Cdc's Part 6

Front 1

The AirForce military personnel calssification system groups related work requirements on similarity of fucntions and requirements for all of the following except

a. eduction
b. experience.
c. knowledge.
d. personal desires.

Back 1

d. personal desires.

Front 2

What functional grouping does the Air Force use to combine Air Force sepcialties (AFS) into broader and more general funtional categories?

a. Career fields.
b. General structure.
c. Utilization fields.
d. Organizational structure.

Back 2

a. Career fields.

Front 3

How does a "capper" Air Force specialty code (AFSC) differ from other AFSC's?

a. Fifth position of a Capper AFSC will alwys be a "0."
b First position of a capper AFSC will always be a "9."
c. Fifth position of all other AFSC's will always be a "9."
d. First position of all other AFSC's will always be numeric.

Back 3

a. Fifth position of a Capper AFSC will alwys be a "0."

Front 4

When classifying a member into a speccific Air Force specialty code (AFSC), which of the following factors is not taken into consideration in the Guaranteed Training Enlistment Program (GTEP)?

a. individual preference.
b. Personal qualifications.
c. Air Force requirements.
d. Assignment volunteer status.

Back 4

d. Assignment volunteer status.

Front 5

Which of the following factors is not taken into consideration when determining officer and Airmen primary Air Force specialty code (AFSC)?

a. Desires and interests of the individual.
b. Amount of formal training and education.
c. Civic and fraternal membership.
d. Complexity of specialty.

Back 5

c. Civic and fraternal membership.

Front 6

A member serving in the grade of master sergeant (MSgt) will normally not be used outside a control Air Force specialty code (CAFSC) during any 12- month period

a. while in upgrade training for award of the 5 skill level.
b. while in upgrade training for award of the 9-skill level.
c. for a period not to exceed 130 days without approval from the military personnel element (MPE) commander.
d. for a period not to exceed 240 days without approval from the MPE commander.

Back 6

c. for a period not to exceed 130 days without approval from the military personnel element (MPE) commander

Front 7

Which of the following media will the Air Force use to provide Air Force specialty code (AFSC) revisions and a detailed guidance as to what actions must be taken to military personnel elements (MPE)?

a. AFI 36-2101, Calssifying Military Personnel (Officer and Enlisted).
b. Major command (MAJCOM) semiannual revision to AFI 36-2108, Enlisted Classification.
c. Change summary and conversion guide.
d. MPE memorandums.

Back 7

c. Change summary and conversion guide.

Front 8

When conversion actions are not accomplished by the conversion effective, date military personnel elements (MPE) are authorized to award Air Force specialty code (AFSC) based on conversion instructions for how many days after the effective date?

a. 30.
b. 60.
c. 90.
d. 120.

Back 8

a. 30.

Front 9

For which of the following reasons would an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) withdrawl be appropriate?

a. Disqualificaiton for aviation service for other than medical reasons.
b. Loss of aircraft qualification.
c. Reduction in grade.
d. Medical disqualification.

Back 9

c. Reduction in grade.

Front 10

If a sneior master sergeant (SMSgt) is demoted to staff sergeant (SSgt), what action must be taken on his or her primary Air Force specialty code (AFSC) skill level?

a. None, remain as 9-skill-level.
b. Downgrade to 7-skill level.
c. Downgrade to 5-skill-level.
d. withdrawn.

Back 10

b. Downgrade to 7-skill level.

Front 11

Reporting idnetifiers (RI) are important to the personnel employment element because they identify

a. positions only.
b. personnel only.
c. conditions for which specific job descriptions are practical.
d. positions, personnel, or both not otherwise identifiable in the military classification system.

Back 11

d. positions, personnel, or both not otherwise identifiable in the military classification system.

Front 12

What type of duty does reporting identifier (RI) 9T000 indicate?

a. an Airman in basic military training.
b. Air Force specialty code (AFSC) of officers entering primary-basic pilot training.
c. An officer in the grade of brigadier general or higher.
d. AFSC of a prisoner in confinement who has not been dropped from rolls.

