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59 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
At the end of the fiscal year, Air Force memebrs who are assigned to an operational mission at the national level can keep accrued leave up to

a. 90 days when they have at least 60 days assigned.
b. 60 days when they have at least 120 cumulative days assigned.
c. 90 days when they have collected special pay for at least 2 months.
d. 60 days when they have collected special pay for at least 2 months.
a. 90 days when they have at least 60 days assigned.
when an Air Force members becomes ill or needs hospitalization while on leave, who advises the leave approving authority?

a. No one. the leave form covers the member's absence.
b. The immediate supervisor.
c. The leave monitor.
d. The next of kin.
d. The next of kin.
Convalescent leave begins the day of discharge from a medical treatment facility (MTF) and ends on the

a. first day of duty.
b. day before the member returns to duty.
c. day after return to duty.
d. date directed by the member's commander.
b. day before the member returns to duty.
What is emergency leave?

a. Chargeable leave that is granted within the lilmits of accrued, advance, or excess leave for a personal or family emergency that requires the member's presence.
b. Nonchargeable leave that is granted within the lilmits of accrued, advance, or excess leave for a personal or family emergency that requires the member's presence.
c. Chargeable leave that is granted to members who are under medical care as part of their prescribed treatment.
d. Nonchargeable leave that is granted to members who are under medical care as part of their prescrived treatment.
a. Chargeable leave that is granted within the lilmits of accrued, advance, or excess leave for a personal or family emergency that requires the member's presence.
The date that leave requests appear on the daily register of Transactions (DROT) must be posted to the

a. individual's leave request.
b. unit leave control log.
c. leave balance listing.
d. AF Form 1134
b. unit leave control log.
When a unit begins a new series of leave authorization numbers on or after 1 October, this is determined by the

a. leave approving authority.
b. unit commander.
c. leave monitor.
d. financial services office (FSO)
d. financial services office (FSO)
Block assignments must be verified against the Daily Register of Transactions (DROT) at least every

a. 30 days.
b. 45 days.
c. 60 days.
d. 90 days.
b. 45 days.
The original Notification Memo must be sent to the Military Personnel Element (MPE) within

a. 3 days.
b. 5 days.
c. 10 days.
d. 15 days.
c. 10 days.
The individualized Newcomer Treatment and Orientation (INTRO) Program is a tool that commanders use to make sure that members who have relocation pending are able to obtain

a. present-for-duty record status upon arrival.
b. financial pay status inoformation prior ro arrival.
c. personal assistance through sponsorship, if requested.
d. sponsor assistance for household leases and utility hookups prior to arrival.
c. personal assistance through sponsorship, if requested.
a base idndividualized Newcomer Treatment and Orientation (INTRO) Program manager is not responsible for

a. implementing the INTRO program.
b. collecting and distributing new comer feedback.
c. using the personnel data system (PDS) for automated support.
d. planning, organizing, and administering the base orientation program.
a. implementing the INTRO program.
The base Individualized Newcomer Treatment and Orientation (INTRO) Program manager prepares a sponsor kit that includes a

a. base fact sheet.
b. checklist for sponsors.
c. list of all sponsors at the base.
d. blank personal information frm that will be used to match newcomer with a sponsor
a. base fact sheet.
Within what timeframe of their selection as sponsor should a sponsor mail the sponsor kit to an inbound member?

a. 14 calendar days.
b. 14 workdays
c. 7 calendar days.
d. 7 duty days.
c. 7 calendar days.
Which one of these categories is not a part of the commander's support staff (CSS) responsibilities during unit in-processing procedure?

a. Financial Support.
b. Medical Support.
c. Locator Information
d. Military Equal Opportunity.
b. Medical Support.
Airman Smith just arrived to your unit, her duty information must be updated within

a. 1 calendar day.
b. 1 duty day.
c. 3 calendar days.
d. 3 duty days.
b. 1 duty day.
when divorced military members do not have custody of their children, when are they eligible to receive basic allowance for subsistence (BAS)?

