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279 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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1.How is doctrine applied
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authoritative but not directive
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2. which of the following is the primary guide useed by the AF Medical Service Commanders to accomplish thier mission
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AFDD 2-4.2 Health Services
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3. Why is medical doctrine necessary?
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Guides commanders in using assets
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4. What type of doctrine guides organization and employment of forces within distinct objectives, but is broad in its functional areas and operational environment?
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Operational
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5. Tactical doctrine can be explained best by which of the following examples?
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A car buyer because they can choose specific qualities to fit their individual needs such as speed or safety factors
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6. Which of the following is not one of the three foundational Doctrine statements airmen should become familiar with
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Use of force
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7. while commanders hold ultimate responsibility for morale health and wellness of their personnel, who is responsible for maintaining individual health and fitness?
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Every Airmen
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8. When professional knowledge, medical expertise and technological know-how are combined, what specific AF Medical Service Fountational Doctrine is accomplished?
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Competency
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9. What figure in an AFSC identifies career grouping?
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first
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10. How many parts make up the CFETP?
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2
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11. In what part of the CFETP will you locate the STS (specialty training standard)
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2
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12. Where would you find the specific outline of training goals, milestones, and circled core tasks for area requiring training for the enlisted members within an assigned area?
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Master Training Plan
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13. Which of the following is identified by a Special Experience Identifier?
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Aeromedical Evacuation Technician
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Who is generally the first member of a unit to have contact with patients and performs a great deal of care under the guidance of a physician?
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Aerospace medical service journeyman
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15. When a formalized training program begins and the trainee is primarily focused on developing patient care skills, customer service skills, and beginning to practice leadership and management skills, the trainee is in training to transistion fro the...
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apprentice to the journeyman
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16. why is it important for the 4N0 to develope excellent customer service?
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positively influence the patients visit
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17. Who may request a 4N0 job inventory?
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Career Field Manager
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18. How often is the 4N0 job inventory normally completed?
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Three years
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19. Who is responsible for completing the Graduate Assessment Survey
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Supervisor
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20. What is the purpose of documenting training?
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Document capability, scope of practice and strength and weakness
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21. On what form would you document specific duty postition training that is not listed on the Specially Training Standard
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AF Form 797, JQS continuation/command JQS
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22. When may the AETC Form 156, Student Training Report be removed from the Individual Training Record?
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When the airmen is upgraded from 3 level to 5 level
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23. Where would the NREMT certificate and the CPR card be filed in teh Individual Training Record?
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Part 6 section B
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24. What is a key point that should be considered when conducting in-service training?
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Evaluate learning through performance and tests.
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25. What systen is the primary tool used to make manpower, budget and other important resource allocation decisions for medical personnel
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MEPRS
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26. How are activities grouped on teh Medical Expense and Performance Reporting System
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Type and section
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27. What tool is used to list the personnel assigned to a work center?
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UPMR
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28. which of the following is a funded manpower requirement that defines the position in terms of function, organization, location, skill, grade and any other characteristic needed to clearly define the position.
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Manpower Authorization
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29. Who approves of disapproves an Authorization Change Request
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MAJCOM
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30. Who is responsible for the control, care, use and safeguarding of public property under control of the Air Force?
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Each Individual
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31. Who is the designated individual that is responsible to ensure adequate storage space for medical supplies and equipment, records are mainteain and discipline of supply use?
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Commanders
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32. By training new personnel on proper equipment what is the supervisor likely to prevent?
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Equipment damage and injury to patient
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33. What percentage of medical equipment operation malfunctions are normally attributed to operator error?
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70%
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34. what is the name of the product that is generated through DMLSS and lists information pertaining to all supply and equipment items that have been issued to or turned in from a section?
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Activity issue/turn in summary
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35. what actions should the property custodian take if a backorder item is no longer needed?
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Attempt to cancel the order through MEMO
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36. what should you do if an item has been on backorder for more than 30 days?
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Aske MEMO personnel to check on the order
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37. When does a new property custodian assume responsibility for items on teh property/equipment list?
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Upon signing the custodian receipt/locator list
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38. Before taking over an equipment account, the new equipment custodian must
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conduct a physical inventory of equipment
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39. when may the AF form 601 be destroyed?
