are tested in the central area

c) the examiners field is normal

d) the procedure is fully qualitative

Back 134

c) the examiners field is normal

Front 135

The confrontation field

a) requires the use of elaborate equipment

b) will not pick up gross visual field defects

c) can be performed on a patient in any position

d) cannot be performed on children

Back 135

c) can be performed on a patient in any position

Front 136

Which of the following is NOT true regarding the confrontation visual field test

a) it is a subjective test

b) only the examiners fingers should be used as a target

c) the eye not being tested is occluded

d) a defect can be either described in words or drawn out in the chart

Back 136

b) only the examiners fingers should be used as a target

Front 137

In the standard version of confrontation field testing, one tests the patients peripheral vision

a) in the standard positions of gaze

b) in the center of fixation

c) in the four quadrants

d) superiorly and inferiorly

Back 137

c) in the four quadrants

Front 138

Constricted

Back 138

field is moved inward from expected normal

Front 139

Fixation

Back 139

the central point at which the patient looks during testing

Front 140

Infrathreshold

Back 140

a stimulus that is too small or too dim to be seen

Front 141

Meridians

Back 141

diameter lines designated in degrees

Front 142

Scotoma

Back 142

internal area where threshold is not seen

Front 143

step

Back 143

constriction, sometimes very sharp, along the 180 degree meridian

Front 144

suprathreshold

Back 144

a stimulus that exceeds threshold and is seen more than 50% of the time

Front 145

threshold

Back 145

point where a stimulus is seen 50% of the time

Front 146

Maintenance measures for automated perimeters include all of the following EXCEPT

a) a surge protector for the electrical outlet

b) initializing (formatting) the hard drive once a week

c) replacing ink and paper when indicated

d) covering the instrument when not in use

Back 146

b) initializing (formatting) the hard drive once a week

Front 147

Abrasions or marks on the perimeter bowl surface may be treated by

a) touching up with correction liquid

b) covering with white nylon tape

c) touching up with white enamel paint

d) a new manufacturer applied coating

Back 147

d) a new manufacturer applied coating

Front 148

At the beginning of each day before using an automated perimeter
a) the background reflectance must be calibrated

b) the stimulus illumination must be calibrated

c) the technician should run a diagnostic test

d) check the amount of printer paper in the machine

Back 148

d) check the amount of printer paper in the machine

Front 149

Regarding data entry on an automated perimeter

a) one may use all the data from a previous test

b) the computer automatically makes changes from one test to another

c) the computer automatically saves displayed data, even if the machine is shut off

d) it must be entered in the prescribed manner or the computer will not find it later

Back 149

d) it must be entered in the prescribed manner or the computer will not find it

Front 150

All of the following are true regarding the floppy disks used in an automated perimeter EXCEPT

a) they are sensitive to magnetic fields

b) they should be left in the computer at all times

c) an extra copy should be stored apart from the testing site

d) a log book should be kept to cross reference files

Back 150

b) they should be left in the computer at all times

Front 151

Before starting automated visual fields, it is a good idea to perform a confrontation field on the patient. In addition to providing the examiner general info about possible defects it also serves to:

a) locate the blind spot

b) educate the patient about fixation and response

c) quantitate possible defects

d) evaluate the patients visual acuity

Back 151

b) educate the patient about fixation and response

Front 152

The best type of lens to use for the near add during automated perimetry is:

a) the patient own glasses

b) a lens from any trial lens set

c) sphere only

d) a lens with a thin rim

Back 152

a lens with a thin rim

Front 153

Calculation of the add for automated perimetry includes the factors of

a) full distance correction and age related add

b) full distance correction and habitual add

c) full distance correction, age related add and bowl depth

d) full distance correction and a 30 cm bowl depth

Back 153

c) full distance correction, age related add and bowl depth

Front 154

The trial lenses should be placed

a) with the sphere closest to the eye and as close to the eye as possible

b) with the cylinder closet tot the eye and as close to the eye as possible

c) with the sphere closet to the eye at the patient habitual vertex distance

d) with the cylinder closest to the eye at the patients habitual vertex distance

Back 154

a) with the sphere closest to the eye and as close to the eye as possible

Front 155

The trial lens is used when testing
a) the entire visual field

b) the central 30 degrees

c) the central 40 degrees

d) the peripheral field

Back 155

b) the central 30 degrees

Front 156

The smallest size pupil diameter for adquate mapping of the periphery is

a) 0.5 to 1.5 mm

b) 2.5 to 3.0 mm

c) 3.5 to 5.0 mm

d) 6.0 to 7.0 mm

Back 156

b) 2.5 to 3.0 mm

Front 157

Occlusion of the eye not being tested for visual fields is best done by

a) having the patient close his eye

b) the patients hand

c) a piece of tape running from upper to lower lid

d) a pirate patch that can be disinfected

Back 157

d) a pirate patch that can be disinfected

Front 158

The visual field patient should be told all of the following EXCEPT

a) you will not see every light

b) some of the lights will be dimmer or smaller than others

c) be sure to look at the light once you see it

d) press the button as soon as you are aware of the light

Back 158

c) be sure to look at the light once you see it

Front 159

The visual field patient should be positioned so that he

a) is not leaning forward at all

b) is on an eye level with the fixation target

c) has his chin jutted forward as far as possible

d) has his forehead tilted forward as far as possible

Back 159

b) is on an eye level with the fixation target

Front 160

What is the best way for a visual field patient who is physically unable to push the buzzer button with the thumb to indicate his response

a) the test cannot be done

b) have him push the upside down buzzer against the tabletop

c) have him give a verbal response

d) have him nod when the stimulus is seen

Back 160

b) have him push the upside down buzzer against the tabletop

Front 161

A patient who has an upper blepharoplasty has been treated for

a) chalazion

b) epicanthal folds

c) dermatochalasis

d) brow ptosis

Back 161

c) dermatochalasis

Front 162

Ptosis surgery is done to repair which of the following?

a) strabismus

b) drooping upper lid

c) lax lower lid

d) redundant skin and fat

Back 162

b) drooping upper lid

Front 163

The procedure for removing a growth from the eyelid is

a) excision

b) incision

c) decompression

d) biopsy

Back 163

a) excision

Front 164

The most common surgical treatment for chalazion is

Back 164

incise and drain

Front 165

A patient wants to have an upper blepharoplasty to improve his looks. This type of procedure is

Back 165

cosmetic

Front 166

The main purpose of a biopsy is

Back 166

determine the type of lesion

Front 167

The surgical procedure where skin or other tissue is transplanted from one part of the body to another is

Back 167

graft

Front 168

The surgery to fix an in-turned eyelid is

Back 168

entropian repair

Front 169

The surgery to fix an out-turned eyelid is

Back 169

ectropian repair

Front 170

When repairing a lower lid laceration in the punctum, tissue alignment is especially critical because

Back 170

the lacrimal drainage system is involved

Front 171

An infant with a blocked nasolacrimal duct might initially need which of the following procedures