a. Never
b. When it preserves the visitation rights of the member.
c. When the member is not living in government quarters.
d. When the member can prove that their child support payment exceeds BAS.
b. When it preserves the visitation rights of the member.
In which rans are enlisted members automatically authorized basic allownance for subsistence (BAS)?

a. E-5 through E-9
b. E-6 through E-9
c. E-7 through E-9
d. E-8 and E-9
c. E-7 through E-9
What factors can the commander consider when authorizing basic allowance for subsistence (BAS) for members who are not automatically authorized to receive it?

a. Member's duty hours and dietary preferences.
b. Member's duty hours and off-duty employment hours.
c. Dining hall capacty and member's dietary preferences.
d. Dining hall capacity and location of member's residence.
d. Dining hall capacity and location of member's residence.
which type of basic allowance for subsistence (BAS) must be approved by the Secretary of the Air Force (SAF)

a. Prorated.
b. supplemental.
c. Rations in kind not available.
d. Rations under emergency conditions.
d. Rations under emergency condition
How often is a unit required to verify basic allowance for subsistence (BAS) authorizations?

a. Monthly
b. Semiannually.
c. Annually
d. As requested by the financial services office.
c. Annually
Within what timeframe must the military personnel element (MPE) return the essential station messing (ESM) roster to the food service officer?

a. 3 calendar days.
b. 3 work days.
c. 5 calendar days.
d. 5 work days.
d. 5 work days.
All of the these items are required on the ESM addtion/deletion letter except

a. Name.
b. Office symbol.
c. Rank.
d. Unit.
b. Office symbol.
Who determines which optional documents are filed in a member's unfavorable information file (UIF)?

a. Rater.
b. Commander.
c. First sergeant.
d. Staff judge advocate.
b. Commander.
Today, the commander signed section V of an AF Form 1058, Unfavorable Information File Action, putting a staff sergeant on the control roster. What is the final dispostion date?

a. Tomorrow.
b. Thirty days from today.
c. Six months from today.
d. Twelve months from today.
d. Twelve months from today.
Which document is an optional item that may be filed in an unfavorable information file (UIF)?

a. Article 15 punishment.
b. A control roster action.
c. A record of conviction adjudged by court martial.
d. A record of failure in substance abuse reorientation treatment in either track 3 or track 4.
a. Article 15 punishment
What is the only mandatory document that is referred to an offficer with the AF Form 1058, Unfavorable Information File Action, before it is filed in an unfavorable information file (UIF)?

a. Letter of Reprimand.
b. Letter of admonition.
c. Record of suspended punishment under Article 15.
d. Unsuspended Article 15 punishment that is longer than 1 month.
a. Letter of Reprimand.
How many duty days does a member have to acknowledge notice of an inteded action to establish an unfavorable information file (UIF)

a. 3.
b. 5.
c. 10.
d. 30.
a. 3.
What does the UIF monitor mark on the form and the back of an unfavorable information file (UIF) folder?

a. "For Official Use only."
b. "Privacy Act of 1974 Applies."
c. The final and interim disposition dates.
d. The name of the commander who initiated the UIF.
a. "For Official Use only."
How long after a permanent appointment to a command must a commander review all unit unfavorable information files (UIF)?

a. Within 30 days.
b. Within 90 days.
c. During the next scheduled semiannual review.
d. During the next scheduled annual review.
b. Within 90 days.
When does the unfavorable information file (UIF) monitor audit UIF"s?

a. At least twice a year.
b. At least once a year.
c. Before major inspctions.
d. At random to ensure impartially.
a. At least twice a year.
What action is taken by the temporary duty (TDY) commander when an unfavorable information file (UIF) is established on members who will return to their permanent duty station they complete TDY?

a. Destroy the package when the member completes the TDY.
b. Send the completed package to the member's unit commander.
c. Give the package to the member to hand carry to the unit commander.
d. Send the UIF summary and a memorandum explaining the unacceptable conduct.
b. Send the completed package to the member's unit commander.
The stated purpose of the control roster is to

a. endure the Air Force retains only the best and brightest airmen.
b. observe and monitor members who have demonstrated substandard duty performance.
c. punish member who do not meet the minimum performance standard of the Air Force.
d. identify members who are on the verge of crossing the line from acceptable to nonacceptable behavior.
b. observe and monitor members who have demonstrated substandard duty performance.
Who has the authority to place a member on the control roster?

