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74 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
An airman basic (AB) can be promoted to airman firstclass (A1C) upon completion of the basic military training honor graduate.

a. is a basic military training honor graduate.
b the enlisted contract guarantees the promotion.
c. has completed 20 or more hours of college credit.
d. has served in Junior Airforce Reserve Officer Training Corps.
b. the enlistment contract guarantees the promotion.
when is a an airman first class (A1C) considered fully qualified for promotion to Senior Airman (SrA)?

a. 20 months' time in grade (TIG), 36 months' time in service (TIS), and recommendded by the commander in writing.
b. recommended by the commander only.
c. 20 months' TIG and 24 months' TIS.
d. 28 months' TIG only
a. 20 months' time in grade (TIG), 36 months' time in service (TIS), and recommendded by the commander in writing.
If the below-the zone (BTZ) selection board process includes a personal appearance, what happens when an individual is unable to physically appear before the board due to TDY?

a. Reschedule the board for after the individual's return from TDY.
b. All eligibles will be evaluated for promotion based solely on their records.
c. Only the eligibles physically able to appear before the board will be considered.
d. The board considers that individual using records only, but all other eligibles will be considered using records and personal appearances.
b. All eligibles will be evaluated for promotion based solely on their records.
What is the promotion eligiblity status (PES) code for an airman with an Article 15 suspended reduction?

a. A
b. B.
c. C.
d. D.
a. A
When an airman will not be allowed to assume the next higher grade, the commander's written confrimation must include the reasons for the nonrecommendation, inclusive dates of the nonrecommendation action, and

a. the airman's acknowledgment.
b. the promotion eligiblity status code.
c. the airman's time-in-grade and time-in-service.
d. astatement indicating that the status is withheld.
a. the airman's acknowledgment.
In the Weighted Airman Promotin System (WAPS), what two weighted factors account for 44 percent of the total point value?

a. Promotion fitness examiniation (PFE) and enlisted performance reports (EPRs).
b. Specialty knkowledge test (SKT) and PFE.
c. PFE and time in grade.
d. SKT and decorations.
b. Specialty knkowledge test (SKT) and PFE.
In the Weighted Airman Promotion System (WAPS), what is the enlisted performance report (EPR) conversion factor?

a. 27.
b. 18.
c. 15.
d. 9.
a. 27.
A technical sergeant (TSgt) is eligible for promotion to master sergeant (MSgt) upon obtaining a 7 level,

a. 23 monthss' TIG, and seven years' total active federal military service (TAFMS).
b, 23 months' TIG, and eight years' TAFMS.
c. 24 months' TIG, and seven years' TAFMS
d. 24 months' TIG, and eight years' TAFMS.
d. 24 months' TIG, and eight years' TAFMS.
To be eligible for promotion to chief master sergeant (CMSgt), an airman must have at least 14 years' total active federal military service (TAFMS) as of the

a. last day of the last month of the promotion cycle.
b. first day of the last month of the promotion cycle.
c. last day of the month prior to the last month of the promotion cycle.
d. first day of the month prior to the last month of the promotion cycle.
b. first day of the last month of the promotion cycle.
What is the minimum total board score a record can be assessed if the three panel members central chief master sergeant (CMSgt) promotion evaluation board assigns a composite score of 18?

a. 18 points.
b. 54 points.
c. 270 points.
d. 450 points.
c. 270 points.
which of the following is not considered as a "whole person" factor in the senior NCO promotion process?

a. Education.
b. Leadership.
c. Marital status.
d. Performance.
c. Marital status.
Individual factors comprising the "whole person concept" are not given a predetermined score because

a. too many factors are involved.
b. they do not lend themselves to predetermined values.
c. board members have different views about the whole-person concept.
d. whole-person factors are subjective and lend themselves to value judgments.
b. they do not lend themselves to predetermined values.
To be promoted to master sergeant (MSgt) under the Stripes for Exceptional Performers (STEP) program, an airman must have a minimum of eight years' total active federal military service (TAFMS) and must have completed

a. 23 months' time in grade.
b. 24 months' time in grade
c. the NCO Academy in residence.
d. the NCO Academy by correspondence.
c. the NCO Academy in residence.
Under the stripes for Exceptional performers (STEP) program, no airman may be promoted more than once during any 12 month period under any combination of promotion programs except