Back 12

a. an Airman in basic military training.

Front 13

Specialty duty idnetifiers (SDI) identify manpower postions and individuals performing duties

a. related to any specific career field.
b. unrelated to any specific career field.
c. which specific job descriptions are not practical, such as patient.
d. which special experience and training are required and coded in three characters.

Back 13

b. unrelated to any specific career field.

Front 14

How are special duty identifiers (SDI) designated in the individual's personnel records?

a. Awarded specialties.
b. Additional specialties.
c. Designated specialties.
d. Second or tertiary PDS codes.

Back 14

a. Awarded specialties.

Front 15

What action agency periodically reviews special experience idnetifiers (SEI) to determine validity and usefulness?

a. major command (MAJCOM).
b. Military Personnel Element (MPE).
c. Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC).
d. Personnel employment element (PEE).

Back 15

c. Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC).

Front 16

In concert with manpower management officials, who reviews manpower authorizations to determine if positions are coded with the appropriate special experience identifier (SEI) or if one is required?

a. Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) assignment managers.
b. Commanders and supervisors.
c. AFPC.
d. Air Force specialty code (AFSC) functional managers.

Back 16

d. Air Force specialty code (AFSC) functional managers.

Front 17

How often does the Air Force Personne Center (AFPC) update the retraining advisory?

a. Monthly.
b. Weekly.
c. Annually.
d. Continuously.

Back 17

d. Continuously.

Front 18

In which of the following databases is the retraining advisory located?

a. virtual military personnel flight (vMPF).
b. Assignment Management System. (AMS).
c. Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS).
d. Air Force Training Management System (AFTMS).

Back 18

c. Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS).

Front 19

How many months of retrainability must a first-term Airman (FTA) have or be able to obtain if his or her career Airmen Reenlistment Reservation System (CAREERS) retraining is approved?

a. 23 months beyond the normal expiration term of service (ETS).
b. 14 months beyond the normal ETS.
c. 12 months beyond the class graduation date.
d. 6 months beyond the class graduation date.

Back 19

a. 23 months beyond the normal expiration term of service (ETS).

Front 20

Which of the following is a disqualification factor for retraining?

a. Normal security clearance investigation.
b. Most recent enlisted performance report is a 3.
c. Most recent enlisted performance report is a 2.
d. Participating in phase II of the weight and body fat management program.

Back 20

c. Most recent enlisted performance report is a 2.

Front 21

Within how many days of receiving a completed retraining application, must the personnel employment element (PEE) process the application?

a. 5 calendar days.
b. 5 working days.
c. 3 calendar days.
d. 3 working days.

Back 21

b. 5 working days.

Front 22

When are retraining applications submit using supplemental messages?

a. When requesting a waiver.
b. When no special processing is required.
c. When processing a dissqualified Airman case.
d. When the requested Air Force specialty code (AFSC) requires major command (MAJCOM) review.

Back 22

b. When no special processing is required.

Front 23

Why must an individual's behavior be constantly monitored even after the individual has been judged reliable?

a. For evidence of negligence or delinquency in duty performance.
b. To detect any signs of unreliable performance before any compromise can occur.
c. For evidence of poor attitude, lack of motivation toward duties, or financial irresponsiblity.
d. To measure present performance and behavior against past performance and look for changes in behavior.

Back 23

b. To detect any signs of unreliable performance before any compromise can occur.

Front 24

Which type of certification states that a member is qualified for a projected assignment requiring personnel reliability program (PRP) duties?

a. Administrative.
b. Informal.
c. Interim
d. Formal.

Back 24

a. Administrative.

Front 25

Which of the following is not required for all personnel reliability program (PRP) certifications?

a. An interview.
b. An S-4 physical profile.
c. A current security investigation.
d. An evaluation of an individual's reliability through the use of written records.