Back 171

probe and irrigation

Front 172

A patient with dry eyes might have which of the following procedures

Back 172

punctal occlusion

Front 173

The grafting of corneal tissue from one human eye to another is

Back 173

keratoplasty

Front 174

Each of the following might be associated with corneal transplant EXCEPT

a) follow up radiation treatment

b) tissue rejection

c) irregular astigmatism

d) 12 month recovery time

Back 174

a) follow up radiation treatment

Front 175

Which of the following may need to be removed because it is growing across the cornea

a) pingueculum

b) punctal plug

c) pterygium

d) xanthelasma

Back 175

c) pterygium

Front 176

Recurrent corneal erosion might be treated by

Back 176

corneal scraping

Front 177

Surgery that is performed in order to correct hyperopia, myopia, and/or astigmatism is classified as

Back 177

refractive

Front 178

The vision a patient may have after cataract surgery can be estimated with

Back 178

potential acuity meter (PAM)

Front 179

Post op cataract surgery vision might not be substantially improved in a patient with

Back 179

macular degeneration

Front 180

A pre op BSCAN might be required in which cataract patient

Back 180

extremely dense cataract

Front 181

Prior to cataract surgery, an ASCAN is used to

Back 181

measure the length of the eye

Front 182

Specular microscopy (cell count) might be needed prior to cataract surgery if the patient has

Back 182

corneal dystrophy

Front 183

Which gives the most accurate idea of a cataract patients visual disability

Back 183

BAT

Front 184

A cataract is often removed when

Back 184

the patient notes impairment of daily living

Front 185

Pre op cataract surgery measurement of a patients corneal curvature is known as

Back 185

keratometry (K reading)

Front 186

Each of following is used in IOL implant calculation EXCEPT

a) K Reading

b) desired post op refraction

c) A scan

d) intraocular pressure

Back 186

d) intraocular pressure

Front 187

Medications of concern for the pre op patient include all of the following EXCEPT

a) those containing aspirin

b) those for erectile dysfunction

c) estrogen based hormones

d) blood thinners

Back 187

c) estrogen based hormones

Front 188

Your patient wants to know if she will have stitches in her eye after cataract surgery. You tell her

Back 188

"no, unless something changes during surgery"

Front 189

Currently, the most commonly used type of anesthesia for cataract surgery is

Back 189

topical

Front 190

Reducing a cataract into small pieces by use of ultrasonic energy is termed

Back 190

phacoemulsification

Front 191

Your patient asks if he will still need glasses after surgery. You tell him

Back 191

"probably, just to fine tune either distance or near vision"

Front 192

Which of the following are general restrictions immediately following cataract surgery

Back 192

do not bend over or lift anything heavy

Front 193

Symptoms of a posterior subcapsular opacity

Back 193

mimic those of a cataract

Front 194

The term "secondary cataract" is a misnomer because

Back 194

once removed, a cataract cannot grow back

Front 195

A posterior capsule opacity is treated by performing a

Back 195

laser capsulotomy

Front 196

Insertion of a phakic IOL would be done for the purpose of

Back 196

correction of refractive error

Front 197

In which of the following surgical procedures might a drainage implant be placed in the eye

Back 197

glaucoma surgery

Front 198

The aim of most types of glaucoma surgery is to

Back 198

increase aqueous outflow

Front 199

Laser treatment for primary/chronic open angle glaucoma is

Back 199

trabeculoplasty

Front 200

A surgically created, conjunctiva covered, external opening through which aqueous can drain is a

Back 200

bleb

Front 201

Modifying Factors, Context and Quality are all components of

Back 201

History of Present Illness

Front 202

A patient tells you he smokes cigarettes. Where would you enter this information?

Back 202

social history

Front 203

You are elicting a chief complaint from a patient who complains of a headache. Which of the following questions should you ask him?

a) Location?

b) Distance or near?

c) Any new floaters?

d) Any discharge?

Back 203

Location

Front 204

While assessing the patients pupil size in ambient lighting, you notice the pupils alternately become larger and smaller then larger again under steady illumination. this is

Back 204

normal

Front 205

Normal pupils

a) are > 1mm different in size

b) may have a latent response in one eye and brisk response in the other

c) are different sizes in the dark and light

d) dilate when a light is shined in them

Back 205

c) are different sizes in the dark and light

Front 206

The amount of constriction and redilation of a pupil depends on

Back 206

the amount of ambient room light and the brightness of the test

Front 207

Accomodation, Covergence and Pupillary constriction are evidence of

Back 207

the near reflex

Front 208

An Afferent Pupillary Defect

Back 208

can be detected with only one reactive pupil

Front 209

Afferent Pupillary Defects can occur in

Back 209

optic neuritis

Front 210

Anisocoria without ptosis suggests

Back 210

Adie's pupil

Front 211

IOL Master Keratometry

Back 211

is more accurate than a traditional keratometer

Front 212

K readings of 42.75/45.25 x 180 indicate

Back 212

2.5 D of astigmatism

Front 213

With the Rule Astigmatism

Back 213

Occurs when the vertical K is steeper than horizontal K

Front 214

Assuming the diameter remains unchanged, the smaller the Base Curve, the

Back 214

Lower the sagittal height of the contact lens and the steeper the lens

Front 215

If the radius of the contact lens is same but the diameter is increased

Back 215

the lens becomes steeper

Front 216

A toric contact lens has

Back 216

scribe marks

Front 217

An ultrasonic transducer measures

Back 217

contact lens thickness, contact lens height and contact lens base curve

Front 218

Contact lens spherical aberration can be measured by

Back 218

wavefront aberrometry

Front 219

All of the following are important for contact lens wearers EXCEPT

a) that they have instruction or insertion and removal

b) That they have regular eye exam

c) That they do not have cataracts

d) That they do not have significant lid or lid margin dissease

Back 219

That they do not have cataracts

Front 220

You are working up a contact lens patient. Which of these questions is the most important to ask?

a) Do you have headaches?

b) Do you have a family history of contact lens problems?

c) Do you sleep in your contact lens?

d) Do you have double vision?

Back 220

Do you sleep in your contact lens?

Front 221

Which of these components is a routine part of a contact lens work up?

a) BAT

b) over refraction

c) PAM

d) Cyclo refraction

Back 221

Over refraction

Front 222

Why is it important to assess contact lens centration and movement?

Back 222

To keep the cornea healthy and the patient comfortable

Front 223

A contact lens that is too tight will

Back 223

center well, be comfortable, and cause the vision to fluctuate with blink

Front 224

The taco test should be performed

a) before inserting the rigid gas permeable contact lens

b) after inserting the soft contact lens

c) during the contact lens wear

d) none of the above

Back 224

none of the above

Front 225

The patient should look ______ when inserting a soft contact lens

Back 225

UP

Front 226

How does a patient center a soft contact lens after insertion?

