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100 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Commanders and staff agency chiefs take what type of program to protect the rights of the government and persons directly affected by Air Force actions?
a. Strong senior leaders b. Monthly destruction efforts c. Records management program d. Efficient information management procedures |
c. Records management program
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How often must the command records manager review each base records management program?
a. Every 12 months b. Every 18 months c. Every 24 months d. Every 36 months |
c. Every 24 months
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Once they are assigned, active duty personnel whose duties include, filing, maintaining, and disposing of official records must be trained within....
a. 1 month b. 3 months c. 4 months d. 6 months |
b. 3 months
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What maintains the office files plan and accountability for active and inactive records?
a. Records custodian b. Base records manager c. Chief of the office of record d. Functional area records manager |
a. Records custodian
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What should agencies develop to respond to emergencies or disaster that may damage records?
a. Plan of action b. Memo for record c. Air Force instruction d. Headquarters operating instruction |
a. Plan of action
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Where should copies of vital records be stored?
a. Federal records center that services your area b. At the MAJCOM headquarters or parent organization c. Another office in the same facility that is not accessible to the general public d. Facility not subject to the same emergency or disaster but still reasonably accessible |
d. Facility not subject to the same emergency or disaster but still reasonably accessible
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What is specifically responsible for automating the preparation and maintenance of the files maintenance and disposition plan?
a. Electronic transaction system b. Air Force records disposition schedule c. Air Force records management program d. Air Force records information management system |
d. Air force records management system
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The records information management system's files maintenance and dispostion plan lists all of the following except?
a. the record's cutoff period b. the disposition authorities c. the location of each record series d. all records series for the office of record |
a. the record's cutoff period
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What type of labels does the records information management system print?
a. File drawer b. Subdivision c. Locater guide card d. decision logic table |
b. Subdivision
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What is the first step in preparing the file plan for your office?
a. Finding the table and rule for each record series b. Getting your office in the records information management system c. Determining what type of records your office is responsible for maintaining d. Organizing the records with the files referenced most towards the front of the cabinet |
c. Determining what type of records your office is responsible for maintaining
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What identifies file records and provides the cutoff for the records?
a. File folders b. Subdivision labels c. Locater guide cards d. Disposition guide cards |
d. Disposition guide cards
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When more than one item number is kept in the same file, disposition control labels are placed on...
a. the same guide card b. seperate guide cards c. the first record in the file d. the interior of the file folder |
a. the same guide card
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Where are labels placed on the file folders?
a. on the left b. on the right c. consistently d. in the center |
c. consistently
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Why is this file plan filed as the first item in a filing system?
a. The file plan falls under table 1-1, rule 01 b. To help retrieve filed documents efficiently c. It's the table of contents for the filing system d. The filing system doesn't identify the file plan |
b. To help retrieve filed documents efficiently
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What gives the reader a reference trail to follow when a document is located somewhere else?
a. File plan b. Directory c. Memo for record d. Cross-reference sheet |
d. Cross-reference sheet
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What must you use to control the loan of records?
a. Air Force Form 614, Charge Out Record b. Air Force Form 845, Cross Connection Information c. Department of Defense Form 2861, Cross-Reference d. Air Force Form 388, Communications Control Record |
a. Air Force Form 614, Charge Out Record
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What determination must be made before a record can be loaned to an authorized person?
a. Period of time the record is needed b. Number of copies the individual will make c. Determine how many people wil have access to the records d. Frequency of reference to the requested material |
a. Period of time the record is needed
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Each of the following is a description of files cutoff except
a. physically stop adding records to a series b. seperating active records from inactive records c. transfer of eligible records to the records staging area d. point in time when records are no longer placed in the active file |
c. transfer of eligible records to the records staging area
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On what is disposition based?
a. Time period or event b. Specific action or disposition c. Disposal method or time period d. Retention period or specific action |
a. Time period or event
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How does the records disposition program play a key role in the management of Air Force records?
a. Preservation of classified records b. Economic and efficient management c. Enduring value for temporary records d. Reference tools for commanders decisions |
b. economic and efficient management
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Who is authorized to approve the permanent retention of records?