a. First sergeant.
b. Unit commander.
c. Immediate supervisor.
d. Command chief master sergeant.
b. Unit commander.
Which action should commanders consider before entering or removing a member from the control roster?.

a. Directing that an EPR (enlsited) or OPR (officer) be written.
b. Making an appointment for the member at the base legal office.
c. Accompanying the member to the area defense counsel for advice.
d. Conducting formal counseling an documenting it in the personnel information file.
a. Directing that an EPR (enlsited) or OPR (officer) be written.
When will SSgt Jones be removed from the control roster if he was placed on it on 9 March?

a. 8 September at 2400 hrs.
b. 9 September at 2400 hrs.
c. 8 March at 2400 hrs.
d. 9 March at 2400 hrs.
a. 8 September at 2400 hrs.
When can a member who is on the control roster change units under a permanent change of assignment (PCA) action?

a. When the member is projected for promotion.
b. When the gaining commander receives permission from the parent MAJCOM.
c. When the move would improve a hostile working environment in the losing unit.
d. When the PCA is essential to the mission and the losing and gaining commander concur.
d. When the PCA is essential to the mission and the losing and gaining commander concur.
What action takes place once a commander signs the AF Form 1058, Unfavorable information File Action?

a. The commander sends the completed form to the legal office for review.
b. The personnel specialist places a copy in the member's field personnel record group.
c. The unit UIF monitor files a copy in the member's PIF and gives a copy to the member's rater.
d. The member acknowledges the action and submits statements on his or her own behalf within 3 days.
d. The member acknowledges the action and submits statements on his or her own behalf within 3 days.
What must be included when a Record of Individual Counseling (RIC) is frowarded from the initiator to a member's Commander?

a. A copy of the AF Form 1137, Unfavorable Information File Summary.
b. The member's acknowledgement and any documents submitted by the member.
c. All supporting documentation and statements from witnesses to the member's behavior.
d. An official memorandum transferring the document and providing dispostion instructions.
b. The member's acknowledgement and any documents submitted by the member.
If a of counseling (LOC) is not placed in a member's unfavorable information file (UIF), it must be

a. placed in the personnel information file (PIF).
b. filed in the field personnel recor group (FPRG).
c. destroyed once the member is removed from the control roster.
d. given to the immediate supervisor to be maintained until the next performance report is written.
a. placed in the personnel information file (PIF).
Which is normally a reward for good behvior?

a. Mitigation.
b. Parole.
c. Remission.
d. Suspension.
c. Remission.
The maximum Article 15 punishment a commander can impose is based on

a. age and grad of the offender.
b. current duty assignment.
c. grade commander and the offender.
d. offenders previous offences.
c. grade commander and the offender.
Which ranks can be demoted for just cause?

a. Amn through SRA.
b. Amn thorugh TSgt.
c. Amn thorugh CMSgt.
d. Amn thorugh Captain.
c. Amn thorugh CMSgt.
A commander may initiate administrative demotion action after a member reenlists for events or actions that occurred before the current enlistment.

a. when the commander was not a ware of the facts and circumstances until after the term of the enlistment expired.
b. if the member was advised of his or her rights by the commnander before reenlisting.
c. if the commander was unable to complete an investigation priror to the reenlistment.
d. if the member was first offered a voluntary separation from the Air Force.
a. when the commander was not a ware of the facts and circumstances until after the term of the enlistment expired.
What is the lowest grade to which SSgt Bush can be demoted?

a. SrAmn.
b. A1C
c. Amn.
d. AB
b. A1C
All fo the following are reasons for demotion except

a. failure to keep fit.
b. termination of student status.
c. conduct unbecoming an officer.
d. failure to fulfill NCO responsibilities
c. conduct unbecoming an officer.
The commander is submitting a memorandum to demote A1C Hooper. What information does the memorandum contain?