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when teh ordered item is added to or taken off the CRL
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40. How often are equipment instpections usually conducted?
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Quarterly
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41. What are the three actions to remember when looking for discrepancies with equipment
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inspect, remove, and report
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42. What is the primary source for recording equipment repair
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AF Form 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt, or Custodian actions/custodial report listing
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43. Who should you contact to obtain the most current procedures and local policy for equipment problems or concerns
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Biomedical equipment repair technician
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44. Which of the following defines nonmaleficence
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the duty to do no harm
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45. Which of the following defines fidelity?
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Acting in a responsible manner
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46. What specifically defines the scope of practice of the 4N0 career field
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STS
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47. What are patient responsibilities designed to do?
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Protect other patients and health care workers
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48. Each medical treatment facility must develop a local policy that includes circumstances requiring the presence of a third party during an examination or treatment at the request of the provider or patient for which of the follow responsibilities?
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Chaperone
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49. During which stage of the grieving process is is most imporotant to allow a patient to do most of the talking?
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Depression stage
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50. Which form is used to inform the patient the purpose and uses of information collected in their medical record?
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DD Form 2005
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51. WHy is the DD Form 2005, Privacy Act Statement-Health Care Records used when providing medical care?
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Eliminates the need for a privace act statement with each medical or dental document.
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52. Which category of personnel does the Health Insurance portability and accountability act affect?
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Anyone handling patient information
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53. For general guidance regarding the HIPAA, use...
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DOD Regulation 6025.18-R
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which phase of a patient relationship is described by establishing the identity and role of the parient and the health care worker and clarifying the reason for the appointment or hospitalization
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Introductory
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which of the following is considered a barrier to effective communication
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talking too much
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who is consisdered the patient advocate
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every staff member
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who is and excellent resource to guide a patient tha tis haveing difficulty understanding facility procedure or off base referral services
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patient advocate
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what is the purpose of the patient advocacy program?
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to provide and unbiased third party
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what is the purpose of customer service surveys used in the medical treatment facility?
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collect feedback and determine ways to better serve the patients
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should technicians give medical advice over the phone?
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No, advice over the phone leads to inaccurate self treatment and is legally risky
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how should you handle a non emergent telephone call for the provider if he/she is with a patient and the caller does not want to hold
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take a message and hand it to the provider at the earliest opportunity
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which of the following is an appropriate way to help relieve a patients stress
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remain honest and in control to decrease the patients anxiety
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Analysis of performance and health status is the responsibility of which primary care management team member?
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the nurse
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what four components make up the PCM team
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Provider, Nurse, med tech and health service managment tech
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when a PCM team is successful in achieving the team goal, what must each member do
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contribute at their highest level of scope of practice
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it is important for a health care team to work in harmoney to ensure
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the best care is provided to our customers
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which one of the following is not a habit of successful PCM teams
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being punctual
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who is ultimately responsible for establishing an individuals eligibility for medical care in the DEERS
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MPF
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At what age are children required to have their own ID cards
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10
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when a patient requests medical care but has questionable eligibility you should...
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have a nurse or other competent medical authority perform a risk assessment
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if a patient has an emergency and you do not know eligibilty for care you should...
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provide the patient care and then determine eligibility
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Patients treated without initial proof of eligibility must sign a statement saying they will provide eligibilty documentation within what time frame?
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30 days
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when confirming a patients information which of the following information systems would you rely on to capture, edit, and maintain sponsor/family demographics
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DEERS
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enrollment from DEERS is sent to the MTF at least
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quarterly
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if you are working in CHCS what function would not be available for you to use
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out patient coding
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if you are trying to determine the deployment status of a unti what system should you use that will support force health protection, population health, and MHS optimization
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AHLTA
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when patient care is not documented what can be assumed about the patients treatment
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no care or treatment was accomplished
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before managed care who shouldered the responsibility for follow-up care
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patient
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the ICD-9 is divided into how many sections?