Back 226

by blinking

Front 227

The best way to remove a soft contact lens is

Back 227

with ones thumb and index finger

Front 228

A rigid gas permeable lens

Back 228

should be inserted before applying makeup

Front 229

The main goal of counseling a patient regarding contact lens care is to

Back 229

Keep the lenses free of microbes

Front 230

What is the most important step in disinfecting contact lenses?

Back 230

Rubbing with a cleaner

Front 231

An advantage of Multi Purpose Solution is

Back 231

Its convenient and readily available

Front 232

Hydrogen Peroxide Disinfection Systems

Back 232

Are preservative free after neutralization

Front 233

Before beginning manual lensometry its important to

Back 233

focus the eyepiece

Front 234

Equipment made of metal, plastic or vinyl should be cleaned by

Back 234

A soft cloth, either dry or one that has been sprayed with a small amount of cleaning solution

Front 235

To clean corrosion off a bulb contacts use

Back 235

An eraser

Front 236

Whats the best way to grasp a bulb?

Back 236

With a lens cloth or rubber bulb

Front 237

To place the Snellen Eye Chart at the correct distance for 10' chart you must

Back 237

Measure the distance from the chart to the patient to equal 10'

Front 238

What line on the Snellen eye chart is used to calibrate a projector

Back 238

20/200

Front 239

Projector slides are cleaned

Back 239

With a clean, dry, lint free cloth

Front 240

Cross Cylinders should be

Back 240

Cleaned with a damp cloth

Front 241

Alcohol should be used to clean

Back 241

Face shields of the autorefractor

Front 242

Phoropters should be serviced and cleaned every

Back 242

1 year

Front 243

Your auto refractor malfunctions. Your best course of action is to

Back 243

Call the manufacturer for service

Front 244

A bulb in a Welch-Allyn Transilluminator or Retinoscope can be removed by

Back 244

Using a screw driver and gently flipping the bulb out

Front 245

When changing a bulb on a Copeland Instrument handle one should never

Back 245

twist the lamp

Front 246

Lensmeter marking pens should be cleaned with

Back 246

alcohol

Front 247

The life of a slit lamp bulb can be extended by

Back 247

using the lowest voltage and turning it off when not in use

Front 248

Diagnostic lenses should be disinfected by any of the following methods or disinfectants EXCEPT

a) alcohol

b) bleach solution

c) Hydrogen Peroxide

d) Autoclave

Back 248

autoclave

Front 249

LASER lenses that DO NOT touch the eye may be disinfected by any of the following methods EXCEPT

a) 4:1 solution of alcohol

b) 1:1 solution of alcohol and ammonia

c) autoclave

Back 249

autoclave

Front 250

Which of the following disinfection/sterilization methods may be used on a LASER lens that DOES touch the eye?

Back 250

Ethylene Oxide gas

Front 251

The sliding platform on a manual keratometer needs

Back 251

No maintenance

Front 252

Pachymeters can be sterilized by

Back 252

Ethylene Oxide Gas

Front 253

Automated Visual Field Machines should have their disk drives cleaned at least

Back 253

three times a year

Front 254

An Automated Visual Field Machines disk drive cleaner should be moistened with

Back 254

alchohol

Front 255

When a medical practice "Accepts Medicare Assignment" they

Back 255

Agree not to charge the patient more than the Medicare allowable

Front 256

- 24 is an example of

Back 256

a modifier

Front 257

"Medication", "Activity", "Light" are examples of what component of the HPI?

Back 257

Modifying factors

Front 258

CPT Eye Codes are

Back 258

Have 2 levels - comprehensive and intermediate

Front 259

The primary diagnosis must correlate to the

Back 259

Patients chief complaint or past ocular history

Front 260

HIPAA's main purpose is to

Back 260

Protect the patients privacy

Front 261

HIPAA allows all of the following EXCEPT

a) Providers to release all medical records to those who produce a HIPAA compliant medical records release

b) Protected Health Information to be released to other medical providers without a HIPAA release if the purpose is to coordinate care for the patient

c) Incidental release of PHI to authorized Business Associates

d) A patient to request addendums or corrections to their medical record

Back 261

Providers to release all medical records to those who produce a HIPAA compliant medical records release

Front 262

HIPAA requires

a) that electronic date be encrypted

b) That the government and patients be notified if there is a security breach

c) Gives patients the right to request corrections to their medical record

d) all of the above

Back 262

all of the above

Front 263

The main purpose of the Informed Consent Process is to

Back 263

to verify that patients have been fully informed of available treatment options including their potential dangers

Front 264

All of the following are responsibilities of a scribe EXCEPT

a) witnessing documents

b) documenting exam findings

c) interpreting reports

d) explaining instructions to patients

Back 264

Interpreting reports

Front 265

All of the following are requirements of OSHA EXCEPT

a) Medical testing, treatment and counseling following an exposure incident

b) Ongoing training

c) Emergency preparedness training

d) Hepatitis A vaccines at no charge

Back 265

Hepatitis A vaccines at no charge

Front 266

Risks and complications must be included in

Back 266

Informed consent

Front 267

A patients surgical site skin must be made _____ prior to surgery

Back 267

surgically clean

Front 268

HIPAA requires that a medical practice

Back 268

Keep a record of patients PHI disclosures

Front 269

A patient calls the office stating her vision is blurry after she instilled her medication. She is using Cosopt glaucoma drops, Pred Forte solution, and Tobradex ointment. Which is the likeliest cause of her blurred vision?

Back 269

Tobradex ointment

Front 270

Drugs in suspension form must be

Back 270

shaken before instilled

Front 271

Quiet Eyelid Closure is useful

Back 271

For keeping drops from draining into the Nasolacrimal duct

Front 272

Eye ointments are typically instilled

Back 272

qhs

Front 273

Atropine and Homatropine are examples

Back 273

Cycloplegics

Front 274

Neptazane and Diamox are examples of

a) sulfa drugs

b) oral medications

c) carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

d) all of the above

Back 274

all of the above

Front 275

Carbonic Anhydrase inhibitors should be used in caution with

Back 275

Kidney or liver disease

Front 276

Anti Inflammatory eye medications are administered as

Back 276

eye drops, oral pills and injectables

Front 277

One of the Risks of prolonged Nevanac use is

Back 277

increased IOP

Front 278

Eye drops and drugs that end in the suffix "-ol" are usually

Back 278

Beta blockers

Front 279

The generic for Betagan is

Back 279

Levobunolol

Front 280

Beta blockers should not be used or used with caution in patients with

Back 280

depression, asthma, bradycardia, COPD

Front 281

Restasis works by

Back 281

Increasing tear production

Front 282

Prior to the ophthalmologist removing an embedded foreign body the patient should have

Back 282

Several drops of Proparacaine or Tetracaine 1 min apart

Front 283

The more inflammation an eye has

Back 283

The more anesthetic it requires

Front 284

If a fluorescein sodium dropper touches any surface or object the best course of action is to

