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130 Cards in this Set

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What are the seven general duties and responsiblities of a materiel management specialist as they are outlined in enlisted classification?
1.Perform administrative and management functions
2.inspect and evaluate inventory management activities
3.inspect and identify property
4.provide support to maintenance activity
5.perform technical materiel functions
6.issue, ship and transfer property
7.plan and schedule materiel storage activities
What program was created to promote a better understanding of the whole supply system?
Wholesale logistics program
What rank is required to qualify for the logistics career broadening program?
Tsgt or Msgt
Who handles all enlisted issues for a major command for the 2s career field?
major command functional manager
Who monitors the growth and health of the squadron and its enlisted members?
Squadron chief enlisted manager
Who chairs the AFSCAB and is responsible to the career field for policy and guidance and overall dircetion of the materiel management career enlisted community?
AF materiel management career field manager
What is eLog21?
The AF transformation campaign plan to improve logistic to meet both the current and future threat environment
eLog21 drives an expeditionary logistics force by enabling what four key effects?
1. Enterprise View
2.Intergrated processes
3.Optimized resources
4.Intergrated technology
Establishing an enterprise view ensures what?
That logistics decisions are made and actions are taken with an understanding of their impact across the entire AF
What is the goal of intergrated processes?
To create unified, enterprise wide processes that cut across organizations and geographies to deliver the right support, to the right place, at the right time, every time
Who is responsible for cradle-to-grave management of every AF weapon system?
AFMC
AFMC operates which 3 ALC?
1.Ogden ALC (OO-ALC)
2.Oklahoma City ALC (OC-ALC)
3.Warner Robins ALC (WR-ALC)
Who negotiates with civilian contractors to purchase aircraft parts and provide depot maintenance and modifications?
Item managers
What agency is responsible for providing support throughout the DOD?
DLA
Who manages and purchases common consumable items used by all the military serives and some civilian agencies?
DLA
DLA's 3 inventory control points are?
1.Defense supply center columbus(DSCC)
2.Philadelphia(DSCP)
3.Richmond(DSCR)
GSA provides what?
wholesale support to all government agencies
What is a locally manufactured item?
An item fabricated by a maintenance activity on base
Locally manufactured items are processed in supply as?
Receipts due-in
Local purchase is?
Another important source of supply and vendors from the local community
Who approves who is autorized to make purchases using the GPC?
Squadron resource advisor
Centralized Repair Facility does what for maintenance?
Gives them options ranging from complete decentralization to centralization of repair functions in a single facility
How catergories of supply are there?
10
Repair parts are class?
9 IX
Major end items are class?
7 VII
Construction is class?
4 IV
POl is class?
III 3
Subsistence is class?
I 1
Weapons is class?
II 2
Medical materiel is what class?
VIII 8
What are the LRS 4 functional flights?
Materiel management, deployment and distribution, vehicle management, and fuels management
LRS commander is experienced in what 3 core competencies?
1.supply 2. logistics plans 3.transportation
Logistics manager is?
The senior civilian logistician on the staff
OC is?
The commanders single point of contact for health of the squadron issues
AFGLSC 3 primary functions are?
1.SC palnning and execution(448 SCMW)
2.SC operations(635 SCMW)
3.SC Strategy and integration(591 SCMG)
Materiel management system consists of what 4 major processes?
1.item accounting
2.file maintenance
3.reports
4.accounting and finance
What are all of item accountings processes?
1.issue
2. due-out
3.due-out requisitioning
4.receipt
5.DOR
6.TIN
7.shipment
8.leveling/file staus
File maintenance has how many processes?
1.status
2.follow-up
3.inventory
4.special level
5.equipment in-use
6.new item record load
7.mission change special level
8.miscellaneous file maintenance
9.stock number user directory
10.interchangeable substitute group
11.MRSP and MSK
What are the five different types of reports?
1.daily
2.monthly
3.quarterly
4.as-required
5.utility
What the accounting and finance programs?
1.requisitioning and status
2.receipts
3.issue and turn-in
4.shipments
5.billings
6.file maintenance
What are the three ways to navigate through AFMAN 23-110?
1.table of contents
2.hyperlinks
3.search/find tools
How are hyperlinks indicated?
As blue text
What does the pink hyperlink text indicate?
a future hyperlink activated with a later publication of AFMAN 23-110
How can you identify changes made to AFMAN 23-110?
By reviewing the summary of changes
What are the 4 major types of inquires?
1.item record
2.detail record
3.part number record
4.other records
Where is inquiry abuse evident?
M32 monthly base supply management report
Line one of your inquiry out shows what?
Input image
The output is displayed in what format?
Narrative
What are the most common item record retrieval codes?
1- indicative data
2- short item record output
4- transaction history
5-repair cycle data
6-all records with ISG
Detail record retrieval codes?
ALL- all details linked to the input stock number
D- DIFM details
I- due-in details
O- Due-out details
S- Status details
What does the part number inquiry provide?
NSN, cage code, and TO associated with that particular part number
What is requirements computation data output under?
S035 management notice
What are the 3 CTH inquiry inputs?
1.SN
2.transaction serial number
3.batch miscelllaneous
How many ways can you view CTH outputs?
4
What are the ways to view the CTH output?
1.abbrev. format option A
2.short format option B prints at CO
3.short format option s displays on computer
4.long format option L prints at CO
What 3 elements are the reject phrase made up of?
1.reject code
2.descriptive phrase
3.action flag
Rejects shouldnt normally exceed how many days?
1 to 6 days
What option in the reject processor program is used for force delete of a reject?
option 3
All rejects cleared by the reject monitor appear where?
D20 surveillamnce report part 9 forced reject clear listing
What is a controlled TRIC?
Transactions that require autorization for an individual to process
who determines what transactions can be processed in each flight?
