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100 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Which statement identifies the various forms of acts Congress uses to control government
contracting? |
d. Enabling and procedural acts, authorization acts and appropriations acts.
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2. (001) What agency’s objective is to provide aid and counseling to small businesses?
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c. Small Business Administration.
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Which party is the contractor?
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c. Third party.
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What are the two categories of actual authority?
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Express and implied.
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5. (001) When government personnel make a mistake, the US Supreme Court has stated that rather
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c. for an individual to occasionally suffer from the mistakes.
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Who is responsible for ascertaining whether government agents are acting within the bounds
of their authority? |
The contractor.
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The elements of equitable estoppel include all of the following except the
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d. contractor did not reasonably and innocently rely on the acts of the government.
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8. (001) Cases filed under the doctrine of estoppel are generally decided on the issue of
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b. whether the contractor acted reasonably and innocently.
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9. (001) A CO appointment must be reviewed at least
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every two years.
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10. (001) Which statement concerning the CO’s appointment or termination is true?
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a. In no event will the termination of a CO be retroactive.
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11. (001) Which statement about the offeree is correct?
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d. Only the intended offeree can accept the offer.
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12. (001) Which statement about an offer is correct?
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c. The offer must be so definite that the performance to be rendered by each party is reasonably
certain. |
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13. (001) An offeror’s withdrawal of an offer before acceptance is called a
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c. revocation.
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Which statement about communicating acceptance of a contract is true?
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If the time, place, and means of communication are expressed by the offeror, no other time,
place, or means will constitute an acceptance. |
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What is the name given to the exchange of promises?
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Consideration.
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16. (001) What is meant by adequate consideration?
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The consideration in the exchange is a fair bargain.
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What is meant by the term “competent” in regards to a contracting party?
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Having the mental capacity to understand the intent to be bound.
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18. (001) Which individual would be considered competent to enter into a contract?
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A 23-year-old car salesperson.
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19. (001) As a general rule, a contract that violates a statute is
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c. unlawful and void and will not be enforced.
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20. (001) Under the clean hands doctrine, an individual may enforce an illegal contract when
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d. the innocent party to the contract is in the class of persons for whom the law is designed to
protect. |
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21. (001) Which situation would preclude a ratification?
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a. Government not obtaining a benefit from the performance.
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What action may be taken for a nonratifiable commitment?
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d. Resolution by the GAO claim procedures.
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23. (002) What publications series represents Contracting?
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c. 64.
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Which AFI defines the roles and responsibilities of positions within the operational
contracting squadron? |
AFI 64-102
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(002) FAR is issued under the joint authority of the
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a. Administrator of General Services, the Secretary of Defense, and the Administrator of the
NASA. |
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26. (002) What councils prepare all FAR revisions?
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b. DAR Council and the CAA Council.
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What is meant by implementing FAR?
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c. Providing agency procedures to carry out the prescriptions in FAR.
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28. (002) Which DFARS reference identifies supplemental information?
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b. 219.502–2–70.
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DFARS is updated
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c. quarterly.
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In determining the action to take in a specific case requiring a contract adjustment, the
Comptroller General Decisions are referred to and used as |
c. rulings.
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Where are short briefs of new Comptroller General Decisions located?
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a. Federal Register.
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32. (003) A government action may be protested by
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b. an interested party.
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Once an agency is notified by telephone that a protest has been filed, the agency (under
most circumstances) has how many days to submit a complete report to GAO? |
30.
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When an agency receives notice of a protest from GAO within 10 days after contract award
or within five days after a debriefing date, the contracting officer immediately |
suspends performance or terminates the awarded contract.
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How many days does an interested party have to protest after the basis of a protest is
known, or should have been known? |
No later than 10 days.
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36. (003) How many days does GAO have to issue its recommendation on a protest?
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100.
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What action may the contractor take when a dispute cannot be resolved by mutual
agreement of the contracting parties? |
Submit a claim under the Disputes clause.
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Contractor claims must be submitted to the CO for a decision within
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six years after accrual of the claim.
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Who is responsible for reviewing the contracting officer’s final decision on claims
exceeding $100,000 prior to sending the decision to the contractor? |
Air Force Material Command Law Center.
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If the contracting officer decides the contractor should be compensated for a claim, when is
the amount paid to the contractor? |
As soon as possible without waiting for any appeal.
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How long after the contracting officer’s final decision does the contractor have to appeal to
ASBCA? |
90 days from the receipt of the contracting officer’s decision.
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Upon learning of an appeal to ASBCA, the contracting officer must comply with Rule 4 of
the ASBCA rules found in |
b. DFARS Appendix A.
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Two techniques of ADR are
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d. mediation and arbitration.
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Which government requirement is violated when the wrong “color of money” is used?
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Misappropriations Act.
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45. (004) What act is violated when an organization obligates more funds than are available?
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Anti-Deficiency Act.
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46. (004) The Bona-Fide Need rule requires current year funds be obligated
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d. in the same year the government will use the supplies or services.
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47. (004) O&M funds are categorized as what type of appropriation?
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Annual.
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48. (004) NAFs are generated through
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Morale, Welfare and Recreational facilities.
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Who directs the overall operation of NAF services facilities at an installation?