Back 284

Replace the contaminated dropper with a sterile one then insert in bottle

Front 285

A patient is undergoing fluorescein angiogram. You should watch the patient for

Back 285

difficulty breathing and itching

Front 286

All of the following types of Nystagmus are abnormal EXCEPT

a) Optokinetic

b) Torsional

c) Jerk

d) Pendular

Back 286

Optokinetic

Front 287

The deficit caused by a Cranial Nerve Palsy

a) varies depending which nerve is involved

b) can be caused by disease or trauma

c) can cause abnormal pupillary response

d) can cause dioplopia

e) all of the above

Back 287

all of the above

Front 288

Binocular diplopia occurs

Back 288

if a patient has ocular misalignment

Front 289

Simultaneous movement of both eyes in the opposite direction is termed

Back 289

Vergences

Front 290

When the right eye adducts it is looking

Back 290

left

Front 291

A phoria is

Back 291

normal

Front 292

A left exotropia is characterized by the left eye being deviated

Back 292

left

Front 293

When performing the cover/uncover test the examiner should

Back 293

look at the uncovered eye

Front 294

The cross cover test is used to detect

Back 294

a phoria

Front 295

Accommodative Esotropia occurs due to

Back 295

the eyes requiring an extraordinary amount of accommodation

Front 296

Causes of Cranial nerve palsies include

Back 296

head trauma, basilar artery insufficiency, stroke, giant cell arteritis

Front 297

What instruments or supplies control bleeding?

Back 297

Cautery, gauze sponges and hemostat

Front 298

Which of the following instruments would be used to excise a growth on an eyelid?

a) Toothed forceps

b) speculum

c) punctal dilator

d) hemostat

Back 298

toothed foreceps

Front 299

Which has a wider/larger needle?

a) 30 g needle

b) 25 g needle

Back 299

b) 25 g

Front 300

The sterile field in an operating room includes

Back 300

The surgeon and the sterile assistant from chest to sterile field in the front form gloved fingers to 2" above elbows

Front 301

A 19 gauge cannula is _____ than a 30g cannula

Back 301

larger

Front 302

When drawing up medications its important to

Back 302

wipe the top with an alcohol wipe first

Front 303

LASER is an acronym for

Back 303

Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation

Front 304

The main difference in LASIK and PRK is

Back 304

LASIK uses a blade or cutting LASER and PRK does not

Front 305

A YAG LASER is used to

Back 305

clear posterior capsule opacification

Front 306

What color LASER light is absorbed by blood vessels

Back 306

Blue- green

Front 307

Which laser can be used to perform peripheral iridotomy?

Back 307

ALT and YAG

Front 308

Lucentis and Avastin are examples of

Back 308

Injectable drugs used to treat the retina

Front 309

The lacrimal gland is located

Back 309

just below the eye brow

Front 310

Aqueous fluid forms in the _______ and exits through the ________.

Back 310

Ciliary process , aqueous veins

Front 311

Rods and cones are responsible for

Back 311

Fishing and ice cream (J/K!) :)

seeing in dim light and seeing colors

Front 312

Causes of deficiency includes

Back 312

optic nerve disease, congenital causes, retinal diseases

Front 313

A trichromat

Back 313

has normal color vision

Front 314

The optic nerve is protected by

Back 314

layers of fat and muscles

Front 315

Corneal edema can be caused by

Back 315

infection, corneal scar or inflammation

Front 316

Which disorder causes the eyes to have incomplete closure with blink?

Back 316

lagophthalmos

Front 317

Which amblyopia its important to

Back 317

begin treatment at an early age

Front 318

Patients with a new onset of floaters or flashes in one eye should be seen for dilated exam within

Back 318

24 hours

Front 319

Sudden temporary vision loss and an emboli in the retinal vascularature can be a warning sign of

Back 319

a stroke

Front 320

The portion of the retina responsible for fine detail and central vision is the

Back 320

fovea

Front 321

Optic neuritis is often associated with

Back 321

multiple sclerosis

Front 322

Which of the following is an autoimmune disease?

a) myasthenia gravis

b) systemic lupus erythrematosus

c) sarcoidosis

d) rheumatoid arthritis

e) all of the above

Back 322

all of the above

Front 323

Histoplasmosis is a fungal infection frequently found in spores from soil found in

Back 323

the Mississippi River Valley

Front 324

Syphillis can cause

Back 324

pupillary defects, uveitis, optic nerve defects, blindness

Front 325

A surgical patient calls with a problem in their post op eye. You should

Back 325

give them a priority appointment---working them into the schedule asap

Front 326

A patient collapses. The first thing to do is

Back 326

check for responsiveness

Front 327

For Adults, children and infants CPR should be performed

Back 327

CAB: Chest compressions, airway, breathing

Front 328

CPR chest compressions should be performed

Back 328

hard and fast in the center of the chest

Front 329

When checking blood pressure, systolic pressure is indicated by

Back 329

the first moment the heart beat is heard

Front 330

When completing FAA forms

Back 330

always refract the pilot

Front 331

Macro mode on a camera is indicated by

Back 331

flower

Front 332

The purpose of A scan biometry is to

Back 332

measure the length of the eye for lens implant calculations

Front 333

Corneal topography is used for

Back 333

contact lens fitting

Front 334

Nerve fiber analyzers such as the GDX and HRT use

Back 334

LASER technology

Front 335

To obtain an accurate scan with a nerve fiber analyzer one must

Back 335

correct spherical and high cylinder refractive errors

Front 336

The goal of visual acuity testing is to

Back 336

determine the smallest line of letters or figures they can correctly read

Front 337

If a patient is having trouble reading the eye chart you should

a) encourage the patient

b) make sure their lenses aren't smudged or fogged

c) make sure the patient is looking through the correct position of their multifocal lens

d) all of the above

Back 337

all of the above

Front 338

A patients best VA on the Snellen chart with their eyeglasses is 20/70. The patients best VA with their eyeglasses and a pinhole is 20/100.

What should your next action be?

Back 338

reinstruct the patient how to use the pinhole

Front 339

The Allen visual acuity chart

Back 339

measure VA as the distance at which the patient can correctly identify 3 pictures in each eye

Front 340

Which visual acuity chart is suited for a 4 year old child?