a. senior airmen (SrA).
b. staff sergeants (SSgt).
c. technical sergeants(TSgts).
d. master sergeants (MSgts)
a. senior airmen (SrA).
Commanders of organizations that receive a Stripes for Exceptional Performers (STEP) promotion quota are delegated promotion authority. Under this delegated authority, they may establish all of the following except

a. procedures.
b. internal guidelines.
c. nomination formats.
d. a central STEP promotion board for field operating agencies.
d. a central STEP promotion board for field operating agencies.
In which of the following situations does a member remain eligible for promotion consideration and selection but, if selected, is prevented from assuming the higher grade?

a. Receives a letter of reprimand.
b. Possesses an unfavorable information file (UIF).
c. Awaiting a decision on an application as a consicentious objector.
d. is enrolled in the unit Fitness Imporvement Program.
c. Awaiting a decision on an application as a consicentious objector.
What happens if the effective date of a member's promotion has passed and the promotion authority did not take action to deger the promotion?

a. The promotion may be retroactively deferred.
b. Remomoval action must be initiated immeditely.
c. demotion action must be initiated immediately.
d. The promotion is valid and cannot be retroactively deferred.
d. The promotion is valid and cannot be retroactively deferred.
An officer is ineligible for consideration by a selection board or for promotion if he or she

a. is on the active duty list (ADL).
b. is a first lieutenant who was not selected for promotion to captain one time previously.
c. has a date of separation or apprved retirement within 180 days following the date a board convenes.
d. has not been on extended active duty at least six consecutive months immediately before the board convenes.
d. has not been on extended active duty at least six consecutive months immediately before the board convenes.
A United States Air Force Reserve (USAFR) officer is ineligible for promotion consideration or promotion if the officer

a. is retired.
b. has not declined a promotion to captain.
c. is added to a USAFR promotion recommendation list by a propriety of promotion action.
d. has not been considered by a mandatory selection board bu is recommended for promotion.
a. is retired.
When a promotion board is considering active duty officers for promotion to major, what is the minimum grade of the board president?

a. General.
b. Lieutenant general.
c. Major general.
d. Brigidier general.
d. Brigidier general.
What constitutes a significant difference in the scores given a particular record by a promotion board?

a. A difference of more than 1 1/2 points between any two scores on a record.
b. A difference of more than 1 1/2 points between all of the scores on a record.
c. A board is unable to resolve differences in scoring a particular record after lengthy discussion.
d. A differnece in scoring a particular record is resolved after lengthy discussion and changing of votes.
a. A difference of more than 1 1/2 points between any two scores on a record.
removal of an officer's name from a list of those selected for promtoion to captain is officially confirmed by

a. the Senate.
b. the Armed Forces Policy Council.
c. Headquarters AFPC.
d. the MAJCOM.
a. the Senate.
In which of the following circumstances should a commander initiate action to remove an officer's name from a promotion list?

a. The officer is enrolled under the unit Fitness Improvement Program.
b. A preponderance of evidence shows the officer should not be considered.
c. A preponderance of evidence shows the officer is not qualified for promotion (NQP).
d. The officer has recently failed to meet standards for acceptable levels of performance.
c. A preponderance of evidence shows the officer is not qualified for promotion (NQP).
Which of the following is the approving authority for all officer promotion removal actions and, as such, acts for the president?

a. Unit Commander.
b. Headquarters AFPC.
c. Secretary of the Air Force.
d. Career field functional manager.
c. Secretary of the Air Force.
The Military Personnel Element (MPE) Eligible for Promotion Testing Roster is manually posted throughout the duration of a promotion cycle to

a. serve as a suspense control document in scheduling promotion testing.
b. porvide a current reference in determining a member's promotion status.
c. preclude a current reference in determining a member's promotion status.
d. serve as a suspense control document in determining "no shows" for promotion testing.
b. porvide a current reference in determining a member's promotion status.
When the career development office or the Commanders Support Staff (CSS) schedules personnel for testing, they do so by annotating the

a. MPE Selectee Data Verification List.
b. Unit Eligible for Promotion Testing Roster.
c. MPE Eligible for Promotion Testing Roster.
d. Airman Promotion Data Verification Record (DVR).
b. Unit Eligible for Promotion Testing Roster.
Monthly increment products are produced automatically upon receipt of the monthly promotion increment transactions that flow from AFPC before the promtion effective date and on or about the

