Reading...
Play button
Play button
Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
472 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
|
The estimated percent of accidents caused by nature is
|
2
|
|
|
The safety training phase described as an effective tool that creates a lasting impression for new airman is
|
initial
|
|
|
The responsibility for initiating a lost tool report belongs to the
|
person issued the tool
|
|
|
The lowest person authourized to clear a red X when a lost tool cannot be located is the
|
maintenance superintendent
|
|
|
The optimum tempature to cool sealants mixed in an automatic mixing machine is
|
70 F
|
|
|
Temporary storage of hazardous materials as a central accumulation point cannot exceed
|
90 days
|
|
|
Hazardous Waste Management System rules are published by
|
the EPA
|
|
|
Radiation hazards are affected by
|
strength of emission, time of exposure, and weather
|
|
|
Normally the safe distance behind an operating jet engine exhaust is
|
200 feet
|
|
|
The noise intensity of a jet engine is greatest toward the rear at a
|
45 degree angle at either side
|
|
|
The symptom that isnot a sign of noise fatigue is
|
a feeling of emptiness
|
|
|
A fire extinguisher's pressure i within a safe operating range when the gauge needle is within the
|
green markings
|
|
|
Aircraft oxygen servicing or draining is prohibited within how many feet of hangars or structures?
|
50
|
|
|
Individuals not directly involved in nitrogen servicing should be outside a
|
20 foot radius
|
|
|
Under ideal conditions, an aircraft is said to be operationally ready when
|
the required inspection and servicing are complete
|
|
|
As fireguard, position yourself even with the
|
nose of the aircraft and at a 45 degree angle outboard of the engine being started
|
|
|
The condition most likely to cause aircraft damage is
|
sudden local storms
|
|
|
If no maximum wind velocity is specified in the aircraft technical order, the maximum wind velocity, as prescribed by Air Force Occupational Safety and Health Standard 91-100 (Aircraft flight line-Ground operations and activities) allowed during aircraft jacking is
|
15 mph
|
|
|
During desert operations, lubrication should be done
|
only when necessary, and then sparingly
|
|
|
The F-2 lifting bag is designed to lift
|
24,000 pounds to a maximum height of 6'
|
|
|
A major drawback of using pneumatic lifting bags is
|
instability
|
|
|
The method of aircraft hoisting confined to emergencies when no other method is available is
|
crane hoisting
|
|
|
The type of technical order library that does not need to maintain its currency is
|
reference
|
|
|
In the second grouping of a TO number, the alpha character in parentheses means the
|
modified aircraft mission
|
|
|
The total number of Air Force TO catalogs is
|
one
|
|
|
The directional flow of the schematics in the troubleshooting manual is from the
a. top of the diagram to the bottom of the diagram b. resulting action to the system initiating the action c. left side of the diagram to the right side of the diagram d. right side of the diagram to the left side of the diagram |
c. left side of the diagram to the right side of the diagram
|
|
|
Inspection workcards are known as
a. scheduled inspection and maintenance requirements manuals b. methods and procedure technical orders c. technical manuals d. abbreviated TO |
d. abbreviated TO
|
|
|
Due to their potential for harm, commanders are required to ensure immediate action TCTO are distributed to all affected personnel within
a. 2 hours after receipt b. 4 hours after receipt c. 24 hours after reciept d. 72 hours after reciept |
b. 4 hours after reciept
|
|
|
The type of TO improvement issued for all TCTO deficiencies is
a. record b. urgent c. routine d. emergency |
b. urgent
|
|
|
The nondirective publication that may cite forms and provide guidance on completing them, but can't enforce what's on the form is
a. directory b. pamphlet c. instruction d. supplement |
b. pamphlet
|
|
|
In order of increasing capability, the Air Force's varying degrees of maintenance capabilities are
a. departmental, intermediate, or field b. organizational, field, or intermediate c. organizational, intermediate, or depot d. departmental, organizational, or depot |
c. organizational, intermediate, or depot
|
|
|
The type of maintenance that ensures equipment is ready and available at the time of need is
a. unscheduled b. preventive c. corrective d. protective |
b. preventive
|
|
|
The most common excuse for taking short cuts is
a. time restraints b. people shortage c. money shortage d. parts availability |
a. time restraints
|
|
|
The prime contributors to dropped objects are
a. chaff/flare discharges b. latches and fasteners c. jettisoned fuel tanks d. hung weapons |
b. latches and fasteners
|
|
|
In most units, the responsibility for investigating dropped objects rests with
a. the FOD prevention office b. the operations c. the flight safety officer d. quality assurance |
d. quality assurance
|
|
|
The first step in developing an effective FOD prevention program is to
a. ensure the tool control program is functioning properly b. identify all possible sources of FOD c. follow MAJCOM guidelines d. educate all personnel |
b. identify all possible sources of FOD
|
|
|
The responsibility for FOD prevention belongs to
a. the logisitics and operations group commanders b. the immediate supervisor c. the wing commander d. everyone |
d. everyone
|
|
|
The method that cannot be used to search for lost tools is
a. x-ray b. depaneling c. visual search d. magnetic particle |
d. magnetic particle
|
|
|
The information that the configuration management subsystem ensures is loaded properly into the maintenance information system database is
a. damaged and spare items b. expired and outdated items c. recurring and repeat replacement items d. select serially controlled and time change items |
d. select serially controlled and time change items
|
|
|
The IMDS is the production-oriented, automated maintenance manangement system at the
a. MAJCOM level b. wing level c. base level d. unit level |
c. base level
|
|
|
The IMDS subsystem that provides information about jobs performed by maintenance activites is the
a. Job Data Documentation b. maintenance data collection c. Maintenance information system d. reliability and maintainability system |
a. Job Data documentation
|
|
|
The GAS is normally sent out
a. 90 days after gradutation b. six months after graduation c. withing 10 work days after gradutation d. within 10 calendar days after graduation |
a. 90 days after graduation
|
|
|
A list of training courses available for an AFSC can be found in the
a. CFETP, Part I b. AFJQS c. Command JQS d. CFETP, Part II |
d. CFETP, Part II
|
|
|
Tasks that a person is expected to perform in a duty position or WC but are not included in the CFETP, Part II, or AFJQS are listed
a. on AF Form 797, Job Qualification Standard Continuation/Command JQS b. in the AF IMT 623A, on-the-job training record continuation sheet c. in the CFETP, Part I d. in the AFJQS |
a. on an AF Form 797, Job Qualification Standard Continutation/Command JQS
|
|
|
The first step taken when reviewing an Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) 244 is to
a. match the ID number on the form with the ID number on the unit b. ensure all TCTO's have been done c. check the operational status of the unit d. check the inspection status of the unit |
a. match the ID number on the form with the ID number on the unit
|
|
|
The two maintenance stands on which C-1 maintenance stand can be installed as an extension are the
a. B-1 and B-2 b. B-1 and B-4 c. B-2 and B-4 d. B-4 and B-5 |
b. B-1 and B-2
|
|
|
The maintenance stand that is a scissor type is
a. B-1 b. B-2 c. B-4 d. C-1 |
c. B-4
|
|
|
The lifting assembly of an aircraft jack is called a
a. ram b. plunger c. hand pump d. release valve |
a. ram
|
|
|
The low and high pressure capapbilities, in psig, of the NSU-L75 nitrogen servicing unit are
a. 0-300; 300-3,500 b. 0-300; 300-3,600 c. 05-350; 350-3,500 d. 05-350; 350-3,600 |
d. 05- 350; 350-3,600
|
|
|
The usable pressure range, measured in psi, of the MC-1A air compressor is
a. 0-200 psi b. 0-350 psi c. 0-3,200 psi d. 05-3,500 psi |
c. 0-3,200 psi
|
|
|
The MC-2A air compressor is capable of delivering air at a maximum pressure, measured in psi, of
a. 200 b. 300 c. 3,500 d. 3,600 |
a. 200
|
|
|
The maximum BTUs per hour output of the H-1 heater is
a. 160,000 b. 350,000 c. 400,000 d. 650,000 |
c. 400,000
|
|
|
The new generation heater oil burner and combustion blower are powered by
a. 12-volt battery b. a diesel engine c. 60- Hz alternator d. 60- volt generator |
c. 60- Hz alternator
|
|
|
The temperature range the C-10 air conditioner is capable of delivering conditioned air at is
a. 47 F to 150 F b. 47 F to 200 F c. 57 to 150 F d. 57 to 200 F |
b. 47 F to 200 F
|
|
|
The FL-1D floodlight consists of two
a. 100 watt lamp fixtures b. 1,000 watt lamp fixtures c. 10,000 watt lamp fixtures d. 110,000 watt lamp fixtures |
b. 1,000 watt fixtures
|
|
|
The unit capable of providing
AC and DC electrical power, in addition to pneumatic power, for ground maintenance is the a. A/M32A-95 b. A/M32A-86 c. A/M32A-60 d. AF/M-32R-3 |
c. A/M32A-60
|
|
|
The MK-3A-1 is driven by a(n)
a. diesel engine b. electric motor c. gasoline engine d. hydraulic motor |
b. electric motor
|
|
|
The MB-4 tractor incorporates
a. two-wheel steering, two wheel drive b. two- wheel steering four wheel drive c. four-wheel steering, two wheel drive d. four-wheel steering, four wheel drive |
d. four-wheel steering, four wheel drive
|
|
|
Aluminum alloy washers are used with steel bolts on aluminum alloy parts in low-torque applications to
a. reduce shearing b. prevent vibration c. prevent corrosion d. reduce shimming |
c. prevent corrosion
|
|
|
Special bolts are identified by
a. a zinc plated nickel steel covering b. a galvanized plated steel covering c. the bolt head marked with a triangle d. the bolt head marked with the letter S. |
d. the bolt head with the letter S.
|
|
|
The bolt used where heavy tension or lengthwise stress must be sustained is a(n)
a. stud b. clevis c. eyebolt d. hexhead |
d. hexhead
|
|
|
The number of threads that must be showing through a self-locking nut for maximum locking effect is at least
a. one b. two c. three d. four |
b. two
|
|
|
Aircraft cable size is determined by its
a. length b. radius c. diameter d. circumference |
c. diameter
|
|
|
A 7x19 cable has
a. 7 strands with 19 wires per strand b. 7 wires with 19 strands per wire c. 133 wires per strand d. 133 strands per wire |
a. 7 strands with 19 wires per strand
|
|
|
The correct way to detect broken wires on a cable is to
a. pass a cloth along the length of cable b. use a strong light along the length of cable c. carefully run your hand along the length of the cable d. pass a thin piece of paper along the length of the cable |
a. pass a cloth along the length of cable.
|
|
|
A push-pull rod end engagement is checked
a. using a depth gauge to check end play b. by ensuring no later movement exists c. using inside caliper to check the rod end bearing d. by inserting safety wire in the hole in the end of the terminal |
d. by inserting safety wire in the hole in the end of the terminal
|
|
|
A hose may bear a colored indicator stripe to show
a. the contents of fluid passing through the hose b. the type of material the hose is made of c. its direction of natural lay d. the direction of fluid flow |
c. its direction of natural lay
|
|
|
When using 0.032-gage safety wire, there should be how many turns per inch?