a. Air Force records manager b. Archivist of the United States c. United States records manager d. National archives and records administration |
b. Archivist of the United States
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When units change status but do not change function or mission, files are
a. sent to the records staging area for the rest of their retention period b. cut off the day before the effective date and kept as a seperate entity c. cutt off the day after the effective date and kept by the current office as usual d. continued and cut off the same way and at the same time as if no change of status had occurred |
d. continued and cut off the same way and at the same time as if no change of status had occurred
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Who does the OPR submit an AF IMT 525, Records Disposition Recommendation to?
a. Records manager b. Records Custodian c. Command records manager d. Functional area records manager |
a. Records manager
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What type of records does the staging area store?
a. Perpetual and temporary b. Perpetual and transitory c. Permanent and temporary d. Permanent and transitory |
c. Permanent and temporary
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How much remaining retention must records have to be shipped to a federal records center?
a. 2 years or more b. 3 years or more c. 8 years or more d. 9 years or more |
b. 3 years or more
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What type of records does the SF 135, Records Transmittal and Receipt, identify?
a. Records for transfer to another organization only b. Retirement to a federal records center or staging center only c. Transfer to another organization or retirement to a staging center only d. Retirement to a federal records center, staging area, or transfer to another organization |
d. Retirement to a federal records center, staging area, or transfer to another organization
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What should be done when shipping classified and unclassified records?
a. Seperate the records before shipping b. Combine the records to save on shipping cost c. Classified records cannot be ship from a deployed location d. In accordance with the DoD electronic records disposition tables |
a. Seperate the records before shipping
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How are electronic records maintained in a deployed location?
a. According to each individual computer user b. According to the records disposition schedule c. As described in the vital records operating plan d. In accordance with the DOD electronic records disposition tables |
b. According to the records disposition schedule
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What does the staging area reviews to determine what records are eligible for disposal?
a. Disposition control label b. Records disposition schedule c. SF Form 135, Records Transmittal and Receipt d. AF IMT 310, Document Receipt and Destruction Certificate |
c. SF Form 135, Records Transmittal and Receipt
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How are magnetic medium and tapes disposed of?
a. Degauss or overwrite b. Through the base recycling program c. Return to the communications squadron for destruction d. Through the Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office |
a. Degauss and Overwrite
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To recycle Privacy Act material, what must recycling contracts include?
a. Specific contract clause on safeguarding privacy material until its destruction b. Specific contract employees authorized to handle FOUO materials. c. Guidelines for transferring materials to the contract destination d. Fee schedules for protecting and processing FOUO materials |
a. Specific contract clause on safeguarding privacy material until its destruction
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Data in form that can be read and processed by a computer and satisfies the legal definition of a record is a/an
a. analog record b. computer record c. electronic record d. controlled record |
c. electronic record
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Who places official records in electronic file areas?
a. Users b. Records custodian c. Base records manager d. Functional area records manager |
a. Users
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Who should read only record access rights be given to?
a. Only records custodians b. Official electronic records managers c. Personnel who have a need to know d. No one, records cannot be marked as read only in electronic records management |
c. Personnel who have a need to know
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How must your electronic and paper filing systems function?
a. Jointly b. Independent c. Electronic systems must be stand alone computer systems d. Paper systems may not duplicate any portion of the electronic sysstem |
a. Jointly
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What is the fine that may be imposed for maintaining a Privacy Act record system that has not been published in the federal register or for making an unauthorized disclosure?
a. $5,0000 b. $10,000 c. $15,000 d. $20,000 |
a. $5,000
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To reduce costly, ineffective, and redundant information collections and reporting requirements is the information collections and reports management programs'
a. goal b. mission c. purpose d. objective |
c. purpose
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What is the fundamental policy for information collections and reports?
a. Establish procedures for all collection actions b. Collect information through formal reports c. Assign internal reports control symbol d. Control and minimize the burden |
d. Control and minimize the burden
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What do letters and numbers of a reports control symbol indicate?
a. The report has been reviewed and approved b. The validity of the report and expiration date c. The category of the report and its submission timeline d. The frequency of submission and the approval authority |
a. The report has been reviewed and approved
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What is the most effective and economical way to state policies and procedures?