a. The date Hooper can expect to be considered for promotion.
b. Comments by Hooper's supervisor supporting the demotion.
c. A statement of what the next step will be if Hooper's behavior does not improve.
d. A statement that Hooper may request a personal hearing before the initiating commander.
d. A statement that Hooper may request a personal hearing before the initiating commander.
Members who have been notified of a projected adminstrative demotion must present either oral or written statements in their own behalf within how many duty days after they have been notified?

a. 1.
b. 3.
c. 5.
d. 7.
b. 3.
How many days can a member be palce in duty status "whereabouts unknown"?

a. 5.
b. 7.
c. 10.
d. 30.
c. 10.
You change members' duty status to "failure to go" when they have an unauthorized absence of

a. 24 hours or less.
b. more than 24 hours.
c. 3 duty days.
d. 4 duty days.
a. 24 hours or less.
You may change a members' duty status to "deserter" if they are absent for less than 30 days and

a. are in civil confinement.
b. are known to have purchased airline tickets.
c. have received counseling for personal problems.
d. have action pending on a previous unauthorized absence.
d. have action pending on a previous unauthorized absence.
What action does a commander take on the 31st day of a unit member's unauthorized absence?

a. Retrieves ID cards from the member's dependents.
b. Alerts the base populace through the base newspaper.
c. Requests assistance from the local police departments.
d. Sends a letter to the next of kin and those receiving allotments.
d. Sends a letter to the next of kin and those receiving allotments.
The Selective Reenlistment Program (SRP) applies to

a. all enlisted personnel.
b. only first-term airmen.
c. airmen on the control roster.
d. airmen with an unfavorable information file.
a. all enlisted personnel.
A1C Frosty is a first-term airman who enlisted for 4 years. When will she be considered under the Selective Renlistment Program (SRP)?

a. After she receives her career job reservation.
b. when she attains the rank or Senior Airman.
c. Once she has completed 33 months of active service.
d. After she has two consecutive Enlisted Performance Report (EPR) ratings of 4 or higher.
c. Once she has completed 33 months of active service.
What does the commander's support staff provide to the immediate supervisor of a member who is due Selective Reenlistment Program (SRP) consideration?

a. A. Report on Individual Personnel (RIP).
b. Copies of documents from the membr's personnel information files (PIF).
c. A copy of the SRP roster and a memorandum requesting a reply within 30 days
d. Copies of the member's last three EPRs and PFW's.
a. A. Report on Individual Personnel (RIP).
What action does the unit commander take when all members on the Selective Reenlistment Program (SRP) roster are selected for continued service?

a. Initial and date each page of the SRP roster and sign and date the last page.
b. Type a memorandum with the names of selectees and the date they were selected.
c. Determine if any of the selectees are planning to seperate within the next 12 months.
d. None. The personnel data system automatically processes them at the end of the month.
a. Initial and date each page of the SRP roster and sign and date the last page.
How long does the commander wait to make a recomendation when a person new to the unit is due Selective Reenlistment Program (SRP) consideration?

a. At least 90 days.
b. No more than 90 days.
c. At least 120 days.
d. No more than 120 days.
b. No more than 90 days.
To whom does a career airman with 14 years active service appeal when the unit commander does not select him or her for reenlistment?

a. Wing commander.
b. Group commander.
c. Major command commander.
d. Military personnel flight commander.
a. Wing commander.
If airmen have appealed their nonselection for reenlistment, how many workdays do they have to acknowledge the decision of the appeal authority?

a. 3.
b. 5.
c. 7.
d. 10.
b. 5.
What part of the Selective Reenlistment Program (SRP) roster must be returned to the military personnel element (MPE)?

a. Par I, SRP Actions.
b. Part II, SRP Monitor.
c. Part III, Career Job Reservation (CJR).
d. Part IV, Reenlistment Ineligibility.
a. Par I, SRP Actions.
What part of the Selective Reenlistment Program (SRP) roster identified airmen who have not applied for a career job reservation?

a. Part I, SRP Actions.
b. Part II, SRP Monitor.
c. Part III, Career Job Reservation (CJR).
d. Part IV, Reenlistment Ineligibility.
c. Part III, Career Job Reservation (CJR).