a. 7-12 b. 8-10 c. 8-12 d. 10-13 |
a. 7-12
|
|
|
When securing widely spaced bolts by the double-twist safetying method, the maximum number of bolts that may be wired in a series is
a. three b. four c. five d. six |
a. three
|
|
|
When is it permissible to reuse cotter pins?
a. never b. in emergencies c. when the mission dictates it d. when they are constructed of pliable material |
a. never
|
|
|
To tighten cannon plugs, do not use
a. fingers b. strap wrench c. channel lock pliers d. padded conduit pliers |
c. channel lock pliers
|
|
|
The number of positions on the function switch of the AN/PSM-37 multimeter is
a. two b. three c. five d. seven |
d. seven
|
|
|
To measure current flow, you connect an A/M32A-37 multimeter in
a. series in circuit b. parallel in the circuit c. series with the component d. parallel with the component |
a. series in circuit
|
|
|
When the H symbol is shown on the Fluke multimeter, the letters OL indicate
a. error b. infinity c. overload d. ohms low |
c. overload
|
|
|
Prior to using a torque wrench, cycle the torque wrench through the breakaway torque at the
a. maximum setting at least four times b. maximum setting at least six times c. lowest setting at least four times d. lowest setting at least six times |
b. maximum setting at least six times
|
|
|
The responsibility for ensuring good supply discipline is practiced resides with
a. base commanders b. squadron commanders c. supervisors at all levels d. squadron quality assurance (QA) section |
c. supervisors at all levels
|
|
|
Shop stock should not normally exceed
a. 30-days usage or the unit of issue (U/I) or unit pack, which ever is greater b. 60-days usage or the unit of issue (U/I) or unit pack, which ever is greater c. 90-days usage or the unit of issue (U/I) or unit pack, which ever is greater d. 120-days usage or the unit of issue (U/I) or unit pack, which ever is greater |
c. 90-days usage or the unit of issue (U/I) or unit pack, which ever is greater
|
|
|
The expandability, recoverability, reparability code that designates a repair cycle asset is
a. XB b. XF c. ND d. DX |
a. XF
|
|
|
Consumable items are identified by the expandability, recoverability, and reparability code (ERRC)
a. XB3 b. XC3 c. XD3 d. XF3 |
a. XB3
|
|
|
The DD Forms easily identified by their green margins and letters are the
a. 1577, Unservicable (Reparable) Tag- Materiel, and 1577-3, Unservicable (Reparable) Tag- Materiel b. 1576 test modification tag-materiel, and 1575-1, suspended label- materiel c. 1575, suspended tag- materiel, and 1575-1, suspended label-materiel d. 1574, servicable tag- materiel, and 1574-1, servicable label- materiel |
a. 1577-2, unserviceable (reparable) tag- materiel, and 1577-3, unserviceable reparable label- materiel
|
|
|
The deficiency report (DR) category that results in a work line stoppage is
a. I b. II c. III d. IV |
a. I
|
|
|
Engines overhauled by depot are covered against defects in workmanship for
a. 200 hours of operation or one year from the date of reciept b. 100 hours of operation or one year from the date of reciept c. 200 hours of operation or six months from the date of reciept d. 100 hours of operation or six months from the date of reciept |
b. 100 hours of operation or one year from the date of reciept
|
|
|
The Air Force Technical Order Form 781 must be removed from the forms binder
a. before the first flight of the day b. before each thruflight inspection c. after the event number is entered at the maintenance debriefing d. after each maintenance action with an assigned job control number |
c. after the event number is entered at the maintenance debriefing
|
|
|
The Air Force Technical Order Form 781 K is used to document
a. support general work b. replacement items c. daily flying time d. engine data |
d. engine data
|
|
|
Responsibility for maintaining the Air Force Technical Order 781-series forms binder rests with the
a. crew chief b. flight chief c. branch chief d. section chief |
a. crew chief
|
|
|
The action necessary to clear an erroneous red X symbol is
a. an authorized individual signs the INSPECTED BY block and initials over the symbol b. an authorized individual signs the CORRECTED BY block and initials over the symbol c. place the statement "symbol entered in error" in the DISCREPANCY block and sign the INSPECTED BY block d. place this statement "symbol entered in error" in the DISCREPANCY block and sign the CORRECTED BY block |
a. an authorized individual signs the INSPECTED BY block and initials over the symbol
|
|
|
The symbol entered on the forms if an aircraft exceeds the PDM cycle by 90 days and an extension is not granteed is a
a. red X b. red dash c. red diagonal d. black signature |
a. red x
|
|
|
The inspection section usually performed just prior to takeoff and that may include operational checks of some systems is the
a. preflight b. thruflight c. in progress d. end of runway |
d. end of runway
|
|
|
The BPO is performed to
a. prepare the aircraft for another flight b. determine the flight status of the aircraft c. prepare the aircraft for the first flight of the day d. determine if the aircraft is suitable for another flight |
d. determine if the aircraft is suitable for another flight
|
|
|
If an aircraft is idle for more than 30 or 90 days, the inspection required is
a. phase b. special c. calendar d. acceptance |
c. calendar
|
|
|
The type of inspection that ensures the completeness of historical documents is
a. phase b. special c. calendar d. acceptance |
d. acceptance
|
|
|
The AF IMT 2691 is used to
a. serve as a reciept document b. serve as a shipping document c. transfer aircraft -21 equipment d. account for aircraft -21 equipment |
d. account for aircraft -21 equipment
|
|
|
Corrosion or deterioration of a metal part continues until the part is
a. painted b. heat treated c. chemically treated d. exhausted or salvaged |
d. exhausted or salvaged
|
|
|
Galvanic corrosion occurs when
a. a combination of corrosion and tensile stress are present b. different metals are in contact with each other and an electrolyte c. there is a chemical difference between the boundary materials and core material of the metal grains d. water and oxygen sets between two or more areas of a similar metal in contact with each other |
b. different metals are in contact with each other and an electrolyte
|
|
|
The frequency of cleaning an aircraft exterior depends, for the most part, on
a. structural design b. environmental conditions c. the mission of the aircraft d. corrosion treatments available |
b. environmental conditions
|
|
|
The type of cleaners not very effective on grease, but excellent for interior lightly soiled areas, plastics, and instrument glass covers is
a. solvents b. alkaline c. detergent d. solvent emulsion |
c. detergent
|
|
|
The solution used to treat areas affected with electrolyte from a lead-acid battery is
a. potassium hydroxide b. aluminum hydroxide c. sodium bicarbonate d. boric acid |
c. sodium bicarbonate
|
|
|
On the F-15 aircraft, what is the useable pressure range for the LOX system?
a. 35-75 psi b. 55-90 psi c. 75-100 psi d. 95-120 psi |
b. 55-90 psi
|
|
|
On the F-15 aircraft, what can the maintainer or aircrew use to check the oxygen indication system?
a. oxygen test switch b. oxygen quantity switch c. oxygen pressure test switch d. oxygen regulator test switch |
a. oxygen test switch
|
|
|
On the F-15 aircraft, the product gas in the MSOGS that does not go to the console-mounted regulators
a. returns to the molecular sieve beds for reprocessing b. ports to the regenerative heat exchanger c. stores in the back up oxygen supply d. dumps overboard |
c. stores in the backup oxygen supply
|
|
|
How does the windshield anti-ice valve operate on the F-15 aircraft?
a. manually b. electrically c. hydraulically d. pneumatically |
b. electrically
|
|
|
On the F-15 aircraft, what component contains the logic circuits for the overheat/fire detection system?
a. BIT panel b. Flashing relay c. control panel d. controllers |
d. controllers
|
|
|
On the F-15 aircraft, what senses the temperature of the left engine bay area when the left engine fire/overheat A loop malfunctions?
a. nothing b. loop B of the left engine c. loop B of the right engine d. loop A of the right engine |
b. loop B of the left engine
|
|
|
On the F-15 aircraft, what part of the AB burn-through system does the BIT control panel test?
a. responders b. switches c. sensors d. none |
d. none
|
|
|
On the F-100 engine, what is the benefit of the modular construction concept?
a. prevents engine vibration b. modular construction decreases the weight of the engine c. allows depot maintenance to ship each module separatley d. allows for removal and replacement of sections of the engine that are bad. |
d. allows for removal and replacement of sections of the engine that are bad.
|
|
|
On the F-15 aircraft, aircraft intake air is prevented from gettting into the engine bay area by
a. a bellmouth seal b. a peripheral seal c. the primary ram air inlet duct d. the secondary ram air inlet duct |
b. peripheral seal
|
|
|
The F-100 engine gearbox module attaches to the
a. compressor intermediate case b. fan inlet case assembly c. rear turbine case d. N1 section |
a. compressor intermediate case
|
|
|
On the F-100 engine, the tips of the FTIT sensors protrude into the
a. 1st stage nozzle guide vanes b. 2nd stage nozzle guide vanes c. 3rd stage nozzle guide vanes d. 4th stage nozzle guide vanes |
c. 3rd stage nozzle guide vanes
|
|
|
The function of the F-100 electronic engine control is to
a. provide history data storage b. trim the convergent exhaust nozzle c. send signals to the cockpit indicators d. supervise the trim of the UFC and CIVV |
d. supervise the trim of the UFC and CIVV
|
|
|
If the outputs from the F-100 electronic engine control deenergize, the engine is trimmed by the
a. MFC b. UFC c. EDU d. electrohydraulic servo valve |
b. UFC
|
|
|
On the F-100 engine, what reduces the fuel flow during engine start?
a. MFC b. fuel flow transmitters c. fuel derichment valve d. fuel depressurizing and dump valve |
c. fuel derichment valve
|
|
|
The F-100 engine exhaust nozzle position transmitter is driven by
a. the convergent exhaust nozzle control b. 115-VAC power c. 26-VAC power d. an air motor |
a. the convergent exhaust nozzle control
|
|
|
How many air/oil coolers are there on the -229 engine?
a. three b. four c. nine d. none |
d. none
|
|
|
When taking a JOAP sample, how much should be drained into a container prior to filling the sample bottle?
a. none b. one pint c. enough to fill the bottle d. enough to wash out any sediment trapped in the drain valve |
d. enough to wash out any sediment trapped in the drain valve
|
|
|
On the F-15 aircraft, which ramp is the last ramp in the air induction system?
a. diffuser b. third c. second d. first |
a. diffuser
|
|
|
On the F-15 aircraft, what does the air induction system use to get rid of the friction air riding on the surface of the ramps?
a. oblique shock wave b. normal shock wave c. bleed air holes d. bypass door |
b. normal shock wave
|
|
|
On the F-15 aircraft, what is the air that retards along the surface of the aircraft while the aircraft is in flight called?
a. mach tuck air b. boundary layer air c. normal shock wave d. obilique shock wave |
b. boundary layer air
|
|
|
On the F-15 aircraft, what type of shock wave begins to form at transonic airspeeds?
