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70 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
1. Q - What collaboration services are available for electronic communications?
A - (1) Web conferencing. (2) Instant messaging. (3) Collaborative workspaces. (4) Application sharing
4. Q - Who is the final approval authority for the Internet release package?
A - Unit commander.
2. Q - What is the primary purpose of managing information effectively and efficiently?
A - To enhance the Air Force mission.
2. Q - What are the three parts of communications?
A - (1) Sender. (2) Message. (3) Receiver
1. Q - How is communications defined?
A - The process of sharing ideas, information and messages with others.
8. Q - What are the three types of formats for form memorandums?
A - (1) Prewritten. (2) Fill-in. (3) Optional Statement.
2. Q - What are the two types of indorsements?
A - (1) Same-page. (2) Separate-page.
8. Q - What type of paper is used to advocate or convince the reader on an argument or position?
A - Position papers.
4. Q - Who is responsible for ensuring the record e-mails are properly filed for access and retrieval?
A - The user.
7. Q - What is the most common mistake before sending e-mail?
A - Check your attachments.
3. Q - Who is responsible for establishing a BITS to provide on-base distribution of communications?
A – Installation commander.
2. Q - What type of mail class can not be used to send personal correspondence?
A – Standard mail.
2. Q - What are the two classification decisions?
A – (1) Original. (2) Derivative.
3. Q - Who may originally classify documents?
A – Only individuals occupying positions specifically authorized in writing may classify documents originally.
2. Q - Define a “security violation.”
A – Any knowing, willful, or negligent action that could reasonably be expected to result in an unauthorized
disclosure of classified information.
1. Q - What is required for a person to receive classified information?
A – The need-to-know, proper security clearance, and a signed nondisclosure agreement.
3. Q - Who is responsible for determining an individual’s “need to know” for classified information?
A – The authorized possessor of the classified information.
2. Q - Which method is used when transmitting Top Secret material to an installation serviced by
diplomatic pouch?
A – The Department of State Diplomatic Courier Service.
1. What plays a vital role in managing and operating Air Force activities?
A – Records.
4. What are Final records?
A – Those that have been signed, officially released, and cannot be altered.
2. The BRM ensures offices of record receive a SAV how often?
A – RM ensures offices of record receive a staff assistance visit (SAV) at least every 24 months.
3. What happens to a document after it is signed or approved by an authorized authority?
A – The document becomes a record and must be transferred to the shared drive designated for records to
ensure proper lifecycle management.
2. What is AFRIMS specifically responsible for automating?
A – Preparation and maintenance of the files maintenance and disposition plan, and the files disposition control
label.
1. What program generates the file disposition control labels?
A – AFRIMS.
9. What is shown on the file folder label?
A – Shows the item number, series title, and the office of record.
5. What is the primary purpose for maintaining records?
A – To ensure we can give needed information to decision makers whenever and wherever it is needed.
1. What is the first step in filing a document?
A – Assemble documents for filing in the same manner as required for their creation, dispatch, and use with the
latest action on top.
.
1. Why are records kept?
A – Because they contain needed information.
3. Where is the AF Form 614 filed?
A – Put in place of the removed record or folder.
2. What are the two categorized areas of disposition?
A – (1) Transfer. (2) Destruction.
6. What is the length of time the Air Force keeps a record?
A – Retention period.
10. How do you destroy magnetic tapes or other magnetic medium?
A – Degauss or overwrite.
1. What does the vital records program ensure?
A – Continuity of government during national emergencies.
2. What are the two traditional types of vital records?
A – (1) Emergency-operating records. (2) Records to protect rights.
4. What is a disaster?
A – An unexpected occurrence inflicting widespread destruction and distress and having long-term adverse
effects on agency operations.
3. What is an emergency?
A – A situation or an occurrence of a serious nature, developing suddenly and unexpectedly, and demanding
immediate action.
4. What determines the cutoff for active records?
A – The retention period.
7. What form is used as a packing list for transferred or retired records?
A – SF 135.
1. Who manages the staging area for a base?
A – Managed by the BRM.
3. What types of records are not kept at the staging area?
A – Active records.
3. What is the minimum length of time an Air Force Form 525 stays in suspense with the records
manager if a disposition cannot be determined?
A – Six months.
1. What information does the public have a right to?
A – Information concerning the activities of its government.
5. What are the two types of FOIA request?
A – (1) Simple. (2) Complex.
1. What does the Privacy Act of 1974 do for individuals?
A – Protect individuals from unwarranted invasion of their personal privacy.
2. What are some examples of nonreleasable information?
(1) Marital status.
(2) Number, name, and sex of dependents.
(3) Civilian educational degrees and major areas of study.
(4) School and year of graduation.
(5) Home of record.
(6) Home address and phone number.
(7) Age and date of birth.
(8) Present or future assignments overseas.
(9) Office and unit address and duty phone for overseas.
(10) Race/ethnic origin.
(11) SSN.
5. How is “For Official Use Only” information protected during duty hours?
A – Keep in an out-of-sight location.
2. Who is authorized to serve as the POC for publications and forms where the Air Force serves as
the lead service?
A – Only civilian employees or military members of the Air Force.
2. What is the Federal Register?
A – Official daily publication for rules, proposed rules, and notices.
6. What are the two ways a PA statement may be given?
A – (1) Orally. (2) In writing.
8. How are SSNs protected?
A – Authority, purpose, routine uses, and disclosure—FOUO.
1. What are the four classes of information in cognitive hierarchy?
A – Data, Information, Knowledge, Understanding
3. How is metadata used?
A – Used to describe how the data is structured using a prescribed syntax and to associate the data with
semantics.
2. What is a standard?
A – A standard is defined as something that is measurable and repeatable.
1. What is a schema?
A – The structured description of the records is known as a schema.
4. Why should you perform a security audit trail?
A – To determine if the security features on your system are working.
7. How can you protect critical data against tampering?
A – Provide this protection by controlling physical access to the AIS itself, by installing keyboard locks or other
security mechanisms on the computer, or by establishing procedures requiring removal and secure storage
or critical data from an unattended AIS.
1. What is the main purpose of a database?
A – To make data independent of the programs that uses
4. What is data denormalization?
A – The process of deliberately violating data normalization techniques.
1. Who is responsible for the technical implementation and maintenance of the database?
A – Database Administrator.
8. To minimize database destruction how often should the database be backed up?
A – Daily, weekly, or monthly.
2. What is a key enabler for the information technology task force?
A – Air Force Portal.
1. What is the most important part of the Air Portal initiative?
A – The user.
4. Who is considered the “owner” of some amount of content on the Air Force Portal?
A – Content publisher.
1. What are the two main environments used to publish to the Air Force Portal?
A – Development and Publishing.
1. What is Hypertext Markup Language?
HTML
A – The set of markup symbols or codes inserted in a file intended for display on a Web browser page.
3. What is a Privacy Advisory?
A – It informs the individual why the information is solicited and how it will be used.
1. Describe knowledge management.
A – Managing an organization’s knowledge-level information in a way that allows easy, usable access by
members for use in decision-making.
1. What are the two characterizations of Knowledge management capabilities?
A – Technical and organizational.
3. What are the three community security practices?
A - Open, restricted, and closed community.
8. SharePoint helps establish a collaborative site to enable what?
A - Manage content across their organizations.