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4
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what does the abbreviation NEC stand for when used in ICD-9
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Not elsewhere classified
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what are the 4 sections of ICD-9
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coding guidelines, disease alphabetical index, disease tabular list, appendixes
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How does the anatomical lateral position differ from the term medial
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away from the midline of the body or body part
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a line projecting at right angles to the plane of motion best describes which of the following body movements
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axis of joint rotation
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you are double checking the doctors orders before going into one of your patients. mrs jones room, what would it mean for mrs jones if the doctors orders are written NPO
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may not eat or drink anything
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you have just completed screening a patient with and appointment for blurred vision in the right eye. How should you document this information correctly
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patient complains of blurred vision-right eye
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you would not find which of the following components in the cytoplasm of a cell
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nucleus
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the network of tubules that moves molecules within the cell is the
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endoplasmic reticulum
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what part of the cell provides the primary source of cellular energy
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Mitochondria
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what part of the cell plays and important role in processing proteins within the cell and other areas of the body?
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ribosomes
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which phase of mitosis would signify that the nucleus of the cell is actually dividing
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anaphase
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in what part of the cell life cycle would the cell continue to grow unti it divided again?
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interphase
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How does the anatomical lateral position differ from the term medial
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away from the midline of the body or body part
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a line projecting at right angles to the plane of motion best describes which of the following body movements
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axis of joint rotation
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you are double checking the doctors orders before going into one of your patients. mrs jones room, what would it mean for mrs jones if the doctors orders are written NPO
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may not eat or drink anything
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you have just completed screening a patient with and appointment for blurred vision in the right eye. How should you document this information correctly
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patient complains of blurred vision-right eye
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you would not find which of the following components in the cytoplasm of a cell
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nucleus
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the network of tubules that moves molecules within the cell is the
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endoplasmic reticulum
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what part of the cell provides the primary source of cellular energy
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Mitochondria
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what part of the cell plays and important role in processing proteins within the cell and other areas of the body?
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ribosomes
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which phase of mitosis would signify that the nucleus of the cell is actually dividing
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anaphase
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in what part of the cell life cycle would the cell continue to grow unti it divided again?
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interphase
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the complicated process responsible for the distinction of cell characteristics is known as
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cell differentiation
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what type of tissue is found in the spinal cord
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nervous
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what type of tissue can change its shape?
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muscle
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because of its striated appearance, which tissue is similar to skeletal muscle tissue
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cardiac muscle
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which muscle is attached to the eyelid
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levator palpebrea superioris
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aqueous humor fills the space between the cornea and the
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iris
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what part of the eye is largely responsible for viewing dimly lit images
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rods
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what nerve is the pathway to vision
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optic
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the auditory ossicles are located in the
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middle ear
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movement of the stapes causes stimulation of fluid within the
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cochlea
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what is the system of chambers and tubes within the inner ear called?
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labyrinth
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which of the following is a nasal air passageway
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middle meatus
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odors are described as belonging to which of these groups
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seven primary odors, or a combination of at least two of them
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what part of the nasal cavity does the superior meatus, middle meatus and inferior meatus make up
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the nasal conchae
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the layer of the epidermis that is next to the deepest layer is the
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stratum spinosum
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which glands play a role in keeping the hair and skin soft and waterproof?
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sebaceous
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the nail grows out ward from the white area at the base called the
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lunula
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what substance is secreted by the sebaceous gland?
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sebum
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pigmentation is attributed to
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melanin
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what substance does melanocyte produce
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melanin
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where would you find very little compact bone in the skeletal system?
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bone ends
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where are nerves and blood vessels contained in the bone
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medullary cavity
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what bones are usually located within tendons where pressure is frequently applied
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sesamoid
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what is the name of the triangular shaped bone that lies over the anterior portion of the knee joint
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patella
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the epimysium is located beneath the
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fascia
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what type of muscle is skeletal muscle
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voluntary; striated
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the muscle layer that lies just below the epimysium is the
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perimysium
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what attaches skeletal muscles to bones
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ligament
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what type of joint joins the distal end of the tibia and fibula
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syndesmosis
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what type of joint connects the sternum and the first rib
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sychondrosis
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what fluid acts as a joint lubricant and a nutrient supplier for cartilage within the joint
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synovial
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the valve that leads from the right atrium to the right ventricle is the
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tricuspid valve
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what is the term for the muscular portion of the heart
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myocardium
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what is the valve between the left atrium and the left ventricle
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bicuspid/ mitral
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what cells are responsible for the clotting action in blood
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Platelets
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The pressure in the blood vessels when the heart is at rest between contractions is the
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diastolic blood pressure
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what vein returns blood back to the heart from the lower body
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Inferior vena cave
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what is the only vein that carries oxygenated blood?