Flight chief
who does the flight chief collaborate with to determine who can do certain transactions?
terminal security monitor
who loads all autorizations todesignated terminal functions?
terminal security manager
An attempt to process a TRIC unauthorized to you results in a?
301 reject notice
Where does processing of unauthorized TRICS appear?
D20 pt.8 base supply surveillance report, daily security violations list
Who is responsible for scheduling reports and listings?
Computer operations
When does the computer room production scheduler prepare the forecast listing of all computer requirements?
10th workday
A SMAg is a revolving fund that is established threw an act of?
Congress
What publication describes the general duties and responsibilities for materiel management?
AFI 36-2101
What concept does SMAG operate off of?
no-profit no-loss basis
What are the 5 SMAG accounts?
1.Army
2.Navy
3.marines
4.AF
5.DLA
What are the six divisions of SMAG?
1.AF academy cadet store
2.medical/ dental
3.GSD
4.MSD
5.troop support division
6.fuels division
What divisions does materiel management only deal with?
MSD an GSD
What does the procedures element use to scrutinize operations?
surveillance visits
How often are surveillance visits scheduled?
Annual basis
Who develops the schedule for surveillance visits?
Procedures element
what is used to report when computers are not processing or updating transactions as it should?
AF form 1815 difficulty report DIREP worksheet
Who is the DIREP reported to?
HQ OSSG
who is responsible for submitting, controlling, and monitoring DIREP?
procedures element
What are the four DIREP catergories?
1.Major impact
2.severe problem
3.chronic problem
4.cosmetic error
In the DIREP catergory which problem is usualyy created immediately and released on a special release?
major impact
which DIREP catergory is corrected with the next release to be shipped?
severe problem
Which DIREP catergory is corrected with the next scheduled release?
chronic problem
Which DIREP catergory is corrected as workload permits?
cosmetic error
The team of 3 that submitts a throughly researched and documented DIREP is?
1.the user
2.management and systems monitor
3.DIREP monitor
What are the three methods of analysis?
1.trend
2.problem
3.special studies
what is a management indicator?
Performance measures that represent a key result and are selected for monitoring at staff and command level incidental to a system for management control
If an asset is pulled for ISU during degraded ops what tex code should be annotated on the af form 2005?
6
How are SPRs created?
From TEX code 7
What does TEX code 6 identify?
degraded ops shipment or nondirected transfer to DRMO.
How many procedures are manual accounting separated into?
two time restrictions
What are the 2 time restrictions manual accounting are separated into?
1.short term performed at least quarterly by LRS/LSC
less tha 72 duty hours
2.long term performed at least annually by LRS/LSC
Why is the review of managemnt products coordinated with the analysis element?
it is a quick, accurate way of identifying deficiencies in the materiel management account
What is the purpose of the analysis program?
To determine the effectiveness of the materiel management account
After gathering data what is the next step in performing an analysis?
identify unfavorable deviations or deficiencies that may exist in the materiel management account
During a surveillance coordination of your review of management products should be done with what activity?
analysis element
What are source documents?
any records that require processing through document control
who is responsible for the final QC and validation of documents before they are destroyed or placed in the valid document file?
document control
When comparing the DCR and source documents what must agree?
1.document number
2.stock number
3.quantity
4.unit of issue
5.system designator
What is used in the document control element to track source documents?
DCR document control record
Where are DCR stored?
In a database file that is updated and maintained through a pc interface with the materiel management computer
what two things does the document file code or flag does?
1.shows whether you should destroy a document or file it in the permanent document file
2. it shows receipts of, and processing of, fileable or destroyable documents
How long can the accountable officer keep the file indicator "D" source documents?
15 days
What register lists info from the transactions stored in the daily transactions history area of the materiel managemnt database?
D06
What replaces the D06?
M19 consolidated transaction register
What gives managers a record of all transactions processed and is stored and merged on magnetic tapes?
M19 consolidated transaction register
What is prepared daily from transactions stored in the daily transaction history area within the materiel management system database?
D04 daily document register
How long is the D04 on disk?
2 years
What lists all item records and their related repair cycle and detail records?
R22 conversion audit list
What else is the weapons inventory listing referred to as?
1WC
What is the 1WC used for?
To inventory all weapons that are accounted for on the item/detail records that are assigned CIC 4
How long does document control file the cover letter and 1WC listing?
2 years
What is the M16 shipment loss analysis used for?
shows the processing of tracer action TAR receipts its is used to manage and survey shipped property
What is the M16 3 parts?
1.potential losses
2.actual loses
3.recovered shipments
How is the M16 filed?
By fiscal year and destroyed after one year
What does the M10 consolidated inventory adjustment register do?
Identifies areas where adjustments have been made
How do you know when an items been shipped?
When the transportation data (mode and date of shipment) has been loaded to the shipment suspense detail record
All shipments and transfers processed through LRS produce what?
shipment suspense detail or a shipment not credited SNC detail
What detail type identifies shipment suspense details?
c
How long are shipment suspense details retained on computer?
60 days at conus and 120 days at oconus
what deletes SNC details when credit is received?
Accounting and finance program
Without CMOS what tric is used to update the shipment suspense detail?
TRIC SSC
what happens when shipment suspense details become delinquent?
They show up on the R40 delinquent shipment list
How often should the R40 be processed?
every two weeks with CMOS every week
How many parts does the R40 have?
6
What are the four elements that are responsible for processing RVPs?
1.document control
2.repair cycle support
3.inventory
4.customer service
What freeze codes do RVP process against?
Q, I, C
What TRIC is used to input a freeze code?
FFC
HOw can you perform an automated RVP?
TRIC 1AM
When justified, what method, other then filing, may be used to store source documents?
Microfilm