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Force Support Squadron Commander.
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What part of FAR determines whether to include contract financing through progress
payments? |
Part 32.
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The aggregate of commercial advance payments cannot exceed what amount of the contract
price? |
15%.
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Whose job is it to ensure the local purchase program effectively meets customer needs
while complying with all applicable statutes, executive orders, regulations, and AFIs? |
a. Contracting squadron commander.
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Which position is responsible for managing the socio-economic and other public policy
programs? |
Director of business operations.
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Which is not a function of the contracting superintendent
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Appointing COs.
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A CO responsibility includes
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ensuring contractors receive equitable treatment
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Who is responsible for precisely describing a requirement in a purchase request?
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Customer.
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What is a purpose of the customer education program?
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Develop open lines of communication
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Which of the following topics is used for contractor education activities?
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Federal wage rates.
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The Prompt Payment Act requires that final payment of construction contracts be made
within |
a. 30 days of acceptance by the government.
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What contractor education method may be used to assist new small business concerns
achieve a clear and mutual understanding of all contract requirements? |
Post-award orientation.
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What skill level identifies a contracting journeyman?
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6C051.
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What tool assists the contracting management team in determining whether or not a unit is
in compliance with applicable laws and regulations? |
Self-inspection program.
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What program is designed to prevent sensitive information from getting into the wrong
hands? |
OPSEC
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What is the definition of a classified contract?
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Any contract that requires, or may require, access to classified information by the contractor in
the performance of the contract. |
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Who is responsible for identifying safety hazards?
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All personnel.
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Who must comply with OSHA requirements?
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Contractors and government employees.
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What document must contractors and vendors submit when they supply hazardous
materials to the government? |
Material Safety Data Sheet.
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Products or services that have a lesser negative effect on human health or the environment
when compared with competing products or services that serve the same purpose are known as |
environmentally preferable.
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The Buy American Act allows exceptions for articles, materials, and supplies purchased
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specifically for commissary resale.
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What action should the CO take if contract award is made on the nonqualifying country
offer and the duty is exempted by the Duty-Free clause? |
Award the contract at the offered price minus the amount of duty.
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Which contract type may be used when it is possible to negotiate a fair and reasonable firmfixed-
price for an initial period, but not for subsequent periods of performance? |
Fixed-price with prospective price redetermination.
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Incentive contracts are appropriate when the
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firm-fixed-price contract is not appropriate.
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What three types of predetermined, formula-type incentives may be used?
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Cost, delivery, and performance.
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Which incentive arrangement should motivate contractors to strive for outstanding results in
all incentive areas? |
Multiple-incentive arrangement.
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When the government cannot use other incentives in fixed-price contracts because it cannot
objectively measure contractor performance, it motivates the contractor by using |
award-fee provisions.
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Which written preliminary contractual instrument immediately authorizes a contractor to
begin manufacturing supplies or performing services? |
Letter contract
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When a contractor will acquire materials and services based on direct labor hours at
specified fixed hourly rates, the appropriate contract is |
time and materials
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Which of the following contracts provide no positive profit incentive to the contractor for
cost control or labor efficiency? |
Time and materials
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Which contract type does not require execution of a determination and finding prior to use?
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Fixed-price
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The purpose of simplified acquisition procedures is to
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reduce administrative costs and the administrative burden on the contractor.
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Solicitations and contracts for the acquisition of commercial items are prepared on Standard
Form |
1449.
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When may a contractor be issued a GPC?
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Never.
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The micro-purchase threshold for supply purchases made by an overseas cardholder from a
CONUS vendor for use overseas is |
$3,000
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An SF44 may be used when
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a single delivery and a single payment will be made
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Performance-based acquisition
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allows contractors the latitude to meet contract objectives
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Sealed bidding should not be used for construction contracts when
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it is necessary to conduct discussions with offerors
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What factors are multiplied against standard prices in a SABER contract and include cost
elements such as overhead and G&A expenses? |
Coefficients.
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A SABER contract
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complements the traditional construction program.
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Contracts for professional services of an architectural or engineering nature that must be
performed or approved by a person licensed, registered, or certified to provide such services are known as |
architect-engineer services contracts.
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What is the statutory limitation on the contract fee for A-E services for the preparation of
designs, plans, drawings, and specifications? |
Six percent of the project’s estimated cost to complete construction.
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What clause must be included in the contract if the government requires the contractor to
design the project so that construction costs will not exceed a specified amount due to a funding limitation? |
Design within Funding Limitations clause.
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Which of the following is a characteristic of agreements?
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Establishes the ground work for future contracts.
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The government can exercise its right to the option period
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without further negotiation or agreement with the contractor.
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Benefits of options include increased
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competition.
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What type of contracting instrument would have the letter “M” in the ninth position of the
PIIN? |
Manual purchase order.
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Solicitations types using the letter “R” in the procurement instrument identification number
(PIIN) represent |
a RFP.
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The commercial contract format uses the
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d. SF 1449.
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When using the UCF, which section title would you find under Part I – The Schedule?
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Contract administration data
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When using the UCF you include lengthy specifications in
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Section J.
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When using the UCF, which section contains evaluation factors for award?
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Section M.
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