a. 1st of the month.
b. 5th of the month.
c. 10th of the month
d. 15th of the month
d. 15th of the month
Approved board results for the officer promotion program are confirmed in-system via transactions from

a. Headquarters USAF to Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) and Major Commands (MAJCOM).
b. Headquarters USAF to MAJCOMS's and Military Personnel Elements (MPE).
c. AFPC to servicing MPE's and MAJCOMs.
d. AFPC to the Secretary of the AIr Force (SAF) and MAJCOMs.
c. AFPC to servicing MPE's and MAJCOMs.
Which document is a one-page, computer-generated extract of selected datat from the Headquarters Air Force (HAF) that is used by all officer selection boards?
a. Officer preselction brief (OPB).
b. Officer initial selection brief (ISB).
c. Officer selection brief (OSB).
d. Officer postselect brief (PSB).
c. Officer selection brief (OSB).
When a promotion board is to convene within 14 days, how does the Military Personnel Element (MPE) notify Headquarters AFPC of erroneous datat on an officer's preselectionbrief (OPB)?

a. By message.
b. By telephone.
c. In a memorandum sent via Federal Express.
d. Via a Military Personnel Datat system (MilPDS) update.
a. By message.
An enlisted performance report (EPR) is not required when the ratee is

a. a member whose performance is unsatisfactory.
b. a senior airman (SrA) or above and has not had a report for at least one year and the period of supervision has been 120 calendar days.
c. an airnman first class (A1C) or below, has 20 or more months total active federal military service (TAFMS), has had an intitial report, and has not had a report for at least one year.
d. an A1C or below, has less than 20 months TAFMS, and has not had a report for 120 calendar days.
d. an A1C or below, has less than 20 months TAFMS, and has not had a report for 120 calendar days.
Which rater cannot prepare enlisted performance reports (EPRs)?

a. An officer of a foreign military service in a grade equal to or higher than the ratee.
b. An active duty memer in the grade of SrA that has completed Airman Leadership School.
c. A non-active duty United States Air Force Reserve (USAFR) member in the grade of senior airman (SrA).
d. A civilian in grade GS-5 holding a supervisory postion that is higher than the ratee in the ratee's rating chain.
c. A non-active duty United States Air Force Reserve (USAFR) member in the grade of senior airman (SrA).
Which of the following individuals may assume the responsibility of the rater if the rater is missing in action?

a. Senior rater.
b. First sergeant
c. Additional rater.
d. Unit commander
c. Additional rater.
WHEN CAN SOMEONE OTHER THAN THE RATER AND ADDITIONAL RATER EVALUATE A RATEE'S PERFORMANCE AND MAKE OVERALL PERFORMANCE EVALUATION ASSESSMENT FOR REPORTING PERIOD?

a. Whenever the report is a referral report.
b. When the commander does not concur with the ratings.
c. Whenever the reviewer is senior in grade to the commander.
d. When someone other than the rater has had 60 days or more of supervision during the reporting period.
b. When the commander does not concur with the ratings.
For chief master sergeants (CMSgts), the reverse side of the AF Form 911. Senior Enlisted Performance Report (MSgt through CMSgt) is used to indcate an overall performance assessment and potentially make a recommendation for

a. future assignments.
b. increased responsibilities.
c. retention to high year of tenure.
d. continued service beyond high year of tenure.
b. increased responsibilities.
The minimum number of days of supervision that a rater must have in order to submit a Letter of Evaluation (LOE) is

a. 30.
b. 60.
c. 90.
d. 120.
b. 60.
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING OFFICERS REQUIRE FEEDBACK SESSIONS?

a. Lieutenants only.
b. Lieutentants and captains.
c. Lieutenants through majors.
d. Lieutenants through colonels.
d. Lieutenants through colonels.
The AF Form 709, Promotion Recommendation Form (PRF), recommendation section covers the entire record of performance and provides key performance factoRs from the officers

a. recent performance.
b. semiannual performance.
c. annual performance.
d. entire career.
d. entire career.
AF FORM 475, EDUCATION/TRAINING REPORT, DOCUMENTS AN OFFICER'S ATTENDANCE AT ALL INITIAL TRAINING IN UTILIZATION FIELDS EXCEPT

a. education and technology (E&T).
b. undergraduate pilot training (UPT).
c. undergraduate space and missile training (USMT).
d. specialized undergraduate navigator training (SUNT).
a. education and technology (E&T).
Which of the following is not a mandatroy comment area on an officer's AF Form 475, Education/Training Report?