a. induced b. oblique c. parasite d. normal |
d. normal
|
|
|
On the F-15 aircraft, the mach blocking solenoid locks the diffuser ramp in the DOWN position by
a. energizing the shutoff valve b. closing the rate limiter valve c. opening the rate limiter valve d. deenergizing the shutoff valve |
b. closing the rate limiter valve
|
|
|
On the F-15 aircraft, which JFS fuel filter component acts like a jet pump?
a. bypass valve b. fuel accumulator c. fuel shutoff vavle d. fluid-flow restrictor |
d. fluid-flow restrictor
|
|
|
On the F-15 aircraft, the purpose of the central gearbox right decoupler position switch is to
a. allow limited duty mode operation b. prevent limited duty mode operation c. sense the position of the clutch control valve d. prevent both decouplers from extending at the same time |
d. prevent both decouplers from extending at the same time
|
|
|
On the F-15 aircraft, what airframe mounted accessory drive switch is commonly called the 50 percent switch?
a. two-speed switch assembly b. oil pump and start cutout c. power turbine overspeed d. right decoupler position |
b. oil pump and start cutout
|
|
|
On the F-15 aircraft, the airframe-mounted accessory drive component that takes the input from the pawl carrier assembly and transmits the rotational force to the power takeoff drive shaft for engine starting is the
a. layshaft b. face gear c. gear train d. pinion gear |
a. layshaft
|
|
|
On the F-15 aircraft, the JFS start handle input is transmitted to the JFS start control manifold by
a. a torque link b. a cable assembly c. hydraulic signal d. an electrical signal |
b. a cable assembly
|
|
|
On the F-15 aircraft, the F-100 engine start cycle begins in the
a. cockpit b. start manifold c. hydraulic components d. fuel and ignition components |
a. cockpit
|
|
|
On the F-15 aircraft, the engine start system permanent magnet generator sends its AC voltage to the
a. JFS igniters b. JFS fuel shutoff valve c. generator control unit d. JFS ignition unit |
c. generator control unit
|
|
|
On the F-15 aircraft, what are the two types of borescopes?
a. rigid and flexible b. remote and stationary c. stationary and portable d. fiber optic and solid core |
a. rigid and flexible
|
|
|
The light for a borescope is transmitted by the
a. lens b. probe c. view finder d. fiber optic cables |
d. fiber optic cables
|
|
|
What should you use periodically to clean the borescope lens?
a. windex b. rubbing alcohol c. isopropyl alcohol d. static lens cleaner |
c. isopropyl alcohol
|
|
|
When may the brightness switch of borescope be turned to high?
a. at night b. when inspecting indoors c. when inspection outdoors d. for long- distance viewing |
d. for long-distance viewing
|
|
|
On the F-15 aircraft, what provides the limits for engine damage found during a borescope inspection?
a. flight manual b. borescope operator's manual c. aircraft engine TO d. past knowledge and experience |
c. aircraft engine TO
|
|
|
On the ignition test set, what monitors the output of energy?
a. stored energy meter b. potentiometer c. toggle switch d. rotary meter |
a. stored energy meter
|
|
|
What supplies power to the engine ignition system during an ignition test?
a. electronic scaler b. light off detector c. electronic transmitter d. alternator simulator output |
d. alternator simulator output
|
|
|
On the F-15 aircraft, the PC system hydraulic pumps are located on the
a. outboard side of each AMAD b. inboard side of each AMAD c. right side of each AMAD d. left side of each AMAD |
a. outboard side of each AMAD
|
|
|
On the F-15's PC system, what prevents complete fluid loss if one of the return lines developes a leak?
a. system relief valve b. return check valve c. return bypass valve d. thermal control valve |
b. return check valve
|
|
|
On the F-15 aircraft, what causes a PC system pump pressure switch to open the system ground?
a. system pressure above 2,850 psi b. system pressure between 2,850 psi and 2,250 psi c. system pressure between 2,250 psi and 1,600 psi d. system pressure below 1,600 psi |
d. system pressure below 1,600 psi
|
|
|
On the F-15 aircraft, what happens when PC circuit B is mechanically shut off?
a. circuit A isolates and circuit B opens b. circuit B isolates and circuit A opens c. the utility system takes over for the PC system d. The PC system takes over for the utility system |
b. circuit B isolates and circuit A opens
|
|
|
On the F-15 aircraft, the aircraft-mounted accessory drive pushes the utility hydraulic pumps at what speed to deliver 53.7 gpm of flow?
a. 2,210 RPM b. 3,210 RPM c. 4,210 RPM d. 5,210 RPM |
c. 4,210 RPM
|
|
|
On the F-15 aircraft, what do the utility pump manifolds have in common with the power control pump manifolds?
a. they are identical and interchangable b. they develope head pressure for the pumps c. they have pressure switches inside the pumps d. they all connect to the aircraft-mounted accessory drive with D-band clamps |
a. they are identical and interchangable
|
|
|
On the F-15 aircraft, what is the cracking pressure of the right side utility hydraulic pump pressure check valve?
a. 250-290 psi b. 210-240 psi c. 150-190 psi d. 110-140 psi |
b. 210-240 psi
|
|
|
On the F-15 aircraft, what occurs if the right utility hydraulic pump fails?
a. right utility pump, hydraulic, and master caution lights illuminate b. utility A and B, hydraulic, and master caution lights illuminate c. the utility non-resevoir level-sensing does not function d. nothing |
a. right utility pump, hydraulic, and master caution lights illuminate
|
|
|
On the F-15 aircraft, at what pressure differential does the utility thermal control valve allow fluid to bypass the heat exchanger?
a. 32.5 psid b. 42.5 psid c. 52.5 psid d. 62.5 psid |
c. 52.5 psid
|
|
|
When a hydraulic leak occurs in the utility system on an F-15 aircraft, how does circuit A shut off?
a. pneumatically b. hydraulically c. mechanically d. electrically |
c. mechanically
|
|
|
On the f-15 aircraft, what holds the aileron switching valve in the primary position?
a. normal PC system pressure b. normal utility system pressure c. backup utility system pressure d. back up PC system pressure |
a. normal PC system pressure
|
|
|
On the f-15 aircraft, how long does utility system non-reservoir level-sensing maintain pressure if the aircraft develops a leak in the utility hydraulic system?
a. until the circuit A and B shutoff valves open b.until the circuit A and B shutoff valves close c. as long as there is hydraulic fluid left in the utility resevoir d. On the f-15 aircraft, what hydraulic indication component uses a Bourdon tube? a. pressure transmitter b. pump pressure switch c. overtemperature indicator d. temperature volume indicator |
a. pressure transmitter
|
|
|
On the f-15 aircraft, you detemine the fluid level in a hydraulic reservoir by
a. subtracting the amount put in from the amount taken out b. the position of the pointer relative to the fixed gage c. the position of the pointer relative to the outer dial d. measuring with a dipstick |
c. the position of the pointer relative to the outer dial
|
|
|
On the f-15 aircraft, how many overtemperature indicatiors are there in the hydraulic system?
a. one per PC reservoir and two for the utility reservoir b. two per PC reservoir and one for the utility reservoir c. two per reservoir d. one per reservoir |
d. one per reservoir
|
|
|
on the f-15 aircraft, the control stick consists of a stick grip and
a. control system damper b. force transducer c. ratio changer d. torque tube |
b. force transducer
|
|
|
On th f-15 aircraft, what comprises the control stick boost-and-pitch compensator?
a. PRCA, ARI, and mixer assembly b. Emergency generator/stabilator selector valve an switching valves c. emergency generator/stabilator selector valve and servocylinders d. PRCA, ARI, and control system damper |
d. PRCA, ARI, and control system damper
|
|
|
On the f-15 aircraft, what are the modes of operation for the roll ratio switch
a. AUTO and EMERG b. NORMAL and EMERG c. AUTO and OVERRIDE d. NORMAL and OVERRIDE |
a. AUTO and EMERG
|
|
|
On the f-15 aircraft, how does the lateral system utilize the horizontal stabilator hydraulic servo cylinders?
a. differentially for yaw b. differentially for roll c. combined for yaw d. combined for roll |
b. differentially for roll
|
|
|
On the f-15 aircraft, how does the PRCA, control the ARI?
a. electrically through the airspeed switch b. mechanically through the pitch boost actuator c. hydraulically through the pitch ratio controller d. hydromechanically through the automatic flight control assembly/PRCA interface |
c. hydraulically through the pitch ratio controller
|
|
|
On the f-15 aircraft, what happens to the aileron servo cylinders if they lose hydraulic pressure?
a. the pressure sensor unlocks b. lock to the neutral position c. the cavitation valves close d. act as flutter dampers |
d. act as flutter dampers
|
|
|
On the f-15 aircraft, through which part of the torque tube does longitudinal input from the control stick travel?
a. inner casing b. outer casing c. aft control rod d. center control rod |
b. outer casing
|
|
|
On the f-15 aircraft, what counters aft stick movement during rapid acceleration of the aircraft?
a. mass weight b. pitch boost actuator c. torque tube assembly d. lateral feel trim actuator |
a. mass weight
|
|
|
On the f-15 aircraft, what is the adjustment that results in a collective output to the stabilators for altitude and speed called?
a. roll ratio b. pitch ratio c. aileron washout d. stabilator washout |
b. pitch ratio
|
|
|
On the f-15 aircraft, what control system(s) assist the aircraft around the vertical axis?
a. lateral b. directional c. longitudinal d. directional and longitudinal |
b. directional
|
|
|
On the f-15 aircraft, the directional feel trim actuator connects to the
a. control arm off the control stick linkage b. torque tube assembly aft of the rudder petals c. torque tube assembly forward of the rudder pedals d. input rod that goes to the ARI |
c. torque tube assembly forward of the rudder petals
|
|
|
On the f-15 aircraft, what type of system is the directional control system?
a. electrical b. hydraulic c. mechanical d. hydromechanical |
d. hydromechanical
|
|
|
On the f-15 aircraft, what direction does the safety spring cartridge move in when the rudder pedal movement rotatoes the tourque tube forward?
a. aft b. left c. right d. forward |
d. forward
|
|
|
On the f-15 aircraft, homany seconds after the flap-up relay deenergizes do the control circuit and actuating cylinder solenoid valves deenergize?
a. three b. four c. five d. six |
c. five
|
|
|
On the f-15 aircraft, the speed brake selector valve is located behind
a. door 88L b. panel 77R c. panel 66R d. panel 59 |
d. panel 59
|
|
|
On the f-15 aircraft, at what pressure above the utility pressure does the blowback check valve automatically retract the speed brake?
a. 2-8 psi b. 8-12 psi c. 10-14 psi d. 12-16 psi |
a. 2-8 psi
|
|
|
On the f-15 aircraft, what position does the speed brake actuator go to by setting the speed brake switch aft?
a. retract b. extend c. down d. up |
b. extend
|
|
|
On the f-15 aircraft, what happens in the speed brake selector valve when the speed brake switch is set to HOLD?