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pulmonary
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what is the purpose of the lymphatic system
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defends the body against infection and removes excess fluid
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vessels that lead out of the lymph nodes are called
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efferent lymphatic vessels
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what is the largest lymphatic organ
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spleen
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lymph is transported through the lymphatic trunk directly to the
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collecting duct
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what special organs do the larger lymphatic vessels lead to?
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lymph nodes
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what part of the lymph system acts as a filter
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nodes
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what lymphatic organ is located in the mediastinum between the aorta and the sternum
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thymus
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where does lymph from the right lymphatic duct empty
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Right subclavian vein
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Once excess fluid from the body tissue enters lymphatica capillaries it is known as
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lymph
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The larynx is composed of how many cartilages
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three single and three paired cartilages
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what part of the lower respiratory system does air travel to and from the lungs through a cylindrical tube composed of cartilage
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trachea
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during inhalation, the intercostal muscular contraction premits the ribs to move
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forward and slightly upward
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the amount of air that enters and leaves the lungs with each natual respiration is know as
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tidal volume
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the small spaces between neurons are called the
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synapses
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what type of neuron has one axon extending from one end of the soma and one dendrite extending from the other
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bipolar
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the part of the brain stem that connects to the spinal cord is the
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medulla oblongata
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what are the three major parts of the brain
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cerebellum, cerebrum, and brain stem
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what is the function of the interior of the cerebrum
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storing knowledge
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what is the name of the large intersection of interlaced spinal nerves
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plexus
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what cranial nerve is responsible for the sensation of sight
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optic
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what cranial nerve conveys taste
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glossopharangeal
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the fight or flight reaction is controlled by the
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sypathetic nervous system
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the parasympathetic nervous system is designed to
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prevent extensive overworking of the body
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where is the sigmoid colon
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LLQ
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the layer fo the alimentary canal that is respnsible for movement of substances throught the canal is the
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muscular
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what part of the alimentary canal is between the pharynx and the stomach
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esophogus
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the ileoccecal valve in the small intestince connects to the
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cecum
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what is the difference in the number of primary teeth and the number of permanent teeth a person will develope
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12
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where will undigested chime go after leaving the ileum
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cecum
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which organ absorbs beneficial water for use by the body
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colon
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what gland secretes a substance to moisten food particles and help with swallowing
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salivary
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what liquid is produced by the liver and is stored in the gall bladder
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bile
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Kidneys are in the posterior abdominal cavity and extend from the
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thoracic to the lumbar spinal region
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what is the primary function of the renal cortex
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protect kidney functions in the renal medulla
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back flow of urine into the ureters is prevented by
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a flap of mucous membrane
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the urge to urinate is usually first experiencially when the bladder contains approximately
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250cc urine
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what part fo the kidney filters blood to remove waste and regulate water and electrolyte concentrations
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Nephron
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the testes are oval - shaped structures that are made of
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connective tissue
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the coiled tubule located on the top and to the side of each teste is the
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epididymus
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what is the tubule that leads from the urinary bladder to the exterior of the body
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urethra
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where are sperm cells produced
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testes
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fluid is secreted from the seminal vesicles to help carry sperm through the
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ejaculatory duct
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what is the inner wall of the uterus called
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endometrium
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what happens to the ovum after sperm fertilizes it
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travels to the the uterus and attaches to the endometrium
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the second phase of the menstrual cycle begins when
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an ovum is released from one of the ovaries
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what is the term used to describe the first menstrual cycle that occurs once puberty is reached
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menarche
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what hormone is secreted during the menstrual cycle
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progesterone
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the pituitary gland is divided into two sections call the
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anterior and posterior
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which organ secretes the adrenocorticotropic hormone
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anterior lobe of the pituitary gland
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which hormone accounts for the majority of the thyroid hormones
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thyroxine
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which part of the adrenal gland makes up most of it
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adrenal cortex
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which one of the following mishap investigations responsibilities would reside withthe flight surgeon and not the majcom
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Identify and prevent future mishaps
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locally who is responsible for reporting mishaps
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each individual
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specifially, who makes the final determination on return to flying status when the aircrew are treated in other clinics
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any flight surgeon
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which of the following is a unique characteristic of the solid porpellant used in most missile systems
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once ignited, it cannot be extinguished
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which of the following convernes would be considered primary physical hazards for personnel assigned to Missile Alert Facilities
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Sanitation, food, water, and facility safety
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what are the primary operational hazards for personnel who work at a missile alert facility
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motor vehicle accidents and the environment
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record mishaps as aircraft flight mishaps when...