Back 25

b. An S-4 physical profile.

Front 26

Interim certification is authorized for individual in critical positions for up to

a. 90 days and in a controlled position for up to 120 days.
b. 120 days and in a controlled position for up to 90 days.
c. 150 days and in a controlled position for up to 120 days.
d. 180 days and in contolled postion for up to 90 days.

Back 26

d. 180 days and in contolled postion for up to 90 days.

Front 27

What personnel reilability code is updated for an individual who is interim certified for a critical position after confirming with the Defense Investigative Service (DIS) that the delay of the investigation is not the result of derogatory information?

a. Code E.
b. Code I.
c. Code J.
d. Code T

Back 27

a. Code E.

Front 28

Which of the following is an action used to immediately remove a member from personnel reliablitiy program (PRP) related duties without decertification?

a. Removal.
b. Set Aside.
c. Mitigation.
d. Suspension.

Back 28

d. Suspension.

Front 29

Which of the following is not a situation for which a member in the personnel reliablitily program (PRP) must be permanent decertification?

a. For initiation of involuntary discharge action for cause.
b. For confirmed drug abuse by a PRP certified member.
c. When short-term impairment exists and suspension is not appropriate.
d. When a PRP certified member is diagnosed as suffering from alcohol abuse.

Back 29

c. When short-term impairment exists and suspension is not appropriate.

Front 30

What document is used for permanent decertification of a personnel reliability program (PRP) member when the certifying official must document the specific circumstances surrounding the decision to decertify the individual?

a. AF Form 286A.
b. DD Form 286 A.
c. Suspension document.
d. Temporary decertification.

Back 30

a. AF Form 286A.

Front 31

Which of the following would be the overseas duty selection date (ODSD) for a member who has never had an overseas assignemnt or temporary duty and who has a total active federal military service date (TAFMSD) of 4 February 2000?

a. 1 February 2000
b. 3 February 2000
c. 4 February 2000
d. 5 February 2000

Back 31

c. 4 February 2000

Front 32

The overseas duty selection date (ODSD) is used to align Airmen in a priority sequence for long overseas (OS) tour selection and for short OS tours when Airmen have

a. not completed a temporary duty.
b. completed a temporary duty.
c. not completed a prior OS short tour.
d. completed a prior OS short tour.

Back 32

c. not completed a prior OS short tour.

Front 33

How is the short tour return date (STRD) established for an Airmen who came on active duty on 2 February 2000 and has never served an overseas (OS) short tour/

a. Established to equal the OS duty selection date (ODSD).
b. The date of completion of any OS tour, regardless of tour length.
c. Established to equal the total active federal military service date (TAFMSD).
d. The date of completion of any OS long tour, provided he or she was unaccompanied.

Back 33

c. Established to equal the total active federal military service date (TAFMSD).

Front 34

IF an Airmen completes an unaccompandied tour of less than 18 months and no accompanied tour was authorized, credit the member with a short tour and award a new

a. date eligible to return from overseas (DEROS).
b. overseas duty selection date (ODSD) only.
c. short tour return date (STRD) only.
d. both ODSD and a STRD.

Back 34

d. both ODSD and a STRD.

Front 35

If an overseas (OS) tour is curtailed and no entitlement to tour credit accrues, the overseas duty selection date (ODSD) or short tour return date (STRD) is

a. adjusted by the number of days served in the OS area.
b. adjusted by years served in the OS area and the date arrive at the continental United States (CONUS) port.
c. readjusted to give credit for the entire tour for which the member originally volunteered.
d. readjusted to give credt for the entire tour stated on the member's original tour election.

Back 35

a. adjusted by the number of days served in the OS area.

Front 36

When an Airman's permanent change of station (PCS) orders show a member elected to serve an accompanied tour, but the member arrives overseas (OS) unaccompanied, an initial date eligible to return from overseas (DEROS) is established based on the

a. accompanied tour, because the member was selected to serve such.
b. unaccompanied tour, because the member is arriving unaccompanied.
c. accompanied tour, regardless of the fact the member arrived unaccompanied.
d. unaccompanied tour, provided the member requests a change of OS tour status.