a. Email b. Publications c. Intern messages d. Official memorandums |
b. Publications
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As technology advances, to what type of publishing system is the Air Force migrating?
a. DOD-wide b. Air Force-wide c. Joint publications d. Electronic Publications |
a. DoD-wide
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Who evaluates and approves request to establish special publication systems?
a. Local commander b. Publications manager c. Office of primary responsibility d. Functional area records manager |
b. Publications manager
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As a rule, how many days is the maximum a temporary visual aid should be displayed?
a. 30 b. 60 c. 90 d. 120 |
c. 90
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When should you establish a formal paper version requirement for publications?
a. Mission-related need and access to an official electronic source of publications b. Mission-related need only c. Defense automated printing service approval and access to an official electronic source of publications d. Access to an official electronic source of publications |
b. Mission related need only
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In which section of Part 1 of the Air Force publishing product announcement would you find general information?
a. Section A b. Section B c. Section C d. Section D |
d. Section D
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Which distribution symbol is classified publications and stocked and issued by the OPR?
a. F b. L c. X d. None, classified publications have no distribution symbol |
c. X
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What type of distribution will not be place on the Air Force publishing web site?
a. F and L b. L and X c. F and X d. F, X, and L |
b. L and X
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Which distribution symbol is the most widely used?
a. F b. L c. X d. F;X |
a. F
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When a basic directive is superseded, its supplement
a. is destroyed b. is superseded also c. automatically stays in effect d. is posted to the new publication |
c. automatically stays in effect
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When would a biennial review not be required?
a. Never; biennial reviews are always required b. If a special review was performed within the last 90 days c. If the publication has been identified to be revised d. If the publication has been identified as restricted |
b. If a special review was performed within the last 90 days
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What does the Air Force forms management program provide to help management capture information?
a. Data collection tools b. Standard data elements c. Analytical data formats d. Most efficient way possible |
a. Data collection tools
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In which section of Part 2 of the product announcement would you find information on salvage, disposal, or replacement?
a. Section A b. Section B c. Section C d. Section D |
b. Section B
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Who establishes standards and methods for analyzing, categorizing, designing, controlling, producing, and maintaining all departmental forms?
a. Air Force forms manager b. Air Force Departmental Publishing Office c. Air Force Departmental Publishing Center d. Director of communications and information |
b. Air Force Departmental Publishing Office
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Who has the responsibility to conduct a forms review every 2 years based on the creation date of a form?
a. Major command b. Base forms manager c. Office of primary responsibility d. Air Force Departmental Publishing Office |
d. Air Force Departmental Publishing Office
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What type of form is used in two or more staff offices of a headquarters?
a. Field b. Office c. Headquarters d. Departmental |
d. Departmental
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Which of the following is not a basis for a forms biennial review?
a. Date of creation b. Revision of form c. Date electronically released d. Revision of prescribing directives |
c. Date electronically released
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Who initiates special and reprint forms reviews on an "as needed" basic?
a. OPR b. Forms manager c. Records manager d. Publishing distribution office |
b. Forms manager
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What type of IMT change affect the visual and physical image?
a. Master b. Routine c. Version d. Revision |
d. Revision
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How should repsonses to requests for information from news media representatives be handled?
a. Discouraged to eliminate privacy act violations b. Discouraged so they can then follow the proper FOIA channel c. Encouraged to invoke the information collection reports control system d. Encouraged to eliminate the need for requestors to invoke the provision of the FOIA |
d. Encouraged to eliminate the need for requestors to invoke the provision of the FOIA
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Who makes initial determinations on the type of request and processing provided a FOIA request?
a. Office of primary responsibility b. Disclosure authority c. FOIA manager d. Requestor |
c. FOIA manager
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Who is the focal point for the FOIA portion of the installation web site?
a. FOIA manager b. System manager c. Installation commander d. Director, communication and information |
a. FOIA manager
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When are fees for a FOIA request automatically waived?