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there is an intent for flight
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whenever a mishap results in reportable damage of 1,000,000 dollars or more you must report it as what class of mishap
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A
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if an unmanned aerial vehicle crashes in Afghanistan, what is the procedure for determining whether it is reportable as an unmanned aerial vehicle mishap
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determine if another DoD aircraft was involved
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when responding to a mishap you should approach the scene from what direction
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upwind
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what action should you take prior to removin human remains from the scene of an aircraft mishap
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photograph the site
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what solution should you use when preparing tissue and skin samples for autopsy analysis
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betadine
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what steps need to be completed befor completing an aircraft mishap report
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compile all necessary data
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how should you report an event that is categorized as a physiological episode
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class E mishap
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Class E physiological events are reported by message using the format found in
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AFI 91-204 Safety Investigation and reports
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the overall purpose of flight line visits is to
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promote flying safety
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what is your specific responsibility to the life support section
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provide advice to unit personnel of protective equipment programs
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which of the following are all rated officers
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Navigators, flight surgeons, and pilots
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what do you do with the orifinal AF Form 1042 after it is completed
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file it in the individuals health record
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how many years must the AF Form 1041 be kept on file
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two
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who is responsible to train aircrew in the emergency removal of soft contact lenses
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Optometry
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what steps are necessary to a safe an productive soft contact lens program
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Identification , documentation and evaluation
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what is the primary device a computer uses to store information
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zip drive
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what program emphasizes information protection precepts and promotes consistent application of security principles in the use of Air Force information systems
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LINK
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what administrative tool shows every record series maintained for an office of record
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Files Plan
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what is the purpose of the physical examinations processing program
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track physical exams for flying and special operations personnel
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once you arrive at the knowledge exchange webpage what should be the next step to begin training on the physical examinations processing program database
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click on the "aerospace medicine" tab
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what step must you take before you can use the physical examinations processing program database
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set up an account through the air force portal
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when you input medical information on military member into Preventative health assessment individual medical readiness program, to what system does it connect
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AFCHIPS
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what can you determine when you review a military members individual medical readiness status is yellow
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items are outdated or need attention
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a supervisor has access to what additional tabs in the air force complete immunizations tracking application (AFCITA)
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set up and data management
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what step should you take if you have a patient that experiences an adverse reaction
|
go to the menu bar fro the VAERS website
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what steps might you need to take before you can access AFCITA
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You must see you local AFCITA program manager, have an account established and have the program loaded on your computer
|
|
|
what function does the Aeromedical information management waiver tracking system serve
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tracks waivers for personnel on flying or special ops status
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what step must you complete first to complete initial waivers within aeromedica information management waiver tracking system
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enter the patients demographics
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what do you do once the aeromedical information management waiver tracking system process is completed
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place information in patient record
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|
the medical standards, the frequency scope and instructions for completing required physical exams properly are specified in
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AFI 28-123
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|
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During a physical exam, the depth of evaluation of a body system depends on primarily