Back 36

c. accompanied tour, regardless of the fact the member arrived unaccompanied.

Front 37

Which of the following action should be taken by the military perssonel element (MPE) when a member has an approved separation date before their date eleigible to return from overseas. (DEROS)?

a. Adjust the DEROS.
b. Award the DEROS.
c. Add the overseas (OS) tour length to the last date departed the continental United States (CONUS).
d. Add the OS tour length to the date arrived at the OS duty station and award the DEROS.

Back 37

a. Adjust the DEROS.

Front 38

Which of the following data elements must be included in a request to Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC) to correct overseas (OS) duty history?

a. OS tour length.
b. OS duty history.
c. OS volunteer status.
d. OS tour selection date.

Back 38

a. OS tour length.

Front 39

How is the tour completion date of the first tour updated when a member selected for a consecutive overseas tour (COT) travels to the continental United States (CONUS) before arriving at the new assignment?

a. The date member arrived at the CONUS port.
b. The day before member arrives at the CONUS port.
c. The date member comopleted the original tour (plus all extensions).
d. The date member arrived at the new assignment.

Back 39

a. The date member arrived at the CONUS port.

Front 40

Which of the following actions does the personnel employment element (PEE) accomplish during in processing?

a. Respond to processing discrepancies from the losing base.
b. Inform newcomers of installation sponsorship responsibilities.
c. Check records for active duty service commitments, when applicable.
d. Process discrepancies received from the losing base within three workdays.

Back 40

c. Check records for active duty service commitments, when applicable.

Front 41

Which of the following permanent change of staion (PCS) departure certification statements, as accomplished by the gaining military personnel element (MPE) is formatted correctly? "I certify that I

a. derparted at (time) on (date) from (base) and (Member's payroll signature).
b. outprocessed my last duty station on (date) at (time), and (Member's initials).
c. certify that I departed (location) PCS at (time) on (date) and (Member's payroll signature).
d. outprocessed on (date) at (time) from (losing unit of assignment) en route to (gaining unit of assignment).

Back 41

c. certify that I departed (location) PCS at (time) on (date) and (Member's payroll signature).

Front 42

Which of the following permanent change of station (PCS) departure certificaiton statements, as accomplished by a gaining military personnel element (MPE), i formatted correctly?

a. I departed Misawa AB Japan PCS on 15 August 2001 at 0800. (Member's initial.)
b. On 15 August 2001 at 1330, I CMSgt Lisa Acevedo departed Misawa AB, Japan PCS.
c. I. CMSgt Lisa Acevedo, certiy that I departed Misawa AB, Japan PCS on 15 August 2001 at 1330.
d. I certify that I departed Misawa AB, Japan PCS at 0800 on 15 August 2001. (Member's payroll signature).

Back 42

d. I certify that I departed Misawa AB, Japan PCS at 0800 on 15 August 2001. (Member's payroll signature).

Front 43

In the event a permanent change of station (PCS) departure certification is missing when a member in-process, what agency is responsible for initiating a new one?

a. Major command (MAJCOM).
b. Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC).
c. Losing military personnel element (MPE).
d. Gaining military personnel element (MPE).

Back 43

c. Losing military personnel element (MPE).

Front 44

When information is entered on th initial duty assignement (IDA) worksheet, the appropriate element must

a. update the member's records.
b. verify the data and coordinate on the worksheet.
c. update the member's records and ensure the record is filed.
d. verifiy the relocation folders on all projected gains and ensure the worksheet is filed alphabetically.

Back 44

c. update the member's records and ensure the record is filed.