a. General attitude.
b. Civic involvement.
c. Conduct and fitness.
d. Military bearing and appearance.
b. Civic involvement.
When ratees receive a referral memorandum due to a performance report being considered a referral report, what actions must the ratee take?

a. Sign and date the memorandum in the space provided, signature constitutes concurrence with the report.
b. Sign and date the memorandum in the space provided, signature does not constitute concurrence with the report.
c. Confer with rater to ensure accuracy of the report prior to signing and dating the memorandum signature constitutes concurrence with report.
d. confer with rater to ensure accuracy of the report prior to signing and dating the memorandum signature does not constitute concurrence with the report.
a. Sign and date the memorandum in the space provided, signature constitutes concurrence with the report.
A ratee's (officer or airman) comments of the evaluator named in the referral letter must

a. contain pertinent attachments.
b. reflect on the character of the evaluator.
c. not reflect on the integrity of the evaluator.
d. be forwarded through the immediate supervisor.
c. not reflect on the integrity of the evaluator.
Which from is submitted by members desiring to correct errors or statements in an Enlisted Performance Reports (EPR's ) or Officer Performance Reports (OPR's)?

a. AF Form 77.
b. AF Form 707.
c. AF Form 709.
d. AF Form 948.
d. AF Form 948.
How many days before the selection board are promotion recommendation froms (PRFs for officers completed by the senior rater?

a. No earlier than 120 days.
b. No earlier than 90 days.
c. no earlier than 60 days.
d. No earlier than 30 days.
c. no earlier than 60 days.
How are requests to correct active duty members evaluation reports processed by HQ AFPC?

a. Board members review applications and interview applicants on a case-by-case basis; board president ultimately decides the appeal.
b. Board members review applications and interview applicants on a case-by-case basis; board president and board members vote to decide appeal.
c. Board members review applications and make independent recommendations to the board president; board president ultimately decides the appeal.
d. board members review applications and make independent recommendations to the board president; board president and board members vote to decide appeal.
c. Board members review applications and make independent recommendations to the board president; board president ultimately decides the appeal.
Who is authorized to administer that Oath of enlsitment during a reenlistment ceremony?

a. Navy admiral who resigned his commision.
b. Second lieutenant serving in a local Army National Guard unit.
c. Captain who was transferred to the obligated Reserve Section (ORS).
d. Lieutenant colonel who was transferred to the Nonaffiliated Reserve Section (NARS).
b. Second lieutenant serving in a local Army National Guard unit.
Which approved guarntee is not documented on an AF Form 901, reenlistment Eligibility Annex to DD Form 4-1-2?

a. Lateral retraining.
b. Base of preference (BOP).
c. Selective reenlistment bonus (SRB).
d. Airman Education and Commisining Program AECP).
c. Selective reenlistment bonus (SRB).
WHAT IS NOT A VALID REASON AN AIRMAN WHO IS INELIGIBLE TO REENLIST MAY SUBMIT A WAIVER TO REENLIST OR EXTEND?

a. Insufficient grade.
b. Serving on the control roster.
c. The airman has five or more days lost time.
d. the Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) is not commensurate with grade.
b. Serving on the control roster.
After disapproving a staff sergeants (SSgt's ) request for a waiver for reenlistment due to ineligibility, the unit commander ensures that the SSgt

a. separates immediately.
b. acknowledges receipt of the disapproval.
c. annotates the Unit Personnel record Group (UPRG) accordingly.
d. goes to the career development section to ensure the Military Personnel data System (MilPDS) is updated.
b. acknowledges receipt of the disapproval.
Which example describes an allowable enlistment extension?

a. First-term airman requestiong 36 months additional retainability for an overseas assignment.
b. Career airman requestion a 49-month enlistment extension to increase bonus entitlement.
c. First-term airman requesting a 14-month enlistment extension to determine whether or not to make the Air Force a career.
d. Career airman who has not previously extended current enlistment and needs 48 months retainability for an overseas assignment.
d. Career airman who has not previously extended current enlistment and needs 48 months retainability for an overseas assignment.
For what situation may the airmans wing commander serve as the approval or disapproval authority regarding a request for extension of enlistment?