a. both extend and retract hydraulic ports allow equal fluid flow b. both extend and retract hydraulic ports block off fluid flow c. retract by hydraulic port blocks off fluid flow d. extend hydraulic port blocks off fluid flow |
b. both extend and retract hydraulic ports block off fluid flow
|
|
|
On the f-15 aircraft, what component prevents the landing gear from folding backwards on landing?
a. overcenter links b. torque arms c. drag braces d. jury links |
c. drag braces
|
|
|
On the f-15 aircraft, what allows hydraulic fluid to port to the retract and extend sides of the MLG switch uplatch and door cylinder?
a. pressure compensator b. down-limit switch c. pressure reducers d. solenoids |
d. solenoids
|
|
|
On the f-15 aircraft, what locks the MLG strut to the up position?
a. uplatch hook b. hydraulic pressure c. gear up limit switch d. door closed solenoid |
a. uplatch hooks
|
|
|
On the f-15 aircraft, which way does the NLG actuator piston travel to extend the NLG?
a. outward b. inward c. right d. left |
a. outward
|
|
|
On the f-15 aircraft, where is the NLG down-limit switch located?
a. on the NLG actuator b. on the NLG selector valve c. in the NLG uplatch mechanism d. at the NLG jury link pivot point |
d. at the NLG jury link pivot point
|
|
|
On the f-15 aircraft, how many seconds does gear up pressure remain on to ensure the forward doors close after gear retraction?
a. two b. three c. four d. five |
d. five
|
|
|
On the f-15 aircraft, how much pressure does the anti-spin system send to the brakes to stop wheel rotation?
a. 100-575 psi b. 200-475 psi c. 300-575 psi d. 400-675 psi |
b. 200-475 psi
|
|
|
On the f-15 aircraft, where is the emergency brake/steering arming valve?
a. under door 88L b. under the speed brake c. in the nose gear wheel well d. in the left main landing gear wheel well |
d. in the left main landing gear wheel well
|
|
|
On the f-15 aircraft, the green landing gear position lights come on in the cockpit
a. when the landing gear are up and locked b. when the landing gear are down and locked c. when the landing gear are in transit or down and locked d. anytime aircraft altitude is below 300 feet and handle is up |
b. when the landing gear are down and locked
|
|
|
On the f-15 aircraft, what causes the NWS unit to lose power in and extreme turn?
a. steering range limiter switch b. WOW switch c. steering crank cam d. time delay valve |
a. steering range limiter switch
|
|
|
On the f-15 aircraft, what allows the uplatch actuator to receive power to lower the arresting hook?
a. selector valve b. up-limit switches c. down-limit switches d. arresting hook control switch |
b. up-limit switches
|
|
|
On the f-15 aircraft, what canopy component aligns the canopy to the windscreen when the canopy closes?
a. rails b. latches c. index pins d. control cams |
c. index pins
|
|
|
On two seat model f-15s, how many rollers are on each side of the canopy frame?
a. one b. two c. three d. four |
a. one
|
|
|
On single seat f-15 aircraft, how do the aircraft canopies actuate the canopy sequence valves?
a. the canopy striker actuates the sequence bellcrank as the canopy closes b. the canopy actuator striker actuates the valve as the piston retracts c. the canopy position switch actuates it when the switch opens d. the canopy unlock position switch actuates it when it closes |
a. the canopy striker actuates the sequence bellcrank as the canopy closes
|
|
|
On the f-15 aircraft, what prevents the canopy control valve and canopy actuator from failing under extreme loads?
a. restrictors in the actuator b. relief valves in the actuator c. restrictors in the control valve d. relief valves in the control valve |
d. relief valves in the control valve
|
|
|
On the f-15 aircraft, an integral wing tank is
a. a sealed off area that is part of the wing b. a 600 gallon tank that attaches to a pylon c. a wing tank that is inside another fuel tank d. an area in the wing that has a tank installed in it |
a. a sealed off area that is part of the wing
|
|
|
On the f-15 aircraft, fuel in the surge box transfers into
a. tank 1 b. tank 2 c. the wing tank d. the auxillary tank |
c. the wing tank
|
|
|
On the f-15 aircraft, what causes the engine fuel shutoff valve to open?
a. jet fuel starter fuel start relay b. electrical power and throttle movement c. electrical power and placing the engine master switch to ON d. electrical power, placing the engine master switch to ON, and throttle movement |
c. electrical power and placing the engine master switch to ON
|
|
|
On the f-15 aircraft, how many compartments does each CFT have?
a. one b. two c. three d. four |
c. three
|
|
|
On the f-15 aircraft, what type of transfer pumps do the conformal fuel tanks use?
a. electrically drive vane-type b. hydraulically driven vane-type c. electrically driven impeller-type d. hydraulically driven impeller-type |
c. eletrically drive impeller-type
|
|
|
On the f-15 aircraft, what hydraulic system does the AR system use to pressurize the AR actuators?
a. PC 1A b. utility B c. utility A d. PC 1B |
c. utility A
|
|
|
During f-15 aerial refueling, fuel system depressurization is caused by the
a. nozzle lock switch b. door-open limit switch c. door-closed limit switch d. solenoid on the sequence valve |
b. door-open limit switch
|
|
|
On the f-15 aircraft, the function of the auto reset timer in the AR system is to
a. allow the AR system to depressurize b. remove power from the nozzle locking switch for five seconds c. remove power from the door actuator for 60 seconds d. allow the AR system to override its normal sequence |
b. remove power from the nozzle locking switch for five seconds
|
|
|
On the f-15 aircraft, the fuel quantity indicators receive the fuel quantity signal from the
a. tank units b. thermistors c. signal conditioner d. fuel low-level control unit |
c. signal conditioner
|
|
|
When you place the selector knob to the FEED tank position on the f-15 aircraft, the left and right counters, on the fuel quantity indicator represent the quantity of fuel remaining in
a. tank 2 and tank 3A, respectively b. tank 3A and tank 2, respectively c. tank 2, and tanks 3A and 3B, respectively d. tanks 3A and 3B, and tank 2, respectively |
d. tanks 3A and 3B, and tank 2, respectively
|
|
|
On the f-15 aircraft, an aircrew can ensure they don't dump too much fuel by
a. calculating their maximum landing weight before the mission b. using the fuel low level warning system c. using the bingo fuel indication system d. closely monitoring the gages |
c. using the bingo fuel indication system
|
|
|
On the f-15 aircraft, what is the output rotation of the constant speed drive unit of the integrated drive generator?
a. 4,500 RPM b. 9,000 RPM c. 10,000 RPM d. 12,000 RPM |
d. 12,000 RPM
|
|
|
On the f-15 aircraft, the component in the external power system that protects against overvoltage is the external power
a. monitor b. contactor c. control relay d. transformer rectifier |
a. monitor
|
|
|
On the f-15 aircraft, the external power system provides the aircraft's electrical power system with the power to
a. operate just the components that connect to the GND PWR control panel b. directly operate all the buses and components in the aircraft's electrical system c. directly operate the buses and components, except for those on the GND PWR control panel d. indirectly operate the buses and components, except for those the GND PWR control panel |
c. directly operate the buses and components, except for those on the GND PWR control panel
|
|
|
On the f-15 aircraft, what part of the generator control unit protects the emergency electrical system from undervoltage and underfrequency?
a. logic circuitry b. control circuitry c. voltage regulator d. frequency regulator |
a. logic circuitry
|
|
|
On the f-15 aircraft, the emergency generator control unit controls the output of the emergency generator by
a. sending the electrical power to the current transformers to adjust the output power b. sending the electrial power through the tranformer rectifiers to adjust the output power c. varing the flowof the hydraulic fluid through the emergency generator hydraulic motor to compensate for voltage and frequency errors |
d. varying the speed of the emergency generator hydraulic motor to compensate for voltage and frequency errors
|
|
|
The f-16s emergency power unit provides a self contained backup source of
a. thrust b. bleed air c. system B hydraulic power d. aircraft electrical and hydraulic power |
d. aircraft electrical and hydraulic power
|
|
|
How long can the f-16s emergency power unit operate in the monopropellent mode?
a. as long as required b. 30 minutes c. 20 minutes d. 10 minutes |
d. 10 minutes
|
|
|
The f-16s emergency power unit's operation in the bleed air mode is intended to be
a. a last chance source of emergency power b. used for ground functional est c. used for in-flight emergencies d. a way to extend flight time |
b. used for ground functional test
|
|
|
What is the main electrical component of the f-16's emergency power unit (EPU) system?
a. EPU/GEN test switch b. emergency generator c. speed controller d. mode switch |
c. speed controller
|
|
|
All metal parts of the f-16s hydrazine fuel tank are constructed of
a. kevlar b. aluminum c. chromium d. stainless steel |
d. stainless steel
|
|
|
At what pressure does the f-16's emergency power unit nitrogen valve regulate nitrogen pressure?
a. 400 (+ or -20) pounds per square inch gage (psig) b. 500 (+ or -50)psig c. 2,000 (+ or -100)psig d. 3,000 (+ or -100)psig |
a. 400 (+ or -20) pounds per square inch gage (psig)
|
|
|
The f-16s emergency generator supplies power o the
a. battery buses b. monitor buses c. essential buses d. emergency buses |
c. essential buses
|
|
|
The f-16s liquid oxygen fill valve is a combination fill, build up, and
a. vent valve b. relief valve c. control valve d. solenoid valve |
a. vent valve
|
|
|
The f-16s liquid oxygen fill valve is always in the BUILDUP position, except
a. during an over pressurization of the oxygen system b. when the weight on wheels switch is depressed c. when 100 percent oxygen is selected d. during servicing |
d. during servicing
|
|
|
The f-16s liquid oxygen system heat exchanger is mounted
a. on the underside of the converter mounting tray b. under the right console in each cockpit c. under the left console in each cockpit d. in the aft fuel resevoir |
b. under the right console in each cockpit
|
|
|
What serves as a central interface for the upper and lower oxygen supply hoses, vest hose, and emergency oxygen hose on f-16s modified with the pressure breathing for gravity system?
a. integrated terminal block b. oxygen pressure regulator c. oxygen distribution manifold d. oxygen mask-to-regulator connector |
a. integrated terminal block
|
|
|
What indication does the f-16 pilot receieve from the OXY FLOW indicator when oxygen is flowing within the system?
a. cross hatch barberpole b. steady white c. blinking d. green |
c. blinking
|
|
|
A path from the liquid oxygen probes to the quantity indicator on the f-16 is provided by
a. coaxial cables b. oxygen probes c. the oxygen quantity relay d. the oxygen low- pressure switch |
a. coaxial cables
|
|
|
The f-16s OXY LOW warning light illuminates
a. when the reserve liquid oxygen supply is being used b. at a LOX quantity level of less than 0.9 liters c. at a LOX quantity level of less than 0.5 liters d. when LOX pressure drops below 55 psig |
c. at a LOX quantity level of less than 0.5 liters
|
|
|
What system malfunction causes the f-16s liquid oxygen quantity indicator to rotate counterclockwise?