Back 340

tumbling E's

Front 341

When performing a subjective refraction its important to show more plus sphere first to

Back 341

relax the patients accommodation

Front 342

When refracting a plus cylinder phoropter

Back 342

chase the white

Front 343

A 60 year old patient who holds reading material about 16" away would likely require a reading ADD of

Back 343

+2.25

Front 344

When measuring for a reading ADD the technician should

Back 344

ensure there's an acceptable range in which the patient can hold their reading material

Front 345

A full reading RX fro the prescription

+0.50 +1.00 x 175 ADD: +2.25 is

a) +0.50 +3.25 x175

b) -1.75 +1.00 x175

c) plano +1.00 x175

d) +2.25 +1.00 x175

e) none of the above

Back 345

none of the above

Front 346

The spherical equivalent of

+0.50 +1.00 x 175

Back 346

+1.50

Front 347

Transpose the following prescription into minus cylinder

+1.00 +1.25 x 180

Back 347

+2.25 -1.25 x 090

Front 348

An axial length of 24.9 mm is

Back 348

longer than average

Front 349

It s important to perform IOL outcomes analysis because

Back 349

it helps refine the surgeons factor

Front 350

The best IOL calculation formula for an eye with an axial length of 20.8 is

Back 350

Holladay II

Front 351

AC depth can be measured with

Back 351

B scan

Front 352

When performing Goldmann tonometry on an eye with a pachymetry reading of 600 micrometers, the eye will measure

Back 352

higher than it actually is

Front 353

Rose Bengal stains

Back 353

Degenerating conjunctival and corneal cells

Front 354

Glare testing is used to evaluate patients with

Back 354

cataracts

Front 355

After disinfecting a Goldmann tonometer prism

Back 355

rinse thoroughly in running water, dry with clean soft tissue

Front 356

To ensure accurate tonometry readings

a) check tonometer calibration at set intervals

b) take tonometer out of service if they are confirmed to be >1mmHg out of calibration

c) Keep a log with tonometer serial numbers and the results of calibration checks

d) all of the above

Back 356

all of the above

Front 357

Tonometers should have their calibration checked at

Back 357

0, 20, 60

Front 358

To calibrate an electronic tonopen

Back 358

Tap the button twice and hold it upside down

Front 359

Complete destruction of all microorganisms within or about an object describes

Back 359

sterilization

Front 360

An autoclave uses

Back 360

moist heat

Front 361

The following is true about Moist Heat Sterilization

Back 361

The higher the temperature, the shorter the time required

Front 362

Cold Sterilization is also known as

Back 362

Chemical sterilization

Front 363

One of the advantages of EO gas and radiation sterilization is

Back 363

It can be used on most materials

Front 364

which of the following is true about OR time out?

a) it must be documented in the OR record

b) It cannot proceed unless the majority of those present agree on the surgical site

c) Most surgical team members must be present

d) it must involve the patient

Back 364

It must be documented in the OR record

Front 365

LASERs

a) should only be performed when the patient vision is threatened

b) should always use the highest energy setting as possible

c) can damage the eyes of personnel In the room if they are not wearing LASER safety goggles

Back 365

can damage the eyes of personnel In the room if they are not wearing LASER safety goggles

Front 366

The amount of contaminants in an OR is directly related to

a) how often the OR team bathes

b) how much of the OR team members skin is exposed

c) How much the OR team talks

d) How often the OR door is opened

e) all of the above

Back 366

all of the above

Front 367

The most common route of transmission of microorgansms in the OR is

Back 367

person to person contact

Front 368

The center of the sterile field is

Back 368

the patient

Front 369

When performing the surgical scrub

Back 369

treat the hands and fingers as if they are four sided objects

Front 370

When documenting a patient history, it is important to do all of the following EXCEPT

a) use technical terms

b) document pertinent negatives

c) keep the HPI brief and to the point

d) give details about the patients chief complaint

Back 370

use technical terms

Front 371

Which of the following is a sign

a) headache

b) flashes of light

c) vitreous opacities

d) floaters

Back 371

vitreous opacities

Front 372

Which of the following is a symptom

a) nevus

b) cataract

c) red eye

d) loss of vision

Back 372

loss of vision

Front 373

When taking a HPI its important to

Back 373

find out how long the problem has been going on

Front 374

HPI includes all of the following EXCEPT

a) quality

b) timing

c) occupation

d) associated signs and symptoms

Back 374

occupation

Front 375

The main purpose of a HPI is to

Back 375

gather pertinent information to help the doctor come to a diagnosis

Front 376

Normal pupils

Back 376

have HIPPUS

Front 377

When assessing pupils its important to

Back 377

use a bright hand light

Front 378

Heterochromia can occur

Back 378

when a metal FB enters the eye

Front 379

Ptosis and miosis on the same eye are a sign of

Back 379

Horners Syndrome

Front 380

A dilated pupil and the eye deviated down and out are signs of

Back 380

3rd cranial nerve palsy

Front 381

contact lenses

a) rest on the cornea

b) are a good option for adults with Parkinsons disease

c) should not be worn by those with astigmatism

d) Can be fit to K, steeper than K or flatter than K

Back 381

Can be fit to K, steeper than K or flatter than K

Front 382

Altering the curvature of the contact lens

Back 382

changes the refractive power of the lens

Front 383

Dry Eye Patients are best suited for which type of contact lenses?

Back 383

Silicone Hydrogel contact lenses

Front 384

Rigid gas permeable contact lenses

Back 384

provide excellent oxygen transmission

Front 385

The keratometer

a) is crucial for getting a good fit for contact lenses

b) measures the front surface of the K

c) measures the central 3 mm of the K

d) Measures in diopters or mm's

e) all of the above

Back 385

all of the above

Front 386

The refractive power of a contact lens can be measured by

Back 386

a lens caliper, a PD stick, a lensmeter

Front 387

Scribe marks indicate the contact lenses

Back 387

position of astigmatic correction

Front 388

What is the first step in determining a contact lens prescription

Back 388

perform a refraction

Front 389

What information does the doctor need to fit a contact lens

Back 389

keratometry and refraction

Front 390

One of the key factors when fitting a contact lens is to ensure

Back 390

that the lens is fit so that the cornea remains well oxygenated

Front 391

A contact lens that is too loose will

Back 391

cause the vision to fluctuate with blink

Front 392

The solution to a contact lens that is too tight is

Back 392

a flatter BC

Front 393

The taco test determines

Back 393

if the contact lens is turned right side out

Front 394

The best way to center a rigid gas permeable contact lens is

Back 394

by gently pushing it into place with ones finger

Front 395

All of the following increase the risk of infection when wearing contact lenses except

a) decreased lid movement

b) decreased eye movement

c) atmospheric pollution

d) removing contact lenses periodically

Back 395

removing contact lenses periodically

Front 396

Contact lens over wear syndrome is caused by

Back 396

not enough oxygen getting to the cornea

Front 397

Before beginning automatic lensometry its important to

Back 397

compute the cylinder power

Front 398

When using a manual lensometer and working in plus cylinder, the cylinder power is determined by

Back 398

subtracting 90 degrees from the axis

Front 399

When using a manual lensometer, the narrow lines come into focus when the drum reads -1.00. the wider lines come into focus when the drum reads +0.75. What is the cylinder power of the lens?

Back 399

+1.75

Front 400

A manual lensometer can be used to

a) neutralize rigid gas permeable contact lenses

b) measure the amount of and orientation of prism in eye glasses

c) neutralize progressive addition lenses

d) neutralize high plus lenses

e) all of the above

Back 400

all of the above

Front 401

The best way to identify a progressive add lens

Back 401

look for an imprinted number on the lens

Front 402

Rechargeable instruments should be

Back 402

recharged nightly

Front 403

Which of the following have fuses?

a) projectors

b) slit lamps

c) automatic lensometers

d) electronic equipment stands

e) all of the above

Back 403

all of the above

Front 404

If a piece of electrical equipment has no power the first course of action should be to

Back 404

check if the instrument is plugged in

Front 405

cotton tipped applicators and compressed air are best suited to clean

Back 405

crevices

Front 406

Whats the first thing to do when replacing a bulb?