a. Remaining on active duty beyond age 55.
b. Processing an extension of enlistment appeal.
c. When considered in the best interest of the Air Force.
d. Providing additional time to permit the member to arrive at a career decision.
a. Remaining on active duty beyond age 55.
How does an extension of enlistment compare to a reenlistment?

a. Neither an extension of enlistment nor a reenlistment is ever binding.
b. A reenlistment is never binding because it is generally for a longer period.
c. Once the extension has been revoked, it has the same binding effect as reenlistment.
d. Once the extension has been entered into, it has the same binding effect as reenlistment.
d. Once the extension has been entered into, it has the same binding effect as reenlistment.
First-term airmen who enlisted for six years will receive a career job reservation (CJR) as early as the first duty day of the month during which they complete how many months on their current enlistment?

a. 35
b. 36.
c. 59.
d. 60
c. 59.
Career job reservation (CJR) canellation precedures apply only to

a. past CJRs, not to current CJRs.
b. approved CJRs, not to suspended CJRs.
c. disapproved CJRs, not to rescinded CJRs.
d. members who cannot get a CJR in the Air Force specialty code they are currently working in.
b. approved CJRs, not to suspended CJRs.
A career job reservation (CJR) cannot be canceled when an airman

a. elects to be removed from the CJR waiting list.
b. has a approved CJR and no longer desires to reenlist.
c. has an approved CJR and requests voluntary separation.
d. is on the CJR waiting list and does not request separation.
d. is on the CJR waiting list and does not request separation.
An airman with an approved or suspended career job reservation (CJR) or CJR waiting-list position that was caneled can request that a CJR be reinstated if the airman

a. no longer wants to reenlist.
b. was rendered ineligible to reenlist.
c. had a CJR waiting-list postion was caneled becase the member applied for separation.
d. had a CJR waiting-list position that was canceled for reasons other than personal request.
d. had a CJR waiting-list position that was canceled for reasons other than personal request.
What activity can reinstatement approved career job reservations (CJRs) for airman rendered ineligible to reenlist due to reenlistment eligibility (RE) code 4k (medical disqualifaction)?

a. Military Personnel Element (MPE).
b. MAJCOM.
c. Headquarters AFPC.
d. Headquarters USAF.
c. Headquarters AFPC.
Which of the following is an eligibility condition that applies when requesting a wing or senior host commander override in the career job reservation (CJR) program?

a. Lost time on their current enlistment.
b. Promoted to the grade of airman first class (A1C).
c. Not promoted to senior airman (SrA) below the zone.
d. Received Stripes for Exceptional Performers (STEP) promotion.
d. Received Stripes for Exceptional Performers (STEP) promotion.
What must a member achieve in order to meet the basic eligiblity for the Initial Enlistment Bonus (IEB) program?

a. 3-skill level in any AFSC.
b. 5-skill level in any AFSC.
c. 3-skill level in the AFSC for which they were contracted to fill.
d. 5-skill level in the AFSC for which they were contracted to fill.
c. 3-skill level in the AFSC for which they were contracted to fill.
For first-term airmen serving in Selective Reenlistment Bonus (SRB) skills, the AF Form 545, Request for Career Job Reservation (CJR)/Selective Reenlistment Bonus Authority, serves a dual purpose as both.

a. a request for a CJR and a request for SRB authorization.
b. an approval for a CJR and a request for SRB authorization.
c. a disapproval for a CJR and a disapproval for SRB authorization.
d. an approval/disapproval for a CJR and a request/disapproval for SRB authorization.
a. a request for a CJR and a request for SRB authorization.
Requests for accelerated payment of a Selective Reenlistment Bonus (SRB) must include all of the following except

a. evidence that SRB will be terminated.
b. a copy of the member's monthly and earnings statement (LES).
c. complete documentation of the hardship, including copies of all monthly debts.
d. documentation of other income or savings, including spouse's monthly income.
a. evidence that SRB will be terminated.
A recoupment action to recover a Selective Reenlistment Bonus (SRB) is not initiated when

a. a TSgt refuses to perform certain duties in the SRB skill.
b. disciplinary action renders a SSgt ineligible to serve in an SRB skill.
c. a TSgt's misconduct results in withdrawl of his or her security clearance.
d. SSgt's incapacitating injury is not the result of his or her own misconduct.
d. SSgt's incapacitating injury is not the result of his or her own misconduct.
Which of the following is an acheivement award that is given to enlisted personnel every 4 years of honorable service?