a. shorted probe b. oxygen pressure leak c. moisture in the converter d. short to ground in the high voltage side of the circuit |
d. short to ground in the high voltage side of the circuit
|
|
|
On the f-16, the voids and clearances between the center conductor and the outer tube of the fire detection set sensing elements are filled with
a. a temperature-sensitive salt mixture b. asbestos c. sealant d. halon |
a. a temperature sensitive salt mixture
|
|
|
The fire detection set sensing elements on the f-16 have an alarm temperature of
a. 400 F b. 575 F c. 765 F d. 875 F |
c. 765 F
|
|
|
What symbol does the f-16 head up display project when a fire condition is detected?
a. FIRE b. WARN c. CAUTION d. ENG OVERTEMP |
b. WARN
|
|
|
How long does pure halon flow to the fuel tanks before the f-16s fuel inerting shutoff valve (b) closes?
a. 15 seconds b. 20 seconds c. 25 seconds d. 30 seconds |
b. 20 seconds
|
|
|
How many seperate fluid chambers are in the f-16s hydraulic system A resevoir?
a. one b. two c. three d. four |
b. two
|
|
|
The fluid quantity gage on the f-16s hydraulic system A reservoir displays what quantity of measure?
a. pints b. liters c. half pints d. percent of full fluid level |
d. percent of full fluid level
|
|
|
Which valve on the f-16 relieves excessive hydraulic pressure due to thermal expansion into system return?
a. reservoir service manifold pressure check b. reservoir service manifold fill check c. reservoir service manifold relief d. reservoir dump b. |
c. reservoir service manifold relief
|
|
|
The delivery rating of one of the f-16 accessory drive gearbox mounted hydraulic pumps is
a. 16.5 gallons per minute (GPM) at 3,000 pounds per square inch (psi) b. 27.5 GPM at 4,000 psi c. 36.5 GPM at 4,000 psi d. 42.5 GPM at 3,100 psi |
d. 42.5 GPM at 3,100 psi
|
|
|
The f-16s hydraulic system A pressure filter manifold is located
a. in the left main landing gear wheel well b. on the accessory drive gearbox c. in the right MLG wheel well d. in the power drive unit bay |
c. in the right MLG wheel well
|
|
|
What prevents fluid loss when the filter bowl and element are removed from the f-16s hydraulic system A pressure manifold?
a. gravity b. check valve c. hydraulic fuse d. internal shutoff valve |
d. internal shutoff valve
|
|
|
The f-16s flight control accumulators are
a. port type b. piston type c. bladder type d. cartridge type |
b. piston type
|
|
|
Which valve in the f-16s hydraulic system A ensures emergency power unit (EPU) pump is not supplied to the ground test stand if connected during EPU operation?
a. pump pressure check b. ground pressure check c. reservoir service mainfold relief d. ground test manifold pressure check |
d. ground test manifold pressure check
|
|
|
Hydraulic fluid for operation of the f-16s speed brakes is supplied by hydraulic
a. system A only b. system B only c. systems A and B d. system A, except when the emergency hydraulic pump is operating |
a. system A only
|
|
|
Which valves in the f-16s hydraulic system B prevent fluid flow from one jet fuel starter (JFS)/brake accumulator to the other?
a. JFS relief b. JFS dump c. JFS pressure check d. JFS motor anitcavitation check |
c. JFS pressure check
|
|
|
The f-16s jet fuel starter/brake integral externally powered, manually operated hydraulic pump draws hydraulic fluid from the
a. B system pressure filter manifold b. B system return filter manifold c. A system return filter manifold d. B system reservoir |
b. B system return filter manifold
|
|
|
The hydraulic pressure transmitters on the f-16 are located
a. in the right and left main landing gear (MLG) wheel wells b. in the right MLG wheel well only c. on each system's hydraulic pump d. in the left MLG wheel well only |
a. in the right and left main landing gear (MLG) wheel wells
|
|
|
The f-16s hydraulic pressure indicator consists of a direct reading dial with graduations from 0 to
a. 3,000 pounds per square inch (psi) b. 4,000 psi c. 5,000 psi d. 6,000 psi |
b. 4,000 psi
|
|
|
On the f-16, the hydraulic power required for normal operation during main landing gear retraction is supplied by
a. hydraulic system B only b. hydraulic system A only c. either hydraulic system A or B d. both hydraulic systems A and B |
a. hydraulic system B only
|
|
|
What f-16 landing gear component(s) free fall(s) into the extended position?
a. main landing gear (MLG) b. nose landing gear (NLG) c. MLG doors d. NLG door |
a. main landing gear (MLG)
|
|
|
Which f-16 main landing gear component houses the downlock mechanism?
a. drag brace b. shock strut c. tension strut d. positioning collar |
a. drag brace
|
|
|
The f-16 main landing gear downlock mechanism holds the drag brace on center with an actuator
a. latch b. spring c. rod end d. check valve |
b. spring
|
|
|
On each F-16 main landing gear shock strut is connected to the aircraft by
a. flange nuts b. trunnion bolts c. self locking bearing sleeves d. self contained trunnion pins |
d. self contained trunnion pins
|
|
|
What f-16 components control landing gear and door operations to prevent interference during extension and retraction?
a. check valves b. shuttle valves c. selector valves d. sequence valves |
d. sequence valves
|
|
|
How is the f-16 landing gear handle locked in the UP position?
a. pneumatically b. hydraulically c. mechanically d. electrically |
c. mechanically
|
|
|
The f-16s landing gear hydraulic isolation valve isolates the landing gear portion of hydraulic system B from the rest of the system to reduce hydraulic system
a. pump wear b. back pressure c. combat vulnerability d. pressure loss during high G maneuvers |
c. combat vulnerability
|
|
|
What f-16 landing gear component prevents extend hydraulic pressure from reaching the nose landing gear (NLG) retract actuator until the NLG door is open?
a. NLG downlock switch b. NLG door sequence valve c. Landing gear selector valve d. NLG mechanical sequence valve |
b. NLG door sequence valve
|
|
|
Which components of the f-16s brake assembly are keyed on their outside diameters to the wheel?
a. end plates b. torque tubes c. rotating discs d. stationary discs |
c. rotating discs
|
|
|
The f-16s brake control unit receives electrical signals
a. only from the anti skid control unit b. directly from the wheel speed sensors c. only from the brake pedal position transducers d. from the brake pedal postion transducers and anti skid control unit |
d. from the brake pedal position transducers and anit skid control unit
|
|
|
What warns the f-16 pilot of an anti skid system failure?
a. caution light b. warning horn c. heads up display d. sinking brake pedals |
a. caution lights
|
|
|
Prebraking of the f-16s main wheels is provided to
a. shorten aircraft stopping distances b. self test the brakes prior to landing c. ready the brakes for high temperature conditions d. eliminate gyroscopic moments applied to the main landing gear during retraction |
d. eliminate gyroscopic moments applied to the main landing gear during retraction
|
|
|
The f-16s solenoid operated parking valve ports hydraulic pressure from system B or
a. one brake accumulator to all of the brake pistons in each wheel brake assembly b. one brake accumulator to one set of brake pistons in each wheel brake assembly c. both brake accumulators to all of the brake pistons in each wheel brake assembly d. both brake accumulators to one set of brake pistons in each wheel brake assembly |
b. one brake accumulator to one set of brake pistons in each wheel brake assembly
|
|
|
The f-16s arresting hook is
a. pneumatically controlled and electrically actuated b. electrically controlled and pneumatically actuated c. electrically controlled and hydraulically actuated d. manually controlled and pneumatically actuated |
b. electrically controlled and pneumatically actuated
|
|
|
What the f-16 arresting hook component provides a means of locking and releasing the arresting hook?
a. HOOK switch b. arresting hook actuator c. arresting hook uplock roller d. arresting hook solenoid valve |
b. arresting hook uplock roller
|
|
|
What does the f-16s arresting hook caution light indicate?
a. arresting hook is up and locked b. arresting hook is not up and locked c. brake failure, deploy hook immediatley d. arresting hook pneumatic resevoir low |
b. arresting hook is not up and locked
|
|
|
The f-16s nosewheel steering subsystem provides turning capability for the aircraft while it is on the ground, allowing the aircraft to turn
a. 20 degrees left or right b. 21 degrees left or right c. 27 degrees left or right d. 32 degrees left or right |
d. 32 degrees left or right
|
|
|
Which component of the f-16s nosewheel steering system transforms the pilots steering commands to electrical signals that drive the hydraulic linear actuator?
a. command potentiometer b. feedback potentiometer c. steering control valve d. steering control box |
a. command potentiometer
|
|
|
Which component of the f-16s nosewheel steering system routes signals to the steering control box indicating the position of the hydraulic linear actuator?
a. command pontentiometer b. feedback potentiometer c. steering control valve d. variable resistor |
b. feedback potentiometer
|
|
|
The f-16s hydraulic linear actuator receives hydraulic pressure from
a. both hydraulic systems A and B b. either hydraulic system A or B c. hydraulic system A only d. hydraulic system B only |
d. hydraulic system B only
|
|
|
All f-16 control surfaces actuators, the leading edge flap power drive unit, and the integrated servo actuators utilize power from
a. hydraulic system B only b. hydraulic system A only c. hydraulic system A and B d. hydraulic system A, except when the emergency hydraulic pump is operating |
c. hydraulic systems A and B
|
|
|
Which does not have quadruple redundancy input signals into the f-16 flight control computer?
a. air data b. autopilot c. trim commands d. basic pilot commands |
b. auto pilot
|
|
|
Which f-16 flight control component contains microprocessor circuitry that provides a nonvolatile memory storage capability?
a. flight control panel b. flight control computer c. mal/lateral accelerometer d. side slip pressure differential sensor |
b. flight control computer
|
|
|
What provides the f-16s flight controls with artificial feel?
a. five integrated servoactuators b. side slip differential pressure signals c. g-force sensors within the flight control computer d. beams and coil springs within side stick controller transducers |
d. beams and coil springs withing side stick controller transducers
|
|
|
Which f-16 flight control system electronic malfunction light(s) remain(s) on until the malfunction is cleared, regardless of the caution light reset action taken?
a. P, R, and Y b. Servo MAL c. FLT CTRL SYS d. MASTER CAUTION |
a. P, R, and Y
|
|
|
Which f-16 flight control component receives signals fro the angle of attack transmitters?
a. leading edge flap command servo b. electronic component assembly c. pneumatic sensor assembly d. manual trim panel |
b. electronic component assembly
|
|
|
How many pressure sensors does the f-16 pneumatic sensor assembly contain?
a. two b. four c. six d. eight |
d. eight
|
|
|
The f-16s flaperons extend as flaps when the
a. control stick is positioned left b. control stick is positioned right c. leading edge flaps are streamline d. aircraft is in the take off or landing configuration |
d. aircraft is in the takeoff or landing configuration
|
|
|
The f-16s aileron rudder interconnect gain is a variable function of
a. mach number and altitude b. angle of attack and altitude c. angle of attack and mach number d. mach number and aircraft altitude |
c. angle of attack and mach number
|
|
|
While the f-16 is in landing configuration, each speed brake surface only opens to
a. 23 degrees b. 43 degrees c. 60 degrees d. 120 degrees |
b. 43 degrees
|
|
|
How many mechanical rotary actuators are located on each f-16 wing leading edge?
