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99 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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How many degrees are in a complete circle?
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360.
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(601) If you were traveling on an azimuth of 260 degrees and had to return to your original location, what is your back azimuth that you need to travel on?
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80.
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(602) When using an M1 lensatic compass, how far should the compass be from your rifle?
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1/2 meter
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(603) To navigate to a location using a global positioning system (GPS) unit, what must the user enter into the GPS?
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waypoint
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(604) How many sets of batteries does the defense advanced GPS receiver (DAGR) require to fully
operate? |
Two
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(604) If you use non-rechargeable alkaline (AA 1.5 volt) batteries in the defense advanced GPS
receiver (DAGR), what is the unit’s anticipated operating life? |
11.5 hours
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(604) To obtain the best satellite reception with the defense advanced GPS receiver (DAGR), what
angle does the unit need to be held toward the horizon? |
90 degrees
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(605) What level of reliability does the GeoXT have?
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2 to 5 meters
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(606) When using a typical range finder, what must be adjusted to overlap the images?
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One of the mirrors
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(606) In a laser range finder, what determines the distance based on how fast the beam travels to
the target and back? |
Micro-processor
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What does the night vision goggle (NVG) require to function properly?
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Night light
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Which subassembly converts the captured light into a visible image?
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Image intensifier
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What part of the Vantage Pro2’s integrated senor suite (ISS) contains the brains of the ISS?
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Sensor interface module
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All mobile command centers (MCC) are required to meet which DHS/FEMA requirements?
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Type III
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When do you check a vehicle for unusual vibrations, noises, odors, and abnormal instrument readings?
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During operation
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To reduce the possibility of an accident or equipment damage to an all-terrain vehicle
(ATV), you should always |
inspect your ATV before operation
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Which major command (MAJCOM) serves as the lead command for agile combat support and RD&A initiatives?
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Air Combat Command (ACC)
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The specific requirements in AFOSH Standard 48–137 are based on which requirement?
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29 CFR 1910.134
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What are the two basic types of protective breathing equipment used by first/emergency responders at a chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear/hazardous materials
(CBRN/HAZMAT) incident? |
c. Air-purifying respirator (APR) and atmosphere-supplying respirators
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Which model of the joint service general purpose mask (JSGPM) will the Air Force use?
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M50
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What color change occurs to the M61 filter time patch when it is expired and must be replaced?
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White to dark blue
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Which statement best describes the purpose of the MCU–2/P mask?
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Protects the face, eyes, and respiratory tract of the wearer against chemical and biological warfare agents and radioactive dust particles
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Which valve assembly for the MCU–2/P must have a supportive screen or six raised spokes on the valve?
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Outlet valve
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The M45 second skin is made of what material and is available in how many sizes?
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Agent-resistant rubber; three sizes
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What type(s) of chemical protective clothing does NFPA Standard 472 recognize?
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Liquid-splash and vapor
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What color change occurs to the M61 filter time patch when it is expired and must be
replaced? |
White to dark blue.
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Which statement best describes the purpose of the MCU–2/P mask?
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Protects the face, eyes, and respiratory tract of the wearer against chemical and biological warfare agents and radioactive dust particles
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Which valve assembly for the MCU–2/P must have a supportive screen or six raised spokes
on the valve? |
Outlet
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The M45 second skin is made of what material and is available in how many sizes?
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Agent-resistant rubber; three sizes
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What type(s) of chemical protective clothing does NFPA Standard 472 recognize?
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Liquid-splash and vapor-protective clothing
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A process that when the characteristics of a material are altered through contact with chemical substances is called
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degradation
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How many chemicals must liquid-splash protective clothing be tested against in accordance with NFPA Standard 1992?
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Seven
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What does the EPA protective equipment Level C provide users?
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Splash-protecting garment and an APR or PAPR
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The purpose of the ground crew ensemble (GCE) is to provide durable individual protection capable of preventing
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field concentrations of CB warfare agents
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How long will the anti-contamination suit protect the wearer from gamma radiation?
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It provides no gamma protection
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Which statement best describes an electron?
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very small negatively charged particle that is considerably lighter than the remainder of the atom
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Which statement best describes an electrically neutral atom?
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The number of protons is equal to the number of electrons.
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What portion of an atom undergoes a transformation resulting in a beta particle being produced?
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A neutron changes to a proton.
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The unit of measurement for dose rate of gamma radiation is
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roentgens per hour
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An alpha particle can travel
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a few inches in open air
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Beta particles can travel
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12 to 18 inches in open air
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A radiation dispersal device (RDD) is any device that causes the purposeful dissemination of
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any radiological material across an area without a nuclear detonation.
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(624) Which substance is used to produce a nuclear explosion by the fission process?
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Plutonium
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Which subatomic particle causes fission to take place?
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Neutron
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(624) Which term best describes impurities within the active material that absorb neutrons and ultimately decrease neutron availability for further fissioning of the active material?
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Purification
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(625) Which energy range from a normal nuclear explosion equals 10 percent of the weapon
effects? |
Residual nuclear radiation.
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(625) What is the point at which the primary wave and reflected wave join together?
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Mach stem.
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(625) What portion of thermal radiation causes widespread burns and incendiary effects?
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Infrared.
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(625) What types of radiation does fallout primarily generate?