Back 406

unplug the instrument and wait for the bulb to cool

Front 407

You notice an eye chart isn't a bright as it should be. A possible solution is to

a) change the bulb

b) rotate the bulb

c) clean the bulb contacts

d) realign the bulb housing

e) all of the above

Back 407

all of the above

Front 408

The letter E on the Snellen chart subtends to

a) 1 min of arc

b) 2 min of arc

c) 5 min of arc

d) 10 min of arc

Back 408

5 min of arc

Front 409

A front surface mirror

Back 409

is identified by touching a pencil tip to it - the pencil tip will touch its reflection

Front 410

Projector screens should be

Back 410

cleaned with a mild soap and water if its washable

Front 411

Trial lenses should be

Back 411

kept covered

Front 412

If you choose to clean the phoropeter lenses yourself, its important to clean the lenses in a particular order

Back 412

so you don't miss cleaning any of the lenses or repeatedly cleaning the same lens

Front 413

To clean phoropter lenses, the phoropter should be set

Back 413

"O"

Front 414

A reading rod that is stiff may need

Back 414

the bearing lubricated

Front 415

Which of the following instruments have front surface mirrors?

a) slit lamp

b) indirect ophthalmoscope

c) projector

d) a & b

Back 415

slit lamp and indirect ophthalmoscope

Front 416

Every 5 cleanings, the gliding plate on a slit lamp should be

Back 416

lubricated with WD-40

Front 417

The cone of a corneal topographer should be cleaned with

a) alcohol

b) acetone

c) hydrogen peroxide

d) cotton tip applicator soaked in dish detergent

e) none of the above

Back 417

none of the above

Front 418

Tonopens should be

a) stored in a case when not in use

b) calibrated daily

c) cleaned with alcohol on a cotton tipped applicator at the transducer tip

d) blown with compressed air at the transducer tip

e) all of the above

Back 418

all of the above

Front 419

A brightness acuity tester reflector should be cleaned with

a) alcohol

b) mild, non abrasive soap not containing lanolin or hand lotion

c) camel hair brush

d) acetone

Back 419

mild, non abrasive soap not containing lanolin

Front 420

An A scan or B scan ultrasound probe should be cleaned

Back 420

with alcohol in between patients

Front 421

92012 is an example of

Back 421

A knock of the 90s television show (JK!!) :)

A CPT code

Front 422

The global surgical period

Back 422

varies by procedure

Front 423

History, examination, and medical decision making are components of

Back 423

E & M codes

Front 424

A separate procedure note is required for

a) FB removal

b) Excision

c) punctal plugs

d) lash epilation

e) all of the above

Back 424

all of the above

Front 425

An NEMB notifies the patient that

Back 425

a service will not be covered by Medicare

Front 426

HIPAA requires that a medical practice

Back 426

keep a record of all of a patients HPI disclosures

Front 427

Conducting internal and external billing audits is a requirement of

a) HIPAA

b) Information Security and PCI Compliance

c) OSHA

d) STARK

e) none of the above

Back 427

none of the above

Front 428

Shredding of paper materials containing information is required by

Back 428

STARK and HIPAA

Front 429

Every patient is treated as if they're known to have an infectious disease and steps are taken to prevent the spread of infection. This is called

Back 429

Universal Precautions

Front 430

Which of the following is Personal Protective Equipment

a) tonopen tip covers

b) uniform

c) cotton tipped applicator

d) mask

Back 430

Mask

Front 431

All of the following are blood borne pathogens EXCEPT

a) Hepatitis A

b) Hepatitis B

c) Hepatitis C

d) HIV/AIDs

Back 431

Hepatitis A

Front 432

Which is an important safety feature on a safety needle?

Back 432

It must keep the hands behind the needle at all times

Front 433

Ointments are especially useful in

Back 433

crying children

Front 434

When instilling eye drops you should do all of the following EXCEPT

a) wash your hands first

b) pull down the lower eyelid

c) ask the patient to tilt their head back and look up

d) place the dropper tip into the conj sac

Back 434

place the dropper tip in the conj sac

Front 435

Which of these dilating drops lasts the longest?

a) tropicamide

b) cyclopentolate

c) homatropine

d) atropine

Back 435

atropine

Front 436

A patient says they are using an eye drop with a beige top. What type of drops are they using?

Back 436

antibiotic

Front 437

Which type of drop has an orange top?

Back 437

Carbonic Anhydrase inhibitor

Front 438

Topical steroids can

Back 438

Increase IOP, worsen infections, cause cataracts

Front 439

A patient with HSV would likely be prescribed

a) Trusopt

b) Viroptic

c) Prednisolone

d) I Quix

Back 439

Viroptic

Front 440

FML, Lotemax and Alrex are examples of

Back 440

anti-inflammatory/steroids

Front 441

Which of the following medications is available over the counter?

a) Maxidex

b) Alomide

c) Restasis

Back 441

Alomide

Front 442

Ocular redness, itching and conjunctival papillae are evidence of what type of conjunctivitis?

Back 442

Allergic

Front 443

Miotics should not be used in patient with

Back 443

active iritis

Front 444

A light blue colored drop top indicates the drug is a) 0.5% beta blocker

b) 0.25% beta blocker

c) beta blocker; however, the strength is not inferred by color of top

Back 444

0.25% beta blocker

Front 445

Alpha adrenergenics

a) work by decreasing the amount of aqueous produced

b) are the most likely eye drop to cause an allergic reaction

c) can cause drowsiness

d) can worsen depression

e) all of the above

Back 445

all of the above

Front 446

Prostaglandins have what color top?

Back 446

teal

Front 447

A contact lens wearer with dry eyes should

Back 447

Check the artificial tear label to see if it is compatible with contact lens use

Front 448

A patient is having a minor surgical procedure in office. He develops low blood pressure, becomes very nervous , has shallow breathing and nausea. The most likely cause is

Back 448

A side effect of the anesthetic

Front 449

If a patient faints, the best course of action is to

Back 449

put the patients head between his or her knees

Front 450

For proper fusion one must have

Back 450

good vision in both eyes

Front 451

A person with a normal VF has how many degrees of overlapping field?

Back 451

120 degrees

Front 452

There are _____ cranial nerves

Back 452

12

Front 453

Simultaneous movement of both eyes in the same direction is termed

Back 453

versions

Front 454

"Dextro-" refers to

Back 454

looking right

Front 455

Binocular diplopia can occur due to

Back 455

cranial nerve palsies

Front 456

The cover/uncover test is used to detect

Back 456

a tropia

Front 457

When performing the Cross Cover Test the examiner should

Back 457

never allow the patient to be binocular

Front 458

Sterilization is

Back 458

event based

Front 459

What is asepsis?