a. one b. two c. three d. four |
d. four
|
|
|
Upon landing, the f-16s leading edge flaps are automatically positioned to
a. 2 degrees up b. 2 degrees down c. 25 degrees down d. streamlined |
a. 2 degrees up
|
|
|
The internal fuel storage system on the f-16 consists of
a. five fuel tanks b. six fuel tanks c. seven fuel tanks d. nine fuel tanks |
c. seven fuel tanks
|
|
|
Each of the external wing tanks on the f-16 holds
a. 300 gallons of fuel b. 370 gallons of fuel c. 300 pounds of fuel d. 370 pounds of fuel |
b. 370 gallons of fuel
|
|
|
How many fuselage fuel tank drain valves are on the f-16?
a. five b. seven c. eleven d. fourteen |
b. seven
|
|
|
Which f-16 fuel tanks equally provide fuel to the engine on demand?
a. F1 and A1 b. F2 and A1 c. forward resevoir and A1 d. forward and aft resevoirs |
d. forward and aft resevoirs
|
|
|
Into which fuel tanks does the f-16 external centerline transfer fuel?
a. A2 and F2 b. A1 and F1 c. forward and aft resevoir d. left and right internal wing |
d. left and right internal wing
|
|
|
What provides the refuel receptacle with an emergency disconnect feature during f-16 aerial refueling?
a. arc suppressor b. signal amplifier c. pressure relief valve d. hydraulically actuated latches |
c. pressure relief valve
|
|
|
The fuel scavenge pumps on the f-16 move the residual fuel to the
a. aft reservoir b. F1 fuel tank c. A1 fuel tank d. forward reservoir |
d. forward reservoir
|
|
|
The fuel scavenge pumps on the f-16 receive their power from
a. hydraulic system B b. hydraulic system A c. fuel bled off the boost pumps d. fuel bled off the transfer pumps |
c. fuel bled off the boost pumps
|
|
|
The f-16s fuel flow proportioner is powered by
a. hydraulic system A b. hydraulic system B c. fuel bled off the boost pumps d. fuel bled off the transfer pumps |
a. hydraulic system A
|
|
|
At what pressure does the f-16 fuel flow proportioner operate?
a. 19 pounds pounds per square inch (psi) minimum b. 29-36 psi c. 30-40 psi d. 50-60 psi |
a. 19 pounds per square inch (psi) minimum
|
|
|
A thermal valve in the f-16s fuel system heat exchanger outlet prevents the fuel temperature from exceeding
a. 200 degree F b. 250 degree F c. 300 degree F d. 350 degree F |
a. 200 degree F
|
|
|
The vent and pressurization valve for the f-16s external fuel tank(s) is located on the inside of the
a. vent tank b. left main landing gear wheel well c. right main landing gear wheel well d. external centerline tank pylon assembly |
a. vent tank
|
|
|
Which f-16 fuel system valve provides a redundant means of allowing air into the vent tank, thus guarding against instances of negative pressure within the fuel tanks?
a. automatic drain b. negative pressure relief c. internal tank vent and pressurization d. external tank vent and pressurization |
b. negative pressure relief
|
|
|
The ground air service connector for f-16 fuel tank pressurization is located
a. inside the vent tank b. in the left main landing gear wheel well c. in the right main landing gear wheel well d. on the external centerline tank pylon assembly |
c. in the right main landing gear wheel well
|
|
|
What provides a redundant means of relieving excess pressure should the f-16s fuel system internal vent and pressurization valve fail?
a. automatic drain valve b. remote sensing relief valve c. negative pressure relief valve d. external tank vent and pressurization valve |
b. remote sensing relief valve
|
|
|
Which switch provides a way of testing the f-16s fuel temperature subsystem?
a. FUEL HOT test switch on the ground test panel b. FUEL HOT test switch on the fuel quantity select panel c. FUEL QUANTITY SELECT switch on the ground test panel d. FUEL QUANTITY SELECT switch on the fuel quantity select panel |
a. FUEL HOT test switch on the ground test panel
|
|
|
The dual pointer markers on the f-16s fuel quantity indicator are labeled
a. FL and AR b. FR and AL c. LT and RT d. FWD and AFT |
b. FR and AL
|
|
|
On an f-16, flammable vapor air mixtures for JP-8 are possible at all temperatures above
a. -20 degrees F b. -120 degrees F c. 100 degrees F d. 140 degrees F |
c. 100 degrees F
|
|
|
On the f-16, areas that are normally adjacent to fuel tanks or fuel lines and have no means of air circulation even though they are drained are considered
a. internal vented areas b. external vented areas c. internal nonvented areas d. external nonvented areas |
c. internal nonvented areas
|
|
|
On an f-16, which fuel leak conditions do not require immediate repair?
a. conditions A and B b. conditions C and D c. conditions 1 and 2 d. conditions 3 and 4 |
c. conditions 1 and 2
|
|
|
On the f-16, the F100-PW-220 engine compressor contains
a. two stages of low pressure compression and 11 stages of high pressure compression b. three stages of low pressure compression and 10 stages of high pressure compression c. five stages of low pressure compression and nine stages of high pressure compression d. seven stages of low pressure compression and 13 stages of high pressure compression |
b. three stages of low pressure compression and 10 stages of high pressure compression
|
|
|
On the f-16 aircraft, one benefit of the modular construction of the F100-PW-220 engine is the ease of removal and replacement of
a. engine controls b. faulty engine sections c. defective engine blades d. the engine from the airframe |
b. faulty engine sections
|
|
|
If the f-16s F100-PW-220's digital electronic engine control fails, engine control transfers to
a. electrohydraulic servo valves b. secondary mode of operation c. the engine diagnostic unit d. the pilot |
b. secondary mode of operation
|
|
|
After initial ignition, the main ignition spark on the f-16's F100-PW-220 engine is suppressed by
a. the light off detector b. combustion chamber pressure c. the digital electronic engine control d. two shorting switches within the main fuel control |
b. combustion chamber pressure
|
|
|
On the f-16, what is the position of the F110-GE-100s anti ice valve when electrical power is removed?
a. open b. closed c. last position prior to power being removed d. open when the temperature is less than 35 degree F; closed when the temperature is warmer than 35 degree F |
a. open
|
|
|
On an f-16 with an F110-GE-100 engine, which condition causes the f-16s ENGINE warning light to illuminate
a. low oil pressure b. engine bay temperature of 765 degree F c. fan turbine inlet temperature of 990 degree C d. engine revolutions per minute of 59 percent |
b. engine bay temperature of 765 degree F
|
|
|
The capacity of an f-16s oil tank with the F110-GE-100 engine is
a. 2.0 gallons b. 3.0 gallons c. 20 pints d. 28 pints |
b. 3.0 gallons
|
|
|
The A-10 fuselage components that redistribute loads around cutouts and provide redundant load paths are
a. ribs b. spars c. stringers d. auxiliary longerons |
d. auxiliary longerons
|
|
|
To prevent potential tank explosion during combat, the A-10s integral fuel tanks are filled with
a. rubber b. ballistic foam c. polyurethane foam d. composite materials |
c. polyurethane foam
|
|
|
The danger associated with a functioning lift transducer on the A-10 is
a. raditation b. extreme heat c. electrical shock d. sudden movement |
b. extreme heat
|
|
|
After engine shut down, A-10 engine exhaust areas are considered hazardous for
a. 10 minutes b. 15 minutes c. 20 minutes d. 25 minutes |
b. 15 minutes
|
|
|
The A-10 main landing gear strut component that transmits torque loads from the wheel to the strut cylinder is the
a. trunnion b. shock strut c. torque arms d. piston assembly |
c. torque arms
|
|
|
On the A-10, the main landing gear uplock cylinder hydraulically releases the uplock
a. hooks b. rollers c. switch d. mechanismq |
a. hooks
|
|
|
The number of fusible plugs incorporated in each A-10 main landing gear wheel is
a. two b. three c. four d. five |
b. three
|
|
|
The A-10 nose wheel steering is initiated in the commanded direction by the movement of the rudder pedals in conjunction with a steering command signal generated by the
a. position transducer b. steering collar assembly c. steering switch d. steering unit |
a. position transducer pontentiometer
|
|
|
If electrical power is lost, the operable A-10 nose wheel steering mode is
a. steering b. fail safe c. auxiliary d. damper caster |
b. fail safe
|
|
|
The brake system of the A-10 consist of a normal, an emergency, and an
a. anti skid system b. all terrain system c. all weather system d. electronic stability |
a. anti skid system
|
|
|
Should the left and right hydraulic systems fail, emergency braking power for the A-10 is provided by
a. the dual power brake valve b. the auxiliary power unit c. the cable assembly d. an accumulator |
d. an accumulator
|
|
|
The A-10 anti skid caution light on the A-10 comes on when the system
a. is engaged b. is disengaged c. has a malfuction d. engages the brakes |
b. is disengaged
|
|
|
On the A-10, hydraulic pressure from the left system is directed tot he nose drag strut actuators by the
a. uplock cylinder b. downlock override c. weight on wheels switch d. landing gear control valve |
d. landing gear control valve
|
|
|
During auxiliary landing gear extension on the A-10, the left hydraulic system reservoir bootstrap pressure is ported
a. overboard b. to the return c. to the accumulator d. to the uplock cylinders |
b. to the return
|
|
|
The position the A-10 feel and trim devices provide the stick to represent any trim set into the elevator actuator is
a. aft load b. lateral load c. positive load d. neutral (zero load) |
d. neutral (zero load)
|
|
|
The components of the A-10 pitch and roll flight control systems that free the control stick from a control path jam are the pitch and roll
a. tab shifters b. disconnectors c. trim actuators d. geared servo tabs |
b. disconnectors
|
|
|
The actuator type A-10 speed brakes use is
a. dual acting pistons b. unbalanced pistons c. balanced pistons d. tandem pistons |
b. unbalanced pistons
|
|
|
The number of hydraulic power supply systems on the A-10 is
a. one b. two c. three d. four |
b. two
|
|
|
The two components that make up the A-10 hydraulic power supply package are the bootstrap hydraulic
a. reservoir and supply module b. accumulator and supply module c. reservoir and balanced relief valve d. accumulator and balanced relief valve |
a. resevoir and supply module
|
|
|
The A-10 hydraulic system component that allows fluid to pass to and charge the accumulator is the
a. hydraulic pressure switch b. balanced relief valve c. fill rate restrictor d. supply module |
b. balanced relief valve
|
|
|
When hydraulic pressure is not being supplied by the auxiliary power unit (APU), small amounts of hydraulic fluid are directed to APU driven hydraulic pump from the
a. left hydraulic reservoir b. right hydraulic reservoir c. left engine hydraulic pump d. right engine hydraulic pump |
b. right hydraulic reservoir
|
|
|
You reset the A-10 hydraulic filter differential pressure (AP) indicator after it has actuated by
a. pushing the AP indicator in b. changing out the filter bowl assembly c. removing the filter bowl, and then resetting the button d. removing the filter bowl, inverting it, and depressing the button |
d. removing the filter bowl, inverting it and depressing the button
|
|
|
The percentage of engine thrust the A-10s TF34-GE-100A engine fan bypass stream accounts for is
a. 75 b. 80 c. 85 d. 90 |
c. 85
|
|
|
The number of ignitors installed on the combustor of the A-10s TF34-GE-100A engine is
a. one b. two c. three d. four |
b. two
|
|
|
Continuous oil flow is supplied to the number three bearing of the TF34-GE-100A engine during zero or negative G maneuvers by the