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the type of medical exam
|
|
|
the format and procedures for conducting and recording a physical exam are found in
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AFPAM 48-133
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where is teh AF Form 422 established on officers entering the AF
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first permanent duty station
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|
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Members with 4T profiles must have the AF Form 422 reviewed every
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30 days
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How many human function factors are considered in the physical profile serial
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Six
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which factor would apply to an individual who has organic defects of the ears
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P-physical condition
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|
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what is the main consideration under the E physical profile factor
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Distant visual acuity only
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|
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a strength aptitude test is rated in which profile factor
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X
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what organization authorizes an L suffix on AF Form 422
|
HQ AFPC
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|
|
members may be retained on the temporary disability retired list for no more than
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5 years
|
|
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what is the first step in the AF disability evaluation process
|
initiate MEB
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|
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when would disability compensation not be authorized
|
injury occurred during and unauthorized absence
|
|
|
what step must be taken if a military member has been discharged after being admitted to a hospital
|
records must be reviewed to identify correct profile actions
|
|
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what should you do if potentially disqualifying information is discovered during a records review
|
refer the case to a flight surgeon
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|
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who owns health records
|
united states government
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what must occur to ensure health records are maintained according to air force and joint commission on accreditation of healthcare organization standards
|
MTF reviews
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|
|
where is the original medical record maintained on deployed active duty and ARC personnel
|
home base MTF
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|
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in which section of the outpatient record is every completed SF 600 filed
|
section 2
|
|
|
you encounter a record of a member on flying status that has not been identified correctly what step should you take to make the record identifiable as a member on flying status
|
Stamp the word FLY in 2 inch block letters in the upper left corner of the front cover
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|
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In what division of the atmosphere will the phenomena of weather mostly occur
|
troposphere
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|
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where is the greatest barometric pressure found
|
troposphere
|
|
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as altitude increases barometric pressure will
|
decrease
|
|
|
what method of measuring altitude is used to measure the distance from the aircraft to the ground directly below it
|
absolute altitude
|
|
|
what gas law explains the way in which ascent to altitude induces hypoxia
|
Daltons law
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|
|
what is the main contributing factor to in flight noise
|
air rushing over the canopy
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|
|
the best description of in-flight noise is it
|
increases with airspeed and decreases with altitude
|
|
|
what environment stress has the greatest influence on G intolerance
|
heat
|
|
|
special diet control is important to many aircrew members because it
|
reduces the incidence of gas pains
|
|
|
what causes an aircrew members circadian rhythm to be affected on a cross country flight
|
crossing time zones
|
|
|
air sickness during pilot training is usually due to
|
lack of adaptation
|
|
|
what is the most common type of hypoxia
|
hypoxic hypoxia
|
|
|
what type of hypoxia may be caused by alcohol abuse
|
histotoxic
|
|
|
the cardiovascular and respiratory systems may compensate for hypoxia at altitudes up to how many feet
|
10,000
|
|
|
what is the prime consideration when treating hypoxia
|
providing the aircrew member with adequate oxygen
|
|
|
what is the most effective treatment for hyperventilation
|
reducing the rate and depth of breathing
|
|
|
hypoxia is most frequently caused by
|
equipment malfunction
|
|
|
which of the following is not a factor of decompression sickness
|
rate of descent
|
|
|
how are occurrences of decompression sickness symptoms relative to age
|
increases with age
|
|
|
how many hours should an individual wait to fly following diving activities
|
24 hours
|
|
|
what are the usual sites for bends pains
|
shoulders, elbows, knees, and ankles
|
|
|
which symptom is the most specific early symptom of the chokes
|
substernal pain
|
|
|
which sensation is not associated with skin manifestations of decompression sickness
|
numbness
|
|
|
one method of protecting aircrew members against decompression sickness is by restricting aerial flight to what maximum cabin altitude
|
FL 250
|
|
|
what is the best way to administer oxygen while treating decompression sickness
|
aviators mask
|
|
|
what is the maximum flying altitude for unpressurized aircraft when transporting a patient suffering from decompression sickness
|
1000 ft
|
|
|
how many hours must an individual not fly following complete resolution of symptoms of the bends
|
72 hours
|
|
|
Positive G forces affect the diaphragm by doing what to the viscera
|
push them down
|
|
|
In what direction are negative G forces applied
|
foot to head
|
|
|
the anti-G straining maneuver is performed during the
|
expiratory phase against a partially closed glottis
|
|
|
which of the senses of orientation is considered to be reliable in flight
|
visual
|
|
|
what sensory system is often referred to as the seat of the pants sense
|
proprioceptive
|
|
|
what is the most common sensory illusion resulting from stimulation of the semicircular canals
|
the leans
|