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Beta and gamma
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(626) The blast wave causes damage primarily at junctions between
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tissues of different densities.
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(626) What are the two types of blast injuries?
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Direct and indirect
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(626) Which is not a phase of radiation sickness?
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Dormant.
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(627) What do Geiger-Mueller tubes use to limit Townsend discharge?
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Certain types of gases
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(627) The major radiation hazard encountered during a peacetime nuclear weapon accident is
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alpha.
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(628) The beta gamma probe can be located up to how far away from the ADM–300?
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500 feet.
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(628) Which radioactive source is associated with ADM–300 calibration?
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Thorium 232
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(629) Which components comprise the Air Force air sampling kit?
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HVAS, filter holder, filter paper, and tripod.
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(630) What can the GR–135 Plus identify?
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Industrial and medical isotopes and illicit nuclear materials
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(630) The GR–135 allows the user to
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survey, measure, and analyze
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(631) Which primitive plants do not use photosynthesis, are capable of anaerobic growth, and
draw nutrition from decaying vegetable matter? |
Fungi
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(631) Tricothecene toxins are
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absorbed through the skin
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(632) What type of microorganisms grows only in the presence of free oxygen?
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Aerobes.
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(633) A biological agent aerosol is most effective when the disseminated agent is viable, virulent,
the correct size, and |
airborne.
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(633) Which term best describes particles in a biological warfare agent aerosol cloud that strike
and stick to objects in their path? |
Impaction
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(633) What does a BW agent gas-generating submunition use to deploy the BW agent?
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Cartridges to expel the agent through a simple orifice.
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(633) Casualty rates from BWA filled submunitions are a function of the number of submunitions per square kilometer, the infectivity of the agent, and the
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area of coverage
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(633) Aerodynamic stability makes which threat delivery platform easier cheaper to deliver and to disperse chemical and biological agents?
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Cruise missiles
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(634) What period(s) of the day provide the best conditions for a successful biological warfare
(BW) agent attack? |
Nightime and early morning
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(633) Casualty rates from BWA filled submunitions are a function of the number of submunitions per square kilometer, the infectivity of the agent, and the
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area of coverage.
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(635) What biological detection technology operates under the principle that every living organism has a substance with which it is incompatible?
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Antibody techniques
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(633) Aerodynamic stability makes which threat delivery platform easier cheaper to deliver and to
disperse chemical and biological agents? |
Cruise missiles.
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(635) Which biological detection technology identifies the agent by heating the sample to extremely high temperatures and breaking the sample into its individual components?
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Mass spectrometry.
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(634) What period(s) of the day provide the best conditions for a successful biological warfare
(BW) agent attack? |
Nightime and early morning
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(635) What biological detection technology operates under the principle that every living organism has a substance with which it is incompatible?
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Antibody techniques
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(635) Which biological detection technology identifies the agent by heating the sample to
extremely high temperatures and breaking the sample into its individual components? |
Mass spectrometry.
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(636) How many biological agent tests can be conducted with a single DOD biological sampling kit?
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1.
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(636) As a minimum, what individual protective equipment should you wear while sampling with the DOD biological sampling kit?
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Respirator protection and gloves.
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(637) The key to the BioCapture® 650 is its
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integrated collector cartridge.
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(637) The DFU 1000 is rated for how many continuous hours?
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40,000.
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(638) Which chemical warfare agent disrupts the oxygen-carrying properties of blood?
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Blood agents
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(638) What type of agent is Phosgene oxime (CX)?
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Blister agent.
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(639) Which term is defined as the rate at which the body is able to counteract the effects of a poisonous substance?
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Rate of detoxification
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(640) Chemical warfare agents with high molecular weights indicate
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solids
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(640) Chemical warfare agents with high boiling points tend to
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evaporate slower at ambient temperatures
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75. (640) Which is the most important factor that impacts the persistency of a chemical warfare agent?
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Volatility.
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(642) A surface burst has occurred if a tactical ballistic missile (TBM) detonates
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below 150 feet.
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(644) What is the primary concern for exposure to toxic industrial chemicals (TIC)?
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Inhalation.
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(645) What are the principal factors in the development of chemical detection systems?
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Toxicity of agents and ability of agents to off-gas
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(646) What chemical agents can you detect using M8 paper?
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Nerve and blister.
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(647) How long is M9 paper useful after being removed from the shipping bag?
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One year for frigid zones.
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(648) pH paper indicates the presence of specific
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acid and alkalines hazards
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(649) What does the M256A1 use for the detection of vapor nerve agent?
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enzyme from an eel
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(649) What is the use of the heater pads associated with the M256A1 kit?
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Prevent glass from cutting your gloves or hands
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(649) After crushing the first heater ampoule on the M256A1 sampler detector, how many
minutes do you leave the heater in place over the test spot? |
Two.
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(650) Which item inside the chemical agent monitor (CAM) conducts a classification process of
the chemical warfare agent detected? |
Radioactive alpha ionization element.
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(651) The automatic chemical agent alarm (ACAA) passes the air sample drawn in through the
inlet to |
two detection cells through a permeable membrane.
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87. (652) What does the MultiRae detect?
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Oxygen levels. lower explosive limits, and three preselected gases
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How many database libraries does the Hazmat ID include?
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Eight
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The Drager Haz-Mat Simultest Kit measures
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15 organic and inorganic chemicals and/or chemical families
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