a. auxiliary lubrication system b. scavenge pump c. B-sump d. C-sump |
a. auxiliary lubrication system
|
|
|
On the A-10s fire extinguishing system, the fire extinguishing discharge switch is a
a. two position, single throw, center-off toggle switch b. two position, double throw, center off toggle switch c. three position, single throw, center-on toggle switch d. three position, double throw, center-off toggle switch |
d. three position, double throw, center off toggle switch
|
|
|
The A-10s fire extinguisher container fired when the extinguisher discharge switch is placed to the right is the
a. auxiliary power unit b. forward and aft c. forward d. aft |
c. forward
|
|
|
The A-10s external tank fuel feed system component that prevents the external tank from collapsing when the air pressure within the tank is less than the ambient pressure is the
a. negative pressure relief valve b. fuel vent pressure tube c. fuel vent pressure tank d. pylon pressure air line |
a. negative pressure relief valve
|
|
|
The interface between the A-10s external fuel tanks and pylon refueling manifold is provided by the
a. boost pumps b. fuel disconnects c. fuel control panel d. fuel system test box |
b. fuel disconnects
|
|
|
The A-10s fuel system component that diffuses the fuel spray to reduce static buildup caused by the fuel pouring into the fuel tanks during refueling is the
a. pitot tube b. vent tube c. drain tube d. piccolo tube |
d. piccolo tube
|
|
|
The component that allows verification of the operational staus of the A-10s refueling system is the
a. pilot valves b. test box assembly c. refueling manifold d. fuel management panel |
b. test box assembly
|
|
|
The A-10 can be refueled in flight by a tanker aircraft equipped with a
a. static boom b. flying boom c. refueling basket d. refueling drogue |
b. flying boom
|
|
|
The A-10s integrated drive generator oil supply circuit component that attracts ferrous metals particles is the
a. filter b. air oil cooler c. pressure fill port d. magnetic chip detector |
d. magnetic chip detector
|
|
|
The external power monitor on the A-10 measures the frequency, voltage, and phase sequence of external AC power applied to the aircraft and
a. converts the voltage to that of the aircraft b. sends the power to the generator control unit c. makes the power compatible with the aircraft DC system d. determines whether the power is compatible with the aircraft electrical system |
d. determines whether the power is compatible with the aircraft electrical system
|
|
|
The A-10s DC electrical system component that is an air cooled transformer rectifier is the
a. inverter b. converter c. integrated drive generator d. DC motor driven AC generator |
b. converter
|
|
|
The A-10s emergency power system consists of a battery and a(n)
a. inverter b. converter c. generator control unit d. directional control unit |
a. inverter
|
|
|
The two exterior lights mounted as an assembly on the wingtips of the A-10 are the
a. anti-collision and nose floodlights b. nose floodlights and formation c. anit-collision and position d. formation and position |
c. anit-collision and position
|
|
|
The nose illumination lights on the A-10 are used for
a. in flight refueling b. tower identification c. in flight visual checks d. crew chief identification |
a. in flight refueling
|
|
|
The oxygen regulator supply lever on the A-10 is
a. red b. blue c. green d. white |
c. green
|
|
|
During inhalation, the A-10s oxygen regulator flow indicator should show
a. red b. black c. white d. green |
c. white
|
|
|
The four mount pads on the U-2 center section, aside from being attach points for the RG130 ground handling cart, are used for aircraft
a. jacking b. towing c. hoisting d. tie down |
d. tie down
|
|
|
The aft portion of the U-2 canopy is coated with four coats of paint to
a. provide shade and prevent night blindness b. provide insulation from low temperatures c. combat solar radiation and glare d. reduce solar heat signature |
c. combat solar radiation and glare
|
|
|
To signal that the emergency start system has been activated in flight, the pilot of a U-2
a. leaves the speed brakes open b. turns on the anti collision lights c. turns on the main landing gear lights d. shuts the aircraft down at the end of runway |
c. turns on the main landing gear lights
|
|
|
The automated weight and balance program used on the U-2 is maintained by
a. the crew chief b. quality assurance c. factory representatives d. the Senior Year program officer |
b. quality assurance
|
|
|
All items, not part of the basic weight, installed on the U-2 aircraft are recorded on the
a. AFTO form 781C, avionics configuration and load status document b. AFTO form 781A, maintenance discrepancy and work document c. WR-ALC/LR form 52, automated weight and balance form d. LR form 52, manual weight and balance form |
c. WR-ALC/LR form 52, automated weight and balance form
|
|
|
The U-2 aircraft's automated weight and balance programs daily data is gathered from the AFTO form
a. 781A b. 781C c. 781H d. 781J |
b. 781C
|
|
|
The main landing gear strut on the U-2 is constructed of
a. aluminum alloy b. stainless steel c. composites d. titanium |
d. titanium
|
|
|
The auxiliary landing gear on the U-2 are called
a. pogos b. outriggers c. wing skids d. outboard gear |
a. pogos
|
|
|
If total hydraulic failure occurs on the U-2, the number of full brake applications the emergency brake accumulator supplies hydraulic pressure for is
a. three b. five c. seven d. nine |
b. five
|
|
|
During normal landing gear extension on the U-2, the main landing gear actuator pressure buildup is delayed until the uplock actuator has unlocked the gear by a(n)
a. check valve b. orifice valve c. control valve d. selector valve |
b. orifice valve
|
|
|
The U-2 ailerons are adjusted to the neutral position by a
a. linear actuator connected to the right aileron tab b. linear actuator connected to the left aileron tab c. trim motor attached to the right aileron d. trim motor attached to the left aileron |
b. linear actuator connected to the left aileron tab
|
|
|
On the U-2, you set the aileron trim tabs to neutral if they are slightly warped by
a. bending the tab until it is straight b. installing a jig to realign the wing c. replacing the tab and rig roll control system d. aligning the tabs as close to the middle as possible |
d. aligning the tabs as close to the middle as possible
|
|
|
The U-2 flight control system that reduces the wing and empennage structual loading during high speed or rough air operation by shifting both aileron wing surfaces and wing flaps upward is the
a. stability augmentation b. gust control c. pitch trim d. roll trim |
b. gust control
|
|
|
The wing flaps on the U-2 are controlled
a. electrically b. hydraulically c. mechanically d. pneumatically |
a. electrically
|
|
|
The U-2 aircraft lift spoilers are used to assist in landing and
a. reduced speed b. increased speed c. ascent to altitude d. descent from altitude |
a. descent from altitude
|
|
|
On the U-2, the speed brakes are located on
a. top of each wing b. the bottom of each wing c. top of the center fuselage d. each side of the aft fuselage |
d. each side of the aft fuselage
|
|
|
Except during system maintenance, the U-2 hydraulic reservoir should remain pressurized to
|
eliminate the possibility of air and contaminants entering the system
|
|
|
The U-2 hydraulic pump is allowed to vary the volume of fluid delivered to compensate for changes in demand by a
|
change in the angle between the yoke and pump shaft axis
|
|
|
The hydraulic tubing for the U-2 horizontal stabilizer trim is color coded to
|
prevent cross connection of lines during maintenance
|
|
|
The allowable leakage for static seals on the U-2 is
|
none
|
|
|
The U-2 exhaust system consists of the tail pipe and
|
fan flow adapter diverter
|
|
|
The three operating modes of the U-2 aircraft mounted accessory drive are
|
engine starting, accessory drive, and subsystem checkout
|
|
|
The U-2 exhaust system consists of the tail pipe and
|
fan flow adapter diverter
|
|
|
The three operating modes of the U-2 aircraft mounted accessory drive are
|
engine starting, accessory drive, and subsystem checkout
|
|
|
The U-2 cockpit indicator that provides an indication of high pressure compressor rotor operation is the
|
N2 RPM
|
|
|
The U-2s sump tank manifolds are checked for moisture during which inspection
|
basic post flight
|
|
|
When refueling the U-2, the fuel tank filled first is the
|
fuselage sump
|
|
|
A momentary hammering sound when the U-2 fuel transfer valves are actuated is caused by
|
air in the system
|
|
|
The light that illuminates on the U-2 aircraft when the fuel sump reads 38 (+or-3) gallons remaining is the
|
FUEL LEVEL LOW
|
|
|
The external DC power required to power the monitored AC bus contactor coil on the U-2 is provided through
|
pin E of the external AC power receptacle
|
|
|
The U-2 DC generator is cooled by
|
ram air through the left engine air inlet
|
|
|
The U-2 exterior lights consist of landing, anti collision, and
|
navigation lights
|
|
|
The navigation lights on the u-2 consist of a
|
red light on the left wingtip, a green light on the right wingtip, and two clear lights on the upper vertical stabilizer
|
|
|
It is critically important on the U-2 that you check the turbine bypass switch to prevent
|
a valve wear
|
|
|
The number of liquid oxygen converters on the U-2 is
|
two
|
|
|
The U-2 technical manual section that provides you with a description of the aircraft, aircraft stations, access provisions, and drain and vent points is
|
general information
|
|
|
The headings of the U-2 troubleshooting tables are
|
PROBABLE CAUSE, ISOLATION PROCEDURE, AND REMEDY
|
|
|
Peculiar maintenance procedures exist for the U-2 because of the
|
need to maintain its light weight characteristics
|
|
|
The reference that lists suitable substitutes for U-2 aircraft is the
|
SP 1977, engineering standards procurement manual
|
|
|
The compression ratio of the RQ-1s rotax 914F engine is
|
9.0:1
|
|
|
The purpose of valve lead and valve lag in the valve mechanism used on the RQ-1s reciprocating engine is to
|
increase the volumetric efficiency and lower the temperature of the cylinder
|
|
|
What type carvuretors are installed on the RQ-1s engine
|
32 millimeter, constant depression, cross draft butterfly valve
|
|
|
On the RQ-1s engine, oil is forced out of the sump in the crankcase and back to the oil reservoir by
|
blow by gases
|
|
|
Ignition power for the spark plugs on the RQ-1s engine is provided by
|
dual breaker less capacitive discharge ignition system
|
|
|
Which spark plugs are driven by power box 1 in the RQ-1s engine ignition system
|
top spark plugs in cylinders 1 and 2, and the bottom spark plugs in cylinders 3 and 4
|
|
|
To disable ignition power box 1 when performing a test of ignition power box 2 in the RQ-1s ignition test circuit, ignition test relay
|
1 must be energized
|
|
|
What type of mechanism is incorporated on the RQ-1s variable pitch propeller assembly to facilitate or perform pitch movement of the propeller blades
|
rack and pinion
|
|
|
The RQ-1 is equipped with
|
disc brakes actuated by electrical servos
|
|
|
On the RQ-1, what is the range in degrees that the nose wheel steering operates from either side of center
|
15
|
|
|
Under normal conditions, the RQ-1s gear retract servos stop driving the landing gear
|
after a stop detect signal is received or after driving for the maximum expected swing time
|
|
|
The purpose of decambering the ailerons and flaps on the RQ-1 is to
|
provide improved high speed flight characteristics
|
|