Front 45

What does the noncomissioned officer in charge (NCOIC/ assistant NCOIC, Personnel Employment), use to verify the data on the initial duty assignment (IDA)?

a. Allocation notice.
b. Initial duty assignment (IDA) worksheet.
c. Projected duty update-inbound application.
d. Assignment report on individual personnel (RIP).

Back 45

b. Initial duty assignment (IDA) worksheet.

Front 46

What happens after updating an Officer's projected duty once the effective date is equal to or less than the current duty effective date?

a. The projected duty information will consumate.
b. The projected duty information will drop from the Personnel Data System (PDS).
c. The gaining military personnel element (MPE) or unit will confirm projected assignment actions up on the actual arrival of the individual.
d. The losing MPE will confirm projected assignement actions on the actual departure of the individual.

Back 46

a. The projected duty information will consumate.

Front 47

When requesting a change in an officer's duty Air Force specialty code (DAFSC), which of the following is not included for Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) to make a decision?

a. Position number.
b. Specific justificaiton.
c. Input of a new duty title.
d. Duty history report on individual personnel (RIP).

Back 47

d. Duty history report on individual personnel (RIP).

Front 48

After an officer has attended and completed training, what is the officers previous duty information effective date?

a. Consumate on the class start date.
b. One day after the class graduation date.
c. One day before the class graduation date.
d. Consummates in five duty days of arrival at the permanent duty station.

Back 48

b. One day after the class graduation date.

Front 49

A specialty may be considered for award of special duty assignment pay (SDAP) if it meets all of the following conditions except

a.not demanding or highly responsible duties.
b. place a heavy personal burden on the member.
c. cover and above what would reasonbly be expected in a military assignment for a member's grade.
d. over and above what would reasonably be expected in a military assignemnt for a member's experience.

Back 49

a.not demanding or highly responsible duties.

Front 50

An enlisted member is eligible to receive special duty assignment pay (SDAP) if he or she meets all of the following criteria except for

a. serving in pay grade E-2 or higher.
b. being on active duty and entitled to basic pay.
c. being qualified in a designated duty as certified by the unit commander.
d. having completed special schooling required to qualify for the duty.

Back 50

a. serving in pay grade E-2 or higher.

Front 51

What specific activity must initiate the entitlement of a member's qualification and elgibility for special duty assignemnt pay (SDAP)?

a. Major command (MAJCOM).
b. Unit commander.
c. Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC).
d. Military Personnel element (MPE) commander.

Back 51

b. Unit commander.

Front 52

What happens to the eligibility for special duty assignment pay (SDAP) if a member serving in a specialty designated for award SDAP performs temporary duty (TDY) and their skills do not merit SDAP?

a. Stops.
b. continues.
c. SDAP stops for up to 179 consecutive days of the TDY.
d. SDAP continues for up to 90 consecutive days of the TDY.

Back 52

d. SDAP continues for up to 90 consecutive days of the TDY.

Front 53

Which of the following mismatches is no displayed in narrative form on the unit personnel management roster (UPMR)?

a. Grade is higher than the authorized grade.
b. Air Force specialty code (AFSC) is a higher skill-level than the authorized AFSC.
c. OFficer's duty special experience identifier (SEI) is different from the authorized SEI.
d. Airmen's duty Air Force specialty code (DAFSC) is different form the authorized SEI.

Back 53

d. Airmen's duty Air Force specialty code (DAFSC) is different form the authorized SEI.

Front 54

What computer product lists unit manpower requirements that are both funded and unfunded?

a. Unit manpower document (UMD).
b. Initial duty assignment (IDA) worksheet.
c. Unit personnel management roster (UMPR).
d. Personnel employment management roster (PEMR).

Back 54

a. Unit manpower document (UMD).

Front 55

What activity uses the unit manpower document (UMD) to allocate resources and identify projected changes in manpower authorizations?

a. Military personnel element (MPE).
b. Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC).
c. Major command (MAJCOM)
d. Headquarters United States Air FOrce (HQ USAF).

Back 55

c. Major command (MAJCOM)