a. All assesable costs are $15.00 or less b. A new record is compiled for the requestor c. Only a protion of the requested records are released d. The requestor has applied for a fee waiver/reduction |
a. All assesable costs are $15.00 or less
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When must components provide a final response to a FOIA request that complies with the requesting requirements?
a. 10 working days b. 20 working days c. 10 calender days d. 20 calender days |
b. 20 working days
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Which of the following is not a FOIA exemption?
a. Financial institutions b. Investigative records c. Adminsitrative rules and practices d. Internal personnel rules and practices |
c. Adminsitrative rules and practices
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Who, on a base, completes the DD Form 2564, Annual Report Freedom of Information Act?
a. Records OPR b. Base FOIA manager c. Organizational commanders d. Director, communication and information |
b. Base FOIA managers
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Privacy Act officers are responsible for
a. deciding the need for and content of systems b. preparing system notices and reports c. answering the privacy act requests d. investigating complaints |
d. investigating complaints
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Who is the focal point in a functional area for general privacy act questions?
a. System manager b. Privacy act officer c. Privacy act monitor d. Air Force employees |
c. Privacy act monitor
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What type of request allows other Air Force directives to give individuals access to Privacy Act records?
a. Official b. Directed c. Functional d. Informational |
c. Functional
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Which element of a Privacy Act statement provides a list of where and why the information will be disclosed outside the DOD?
a. Purpose b. Authority c. Disclosure d. Routine uses |
d. Routine uses
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What penalty can be imposed on an individual for making an unauthorized disclosure of Privacy Act information?
a. $5,000 fine b. $10,000 fine c. $5,000 fine plus up to 5 years imprisonment d. $10,000 fine plus up to 5 years imprisonment |
a. $5,000 fine
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Which type of personal information can be given to third parties without the individual's consent?
a. marital status b. Home of record c. Past duty assignments d. Gross salary of military personnel |
c. Past duty assignments
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What must the system manager do to avoid unauthorized disclosures of Privacy Act information?
a. Release information only to SNCO's and officers b. Question all requestors on the purpose of the request c. Use additional security measures, regardless of cost d. Verify the identity of all requestors |
d. Verify the identity of all requestors
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What is used to determine the disposal of Privacy Act records?
a. For Official Use Only register b. Squadron policy c. Records retention schedule d. Privacy act disposition list |
c. Records retention schedule
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What is used to determine the disposal of Privacy Act records?
a. The contract covers transfer of Privacy Act information b. Defense reutilization and marketing office is a government agency c. Sheer volume makes it difficult to readily identify specific individual records d. All defens reutilization and marketing office personnel are designated representatives |
c. Sheer volume makes it difficult to readily identify specific individual records
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When are For Official Use Only records marked?
a. When they are created b. In review for release c. Only when they are sent off base d. When somone asks to see the markings |
a. When they are created
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What exemptions must information marked FOUO meets under the freedom of information act or it cannot be withheld?
a. 1 and 9 b. 1 through 9 c. 2 and 9 d. 2 through 9 |
d. 2 through 9
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What protection is applied to FOUO documents during normal duty hours?
a. Place them in an out of sight location b. Cover them with a classified cover sheet c. Lock them in a classified storage container d. Personnel should keep them in their possession at all times |
a. Place them in an out of sight location
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What actions are appropriate when unauthorized disclosure of FOUO records occur?
a. Corrective administrative actions, criminal investigation, and notify originating organization b. Appropriate administrative actions to fix the cause, disciplinary actions as needed, and notify the originating organization c. Process paperwork for criminal or civil sanctions, brief all personnel of occurrence, and notify the originating organization d. Notify originating organization, follow guidance provided by that organization, and investigate all events that led to the occurrence |
b. Appropriate administrative actions to fix the cause, disciplinary actions as needed, and notify the originating organization
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On the average, about what percentage of a communication do you write in the active voice to communicate effectively?
a. 15 b. 25 c. 50 d. 75 |
d. 75
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In order to deliver a clear message, you should use sentences that are no longer than?
a. 15 words b. 20 words c. 30 words d. 40 words |
d. 40 words
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What is the main difference between an official memorandum and a personal letter?