|
The component that algebraically adds simultaneous pitch and yaw commands to determine
|
primary control module
|
|
|
What fuel type tanks are used on the RQ-1
|
rubberized fuel bladders mounted in the fuselage
|
|
|
The fuel level sensors used in the RQ-1s fuel system are
|
capacitance type proves provided a 12 VDC reference voltage from the SCM
|
|
|
When the RQ-1s fuel system is in the normal operating mode,what are proper positions for the valves on the main and return fuel trays
|
aft tank valve open on main fuel tray, aft tank valve open on return fuel tray
|
|
|
What is the approx. front tank to back tank fuel ratio on the RQ-1
|
3:2
|
|
|
At what engine speed (in revolutions per minute) does the starter/alternator automatically start acting as an alternator on the RQ-1
|
1,600
|
|
|
If the alternator on the RQ-1 fails, backup power is provided by
|
two dry cell nickel cadmium batteries
|
|
|
On the RQ-1, the payload power distribution module is used to power the
|
primary control module and the components in the forward fuselage
|
|
|
The feature on the RQ-1 which, through the primary control module, automatically switches the aircraft lights on is the
|
lights off range
|
|
|
The ice detector probe on the RQ-1 detects ice
|
through a change in its resonant frequency
|
|
|
The F-22 inspection that is accomplished within six hours of launch and only if the preflight is over 48 hours but still valid is the
|
walk around inspection
|
|
|
Outer mold line inspection will be accomplished on the F-22 when maintenance notices
|
low observable damage
|
|
|
On the F-22, the responsibility for all low observable maintenance rests with the
|
aircraft structural maintenance
|
|
|
The purpose of the SAS is to outline the repair and restoration process, reliability and maintainability data collection, and time accounting for managing the F-22s
|
low obeservable system
|
|
|
On the f22, what is the output pressure for the hydraulic system's pumps
|
4050 to 4150 psi
|
|
|
On the f22 hydraulic system, what service coupling quick disconnect provides an alternate method to fill the hydraulic reservoir
|
return ground service
|
|
|
On the f22, what prevents the maintainer from installing the filter bowl without a filter element inside
|
spring loaded lever
|
|
|
On the f22 hydraulic control software monitors, the hydraulic system is hosted by the
|
IVSC
|
|
|
On the f22, what performs the BIT on the hydraulic components
|
software
|
|
|
On the f22, what provides the maintainer an indication that the filter element requires replacement
|
differential pressure indicator
|
|
|
The mode on the f22 that uses the pneumatic backup system to pressurize the unlock devices to release the landing gear for extending and locking it in the extended position is
|
emergency flight
|
|
|
On the f22, a base plate and two interchangable brake modules make up what valve
|
brake control
|
|
|
On the f22, the wheels and tires are protected from excessive brake heat by a heat shield made out of
|
stainless steel
|
|
|
The f22 nose wheel may normally be turned up to 48 degrees depending on
|
main landing gear wheel speed
|
|
|
In the f22, arresting gear system is pneumatically actuated and controlled
|
electrically
|
|
|
The f22s engine fan variable vanes position is controlled by
|
an actuator
|
|
|
The engine on the f22 contains three assemblies; external hardware, supporting ring and the fan bypass duct that are referred to as
|
non modular
|
|
|
The f22s engine lube system contains oil in the bearing compartment by using
|
engine supplied compressor air
|
|
|
The f22s primary source of power for the full authority digital electric control, the comprehensive engine diagnostic unit, and the ignition exciters is the
|
engine generator
|
|
|
The f22 program that acquires data for engine mission capability, on board diagnostic system failures, propulsion data, and characterizing mission usage is the
|
advanced engine failure resolution
|
|
|
IMIS displays input screens to enable the maintainer to enter suspected
|
fault identification codes
|
|
|
The presence of an over heat on the f22 is reported for display in the cockpit by the
|
integrated vehicle subsystem controller
|
|
|
The presence of a fire in the f22 engine or APU compartments is reported to the fire protection module by the
|
optical fire detection system
|
|
|
On the f22, what components take care of the on board engine monitoring diagnostic functions
|
FADEC and CEDU
|
|
|
Vibration, oil debris, oil level signals, along with condition monitoring and fault information, are stored in the f22s resident memory of the
|
CEDU
|
|
|
The fan and compressor variable vanes, as well as the modulated exhaust cooling and exhaust nozzle all make up the f22s engine
|
variable geometry system
|
|
|
The f22 engine monitoring system uses how many temperature sensors
|
3
|
|
|
The f22 system component that provides all electrical interconnects between the vehicle management system modules and the aircraft wiring connectors is the
|
backplane assembly
|
|
|
The primary flight control surfaces, engine inlet bypass louvers, nose wheel steering, engine thrust and vectoring all receive commands generated by the
|
flight control computer
|
|
|
The f22 unit designed to detect and shutdown an over voltage condition is the
|
power supply module
|
|
|
The f22 program that deals with the computer software configuration for the respective aircraft system is
|
operational flight
|
|
|
Normal start and normal operating state are the two system operations of the
|
integrated vehicle system controller
|
|
|
When f22 hydraulic pressure is lost the ailerons are
|
aerodynamically centered
|
|
|
The f22 pitch system is augmented by
|
thrust vector nozzles
|
|
|
The three position, momentary action, center off switch on the f22 flight control system panel is for the
|
yaw trim
|
|
|
The landing gear handle controls flap settings when norm is selected on the f22s
|
flap alt switch
|
|
|
F22 lift augmentation is performed by
|
leading edge flaps
|
|
|
The f22 leading edge flap position is based on AOA, mach and altitude information computed by the
|
vehicle management system
|
|
|
On the f22, which valve allows aerial refuel flow to the aircraft plumbing and prevents flow in the reverse direction
|
check
|
|
|
The primary integrated maintenance information tool used by f22 technicians during the performance of maintenance task is the
|
PMA
|
|
|
All PMA screens are provided guaranteed communication through the
|
trusted path menu
|
|
|
The two major components that must be installed on the PMA for the f22 are the battery pack and
|
removable disk drive
|
|
|
The f22s PMA battery pack can increase the battery life in cold temperatures and facilitate effective charging of the battery with the use of
|
an internal heater
|
|
|
The function of the PMA that shows a listing of all discrepancies and warnings for a particular aircraft is the functional category of
|
aircraft forms
|
|
|
The f22 support equipment that is built from predominantly commercial off the self items is the
|
integrated management information system
|
|
|
The system designed to be used in maintenance units, maintenance operation centers, and off equipment maintenance shop is
|
MSU
|
|
|
The f22 component that communicates with the MSC and PMA to provide a single source of information to meet the requirements of maintenance personnel is the
|
maintenance support workstation
|
|
|
The f22 MVI cable provides the electrical interconnect between the PMA and the
|
aircraft
|
|
|
Access to the required technical data is provided when the user selects the
|
discrepancy they have been assigned to work
|
|
|
The primary source for introducing the f22s operational flight program is the
|
portable maintenance aid
|
|
|
The f22 diagnostics are controlled by the
|
global manager software
|
|
|
The system the f22 uses for avionics cooling during ground maintenance is
|
PAO cooling cart
|
|
|
It is important to keep the hydraulic test stand as far away as possible from the flight control travel path to prevent
|
flight control surfaces from impacting the unit
|
|
|
The stored energy system servicing carts surfaces remain hot after shutdown for up to how many minutes
|
30
|
|
|
The f22 generator control units receive their power from the
|
permanent magnet generator
|
|
|
The main generator control units on the f22 are cooled by what kind of air
|
forced
|
|
|
The interface between the electrical power system generators and the electrical power subsystem on the f22 is the
|
generator distribution center
|
|
|
For temperature control, the f22 uses bleed air, ram air, polyalphaolefin and
|
fuel
|
|
|
The f22 system that dehumidifies the precooled air utilizing a boot strapped compressor, turbine, and water collector is the
|
refrigeration system
|
|
|
The f22 cockpit distribution and defog system provides air for the canopy seal, cockpit pressurization, canopy defog, and the
|
pilots thermal cooling garment
|
|
|
The back up air supply for the f22s forced air cooled avionics system is
|
ram air
|
|
|
The three methods for opening the f22 canopy are
|
normal, manual, and emergency
|
|
|
The external canopy control switch on the f22 is located
|
in the nose wheel well
|
|
|
Manual operation of the f22 canopy with a high speed/low torque, non impact type pneumatic or battery powered tool will open or close the canopy in
|
less than three minutes
|
|
|
How many minutes is the f22 ejection seat emergency oxygen bottle capable of providing the pilot with oxygen for
|
20
|
|
|
In the avionics hardware architecture of the f22, the item that sends information to the line replaceable units (LRU) is the
|
common integrated processors
|
|
|
The f22s vehicle management system, utilities and subsystems, and the avionics system are all supported by the
|
air vehicle software
|
|
|
The f22 is provided pneumatic, hydraulic, and electrical power during emergencies and within operating envelope by the
|
auxiliary power unit
|
|
|
The two ways maintainers can start the f22 APU are the
|
portable maintenance aid and pilot vehicle interface
|
|
|
When using the PMA to start the APU, the maintainer needs to verify the SES air pressure protective covers are removed and the
|
APU shutdown switch is in NORM
|
|
|
During ground shutdown the APU on the f22 enters a cool down cycle of
|
20 seconds
|
|
|
The air turbine starter system, airframe mounted accessory drive, and power take off shaft make up the f22s
|
auxiliary power accessory drive system
|
|
|
The f22s air recharge compressor provides air to the
|
stored energy system bottles
|
|
|
The air storage bottles on the f22 provide air to the APU door actuation system and the
|
emergency gear extension
|
|
|
The SES on the f22 uses aircraft fuel and high pressure air to power the
|
APU gear box
|
|
|
Emergency gear swings and arresting gear opertations effects the f22 SES by
|
reducing the number of starts
|
|
|
On the f22, how many pumps are attached to the AMAD
|
four
|
|
|
On the f22, what in the lubrication system pressurizes the AMAD to 5 psi above ambient pressure
|
air pump assembly
|
|
|
On the f22, the weapons bay door drive slows doors prior to reaching travel limits to prevent
|
damage to doors or airframe
|
|
|
The oil level on the f22s PDU is checked by a
|
sight glass
|
|
|
The two configurations the f22 pylons are built for are
|
ferry and combat
|
|
|
The purpose of the AVEL on the f22 is to stow and launch the
|
AIM-120C
|
|
|
The f22 weapon system minimizes barrel erosion and heat generation; thus extending the life of the system by
|
rotating the barrels
|