Back 459

the absence of micro-organisms that cause disease

Front 460

You are opening supplies in the OR for a staff member who is scrubbed in. A sterile instrument in an intact peel pack is dropped on the dry floor of the OR. Your best course of action is

Back 460

Peel the instrument package open using sterile technique and let the sterile scrub grasp the instrument.

Front 461

With LASER technology, the longer the wavelength, the

Back 461

deeper the penetration

Front 462

The type of tissue which will absorb the LASER beam depends on

Back 462

the wavelength of the LASER

Front 463

PRP laser is frequently performed on patients with

Back 463

diabetes

Front 464

Patients who have PDT laser therapy should avoid doing what for 5 days?

a) reading

b) golfing\

c) sewing

d) watching tv

Back 464

golfing

Front 465

Which muscle is responsible for squeezing the eyelids closed?

Back 465

orbicularis oculi

Front 466

Which structure is most anterior?

a) iris

b) cornea

c) anterior chamber

d) sebaceous glands

Back 466

sebaceous glands

Front 467

What structure is responsible for making the aqueous layer of the tear film?

Back 467

meibomian gland

Front 468

Wht layer of tear film is closet to the cornea

Back 468

mucous layer

Front 469

Teh outermost layer of the crystalline lens is the

Back 469

capsule

Front 470

The uveal tract is comprimised of

Back 470

iris, ciliary body, choroid

Front 471

T or F: protanopia is the most common type of color deficiency

Back 471

true

Front 472

a monochromat is defiecient in

Back 472

all pigments except one

Front 473

Hue, saturation and brightness are detected by

Back 473

cones

Front 474

The most posterior portion of the visual pathway is

Back 474

the primary visual cortex

Front 475

Redness, swelling, heat and impaired function are signs of

Back 475

inflammation

Front 476

Herpes Zoster Ophthalmicus may be treated with

a) Pred Forte

b) Famvir

c) Zymar

d) Nevanac

Back 476

Famvir

Front 477

The most common cause of chalazion or hordeolum is

Back 477

Staph aureus

Front 478

Glaucoma that is caused by trabecular meshwork which is clogged by pigment, disease or scarring is called

Back 478

secondary glaucoma

Front 479

Diabetic Retinopathy is characterized by

Back 479

retinal hemorrhages and aneurysms

Front 480

Patients with macular degeneration should monitor an

Back 480

amsler grid

Front 481

A subjective visual disturbance

a) can precede a migraine

b) is always a sign of a serious condition

c) clan be visualized by the ophthalmologist during the retinal exam

d) is associated with serious illness

Back 481

can precede a migraine

Front 482

The endocrine system is comprised of

Back 482

multiple glands that secrete hormones

Front 483

Sjogrens Syndrome is characterized by

a) ptosis an diplopia

b) inflammation in the uveal tract

c) damage to the kidneys, lungs and blood vessels

d) dry mouth and keratoconjunctivitis sicca

e) all of the above

Back 483

dry mouth and keratoconjuncivitis sicca

Front 484

ocular symptoms of sarcoidosis are treated with

Back 484

corticosteroids

Front 485

A patient has headaches, VF defect, pupillary abnormalities, and papilledema. The ophthalmologist will likely order

Back 485

an MRI or CT scan

Front 486

The most impact resisitent lenses on the market

Back 486

polycarbinate

Front 487

Frames for safety glasses must be

a) flame proof

b) made of titanium

c) flame resistant

d) at least a 54 eye size

Back 487

flame resistant

Front 488

When dealing with an irate patient its good to

Back 488

step into a private area and offer explanations, apologies and solutions

Front 489

An active toddler is in clinic for an exam. The best course of action is to

Back 489

allow them to sit on their parents lap during the exam

Front 490

A patient can read the 20/400 E by standing 10 feet from the chart. Their vision is recorded as

Back 490

10/400

Front 491

The radial pulse is felt on the

Back 491

wrist straight up from the thumb

Front 492

To take a pulse

Back 492

press gently with your middle and index finger

Front 493

A pt must sign an original insurance authorization form each office visit. T or F

Back 493

False

Front 494

A HCFA 1500 is used to

Back 494

file a claim for payment to an insurance company

Front 495

To photograph with a slit lamp

Back 495

use slit beam to show elevation

Front 496

Digital fundus cameras

a) use a very bright internal flash

b) require that the flash setting be adjusted depending on the patients pigmentation

c) are capable of taking 3D stereo photos

d) all of the above

Back 496

all of the above

Front 497

YOU ARE DOING GREAT!!! YOU'VE GOT THIS!!

Back 497

Keep studying. Keep Praying. Keep moving forward!! :)

Front 498

The axial length of the eye is measured from the

Back 498

anterior pole to the posterior pole

Front 499

Immersion and Contact A scan biometry use

Back 499

ultrasound

Front 500

IOL master

a) measures anterior chamber depth

b) requires topical anesthetic

c) requires advanced training

d) uses scanning lasers

Back 500

measures anterior chamber depth

Front 501

Optical Coherence Tomography

a) provides a cross section image of structures

b) uses echo technology

c) can image even through extremely dense media

d) measures to the micrometer

Back 501

provides a cross section image of structures

Front 502

The purpose of determining a patients best corrected vision is to

a) determine if there is eye disease present

b) to prescribe glasses or contact lenses

c) to follow the course of a known eye disease

d) all of the above

Back 502

all of the above

Front 503

To check distance vision in a pt with a progressive add lens the pt should look through

Back 503

the top portion of the lens

Front 504

A pt reads all the letters on the 20/50 line and 2 of the five letters on the 20/40 line. What is their VA?

Back 504

20/50+

Front 505

The purpose of pinhole VA is to

Back 505

estimate what their best corrected VA would be if a refraction were performed

Front 506

If a pt cannot read the 20/400 letter on the Snellen chart you should

Back 506

ask the pt to move toward the chart until he can see the letter

Front 507

A child aged 3 mos. to 24 mos. should be able to

Back 507

focus on light

Front 508

When an eye is too short and the cornea is too flat the eye will be

Back 508

hyperopic

Front 509

One advantage of using an automated refracting system is

a) its portable and easy to move

b) it can make the clinic run more efficiently

c) it is simple for staff to troubleshoot if it malfunctions

d) all of the above

Back 509

it can make the clinic run more efficiently

Front 510

In which order should manual refracting be performed?