a. National Defense Service Medal.
b. National Defense Service Award.
c. Air Force Good Conduct Medal (AFGCM).
d. Air Force Longevity Service Award (AFLSA).
d. Air Force Longevity Service Award (AFLSA).
Who endorses an awards package sent through command channels when a MAJCOM, field operting agency, or direct reporting unit commander is not available?

a. Section commander.
b. Squadron commander.
c. Group commander.
d. Vice commander.
d. Vice commander.
Who is not eligible for consideration for a US military decoration?

a. All military personnel on active duty.
b. Member of Reserve components, while in inactive status.
c. Family members living on a military installation with no military service.
d. Member of Reserve components, while participating in authorized periods of training.
c. Family members living on a military installation with no military service.
A reconsideration for a decoration that was lost or not processed due to adminstrative error is contingent upon

a. the fact that the decoration was submitted and acted upon.
b. administrative processing that the decoration was acted upon.
c. submission into official channels not within the prescribed limits.
d. the presentation of credible evidence that the recommendation was officially placed in military channels.
d. the presentation of credible evidence that the recommendation was officially placed in military channels.
What activity does the survey control officer notify upon receipt of an unauthorized survey?

a. Headquarters AFPC.
b. MAJCOM.
c. Military personnel element commander.
d. Senior host commander.
a. Headquarters AFPC.
A line-of-duty (LOD) and misconduct determination is required when a member, whether hospitalized or not, has a disease or injury that resluts in

a. the issuance of a strong prescription.
b. the likelihood of permanent disability.
c. death, when there are no surviving family members.
d. the inablility to perform military duties for more than48 hours.
b. the likelihood of permanent disability.
Who identifies cases requiring a line-of-duty (LOD) determination when a non-Air Force facility treats an injured Air Force member first?

a. Attending civilian physician.
b. Air Force surgeon Genderal's Office.
c. Senior host commander for the member's unit.
d. Air Force medical facility nearst the non-Air Force facility that provided treatment.
d. Air Force medical facility nearst the non-Air Force facility that provided treatment
Aside from an "in the line of dutY" determination, all of the following line-of-duty (LOD) determinations can be made except

a. not in line of duty, due to own misconduct.
b. not in line of duty, not due to own misconduct.
c. existed prior to service (EPTS), line of duty not required.
d. existed prior to service (EPTS), not due to own misconduct.
d. existed prior to service (EPTS), not due to own misconduct.
Which officer normally serves as the appointing authority in processing a line-of-duty (LOD) determination?

a. Senior host commander or vice commander.
b. Officer exercising special court-marital jurisdiction.
c. Officer exercising summary court-martial jursdiction.
d. Group commander in the chain of command over the immediate commander.
d. Group commander in the chain of command over the immediate commander.
What form is the source document for service dates and is prepared by the Air Force personnel Center (AFPC) for all active duty officers?

a. AF Form 1613, Statement of Service.
b. AF Form 1614, Statement of Service.
c. Af Form 1615, Statement of Service.
d. AF Form 1616, Statement of Service.
a. AF Form 1613, Statement of Service.
AfPC automatically computes the total active fedeal military service date (TAFMSD) and pay date for members, then distributes an AF Form 1613 on enlisted personnel in all of the following categories except

a. prior service airmen who enlist after a break in service.
b. reenlisted airmen who have been charged with time lost.
c. members with less than 12 years of TAFMS if a statement has already been prepared.
d. airmen with more than 14 years of TAFMS if a statement has not been prepared previously
c. members with less than 12 years of TAFMS if a statement has already been prepared.
Members are eligible for the Career Status Bonus (CSB) Program if they joined a Uniformed Service on or after what date?

a. 1 AUG 85.
b. 1 AUG 86.
c. 1 AUG 87
d. 1 AUG 88
b. 1 AUG 86.