a. Audience b. Content c. Format d. Style |
c. Format
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What type of memorandum for record is an in house document to record information that would otherwise not be recorded in writing?
a. Brief b. Official c. Explanatory d. Seperate page |
d. Seperate page
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Multipurpose written briefs that provide information, forward items of interest, or summarize problems are..
a. briefings b. position papers c. background papers d. memorandums for record |
c. background papers
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Who is responsible for safeguarding his or her common access card and personal identification number?
a. User b. Commander c. Security officer d. System adminsitrator |
a. User
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Who ensures that action offices package and address communications correctly and that essential mailing elements stand out?
a. Base information transfer center b. Activity distribution office c. Official mail manager d. Activity action office |
b. Activity distribution office
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What must you do with unsealed containers endorsed "DO NOT FORWARD" that remain in action offices at the close of business?
a. Place in an opaque container and have th highest reanking individual take it home b. Inspect to determine classification of contents and protect them accordingly c. Return to the base information transfer center for safeguarding d. Seal container and store in a classified storage container |
b. Inspect to determine classification of contents and protect them accordingly
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Which mail class is for use only by authorized publishers and registered newsagents?
a. Priority b. First class c. Periodicals d. standard mail |
a. Priority
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What type of security classification involves information that is extracted or paraphrased?
a. Original b. Compiled c. Derivative d. Consolidated |
c. Derivative
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Who determines whether the recipient has a legitimate need for access to classified information?
a. Processor b. Commander c. Security manager d. Original classifier |
a. Processor
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Who is responsible for protecting and acccounting for classified material at all times?
a. Custodians b. Commanders c. Information managers d. Top Secret control officers |
a. Custodians
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What are the appropriate procedures for handling classified information that you remove from an approved storage container?
a. Place in a manila folder and keep it with the person with highest rank b. Notify security forces upon removal of information from the container c. Keep under constant watch and turn in face down or cover it with cover sheet d. Classified information should not be removed from an approved storage container |
c. Keep under constant watch and turn it face down or cover it with cover sheet
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The purpose of conducting end of day security checks in units that process classified information is to ensure
a. the facility is locked b. classified accounts are inventoried c. all checklists are properly initialed d. classified information is stored appropriately |
d. classified information is stored appropriately
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What is any knowing, willful, or negligent action that could reasonably be expected to result in an unauthorized disclosure of classified information?
a. Sanction b. Violation c. Infraction d. Compromise |
b. Violation
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Which is not a purpose of classified marking and designations?
a. Give information on the source b. Provide guidance on the disposition of records c. Alert holders to the presence of classified information d. Show special, access, control, or safeguarding requirements |
b. Provide guidance on dispostion of records
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Where is the overall classification placed on slides and transparencies?
a. Image area of the item only b. Border, holder, or frame only c. Image area of the item and border, holder, or frame d. Image area of the item and on the accompanying documentation |
c. Image area of the item and border, holder, or frame
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To help control accountable communications while in Air Force channels, the Air Force uses?
a. container numbers b. consolidated shipments c. AF Form 74, Communication Status Notice/Request d. AF Form 310, Document Reciept and Destruction Certificate |
a. container numbers
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What two items, used together, enable us to trace a container from the sender through the base information transfer system into the US Postal Service, and on to the reciever?
a. AF FORM 12, Accountable Container Reciept, and AF Form 310, Document Reciept and Destruction Certificate b. AF Form 74, Communication Status Notice/Request, and AF Form 12, Accountable Container Reciept c. Container numbers and AF Form 310, Document Reciept and Destruction Certificate d. Container numbers and AF Form 12, Accountable Container Reciept |
d. Container numbers and AF Form 12, Accountable Container Reciept
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The best choice for ensuring accountable containers stay in a controlled enviroment is to mail them
a. insured b. express c. certified d. registered |
d. registered
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When you mail classified material, address containers to the
a. Unit Top Secret control officer b. office that is to take action on it c. base iformation security program manager d. specific person identified as the point of contact |
b. office that is to take action on it
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Who is responsible for ensuring an adequate local destruction facility exists?
a. Installation commander b. Central destruction activity c. Support group commander d. Base information mangagement |
a. Installation commander
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