Back 510

Sphere, cylinder axis, cylinder power, sphere refinement

Front 511

The reading add is additional

Back 511

plus sphere power

Front 512

Computer add power is usually calculated as

Back 512

1/2 the near power added to the distance power

Front 513

The glasses Rx -0.75 +2.50 x180 ADD: +2.50 indicates the pt has

a) +3.25 D astigmatism

b) +2.50 D astigmatism

c) Hyperopia

d) against the rule astigmatism

Back 513

+2.50 D astigmatism

Front 514

A rule of thumb when refracting is to______ that gives the best vision

a) give the most amount of minus sphere

b) give the most amount of plus cylinder

c) give the most amount of plus sphere

d) give the most amount of axis change

Back 514

give the most amount amount of plus sphere

Front 515

Based on population averages ,when refracting a tall person over the age of 70 you would expect they would require

a) a high ADD power and any cylinder would be oriented about 90 degrees

b) a low ADD power and any cylinder would be oriented about 90 degrees

c) a low ADD power and any cylinder would be oriented about 180 degrees

d) a high ADD power and any cylinder would be oriented about 180 degrees

Back 515

a low ADD power and any cylinder would be oriented about 180 degrees

Front 516

K reading of 43.5 D is

Back 516

average

Front 517

The optical coherence biometer

Back 517

is more accurate than the A scan

Front 518

The IOL Master should

a) be calibrated every day prior to use

b) be taken out of service if it calibrates within the tolerance range for the eye test

c) be disassembled and the fuse checked if it is not within the tolerance range for the eye test

d) all of the above

Back 518

be calibrated every day prior to use

Front 519

A Schirmer's II test

a) is performed with anesthesia

b) takes 7 minutes to perform

c) Measures lacrimal gland output

d) is abnormal if its reads 20mm

Back 519

is performed with anesthesia

Front 520

The BUT is used to check for

Back 520

dry eyes

Front 521

Ishihara and Farsnworth D-15 are examples of

Back 521

color vision tests

Front 522

You're using an electronic tonopen and the display reads "CAL". You should

Back 522

Calibrate the tonopen

Front 523

To disinfect a Goldmann tonometer prism

Back 523

soak in 3% aqueous solution of Hydrogen Peroxide for 10 min

Front 524

To disinfect a Goldmann tonometer prism one can safely use

a) UV radiation

b) acetone

c) diluted household bleach

d) none of the above

Back 524

none of the above

Front 525

When checking tonometer calibration place the longer end of the calibration bar

Back 525

toward the examiner

Front 526

Boiling as method of sterilization

Back 526

can dull sharp pointed instruments

Front 527

Dry heat as a method of sterilization

Back 527

is good for sterilizing dry goods such as gowns, gloves and drapes

Front 528

To avoid instrument staining when using an autoclave

Back 528

warm the instrument with a dry cycle first

Front 529

Cold sterilization is a good option when

a) you want to save money

b) heat would damage or destroy an instrument

c) You don't need to use the instrument for at least 20 minutes

d) all of the above

Back 529

all fo the above

Front 530

To sterilize an entire room the best method would be

Back 530

UV light

Front 531

What organism does biological monitoring use a a guage

Back 531

spores

Front 532

All of the following must be included in a LASER log EXCEPT

a) millijoules

b) # bursts

c) IOP

d) Pt's name

Back 532

IOP

Front 533

The main risk of a YAG laser is

Back 533

retinal detachment

Front 534

Before surgery the skin must be made

Back 534

surgically clean

Front 535

In the OR, sterile persons may

a) reach over a sterile field

b) move with their back to an unsterile person

c) move with their front to a sterile person

d) all of the above

Back 535

all of the above

Front 536

A draped instrument table is sterile to

Back 536

the edge of the table

Front 537

before performing surgical scrub you must do all of the following EXCEPT

a) remove all hand, wrist and arm jewelry

b) have short clean nails

c) put your mask on

d) put your gloves on

Back 537

put your gloves on

Front 538

When using the closed glove technique

a) place the glove on your hand so the fingertips of the glove point toward the wrist

b) you must be wearing a gown

c) the gloves are grasped with the cuff of the gown

d) all of the above

Back 538

all of the above

Front 539

Which of the following areas are considered sterile?

a) gowns from the should level to the level of the sterile field

b) ungloved gown cuffs

c) the sides of the draped table

d) the gown from the glove to 2" above the elbow

Back 539

the gown from the glove to 2" above the elbowWhen

Front 540

When grasping gown from a sterile field you should grab it by its

Back 540

inside the gown on the front

Front 541

Sterile and non sterile OR staff must maintain at least _____ clearance between them

Back 541

1 foot

Front 542

Used needles should be

a) recapped using passive capping

b) not recapped

c) recapped by placing the cap on with your non dominant hand

d) a or b

Back 542

recapped using passive capping or not recapped

Front 543

If you make an error in aspetic technique you shouldd

Back 543

stop what you are doing and don't touch anything until the problem is rectified

Front 544

After five minutes of performing the surgical scrub you touch the faucet with your hand. You must

Back 544

start the scrub again

Front 545

When drying off after scrubbing with aseptic technique you must

Back 545

grasp one end of the towel, dry one hand and arm then grasp the other end of the towel to dry the other hand and arm

Front 546

To prevent cross infection between patients _____ should be considered a potential for source of infection

Back 546

every patient

Front 547

Which of the following helps limit microbiologic hazards in the OR

a) installing automatic doors for the ORs

b) testing pt's for infectious diseases prior to surgery

c) testing staff for infectious diseases prior to beginning work

d) keeping the ventilation system in proper working order at all times

Back 547

keep the ventilation system in proper working order at all times

Front 548

When performing the surgical scrub

Back 548

scrub the folds in the hands and fingers

Front 549

The most common source for endophthalmitis after intraocular surgery is

Back 549

the flora from the pt's lids and lashes

Front 550

Fenestrated drapes have

Back 550

a pre cut hole in them

Front 551

When placing drapes across a pt unfold the drape

Back 551

from sterile or prepped area to nonsterile or non prepped area

Front 552

Strike through contamination occurs when

Back 552

a drape or other non waterproof sterile barrier is made wet

Front 553

When assisting the surgeon you should pass the instuments

Back 553

handle toward the surgeon so he can grasp it

Front 554

When you're sterile (gowned and gloved) which of the following is a break in aseptic technique

a) placing your hands below your waist

b) sitting on a stool

c) standing beside the operating table

d) reaching over a sterile field

Back 554

placing your hands below your waist

Front 555

It is important to keep the sterile field in view at all times

Back 555

to be sure the sterile field stays sterile

Front 556

When donning a surgical mask you should

Back 556

fit it snugly around the nose and cheeks

Front 557

The sterile field includes

a) the autoclave

b) the back table

c) the surgeons stool

d) the circulating nurse

Back 557

the back table

Front 558

A surgical assistant must have

a) a conscience

b) discipline

c) a caring demeanor

d) attention to detail

e) all of the above

Back 558

all of the above

Front 559

You should not work in the OR if you have

a) long hair

b) a beard or mustache

c) an upper respiratory infection

d) a tattoo on your hands or arms

Back 559

an upper respiratory infection

Front 560

OR personnel should wash their hands

Back 560

before and after every pt

Front 561

When getting dressed in scrubs for working in an OR personnel should put the cap on

Back 561

before the scrub top