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100 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

Which of the following is not a primary objective of the vision conservation program?
a. Satisfy Air Force Occupational Safety and Health concerns.
b. Provide high quality care.
c. Conduct research that supports wartime readiness.
d. Sustain combat capability to support the mission.

a. Satisfy Air Force Occupational Safety and Health concerns.
Who must provide personnel with the approved eye protection required to do their job
safely?
a. Safety.
b. Supervisor.
c. Functional manager.
d. Bioenvironmental engineering.
c. Functional manager.
The amount of light to be provided in a given location is based on
a. the purpose for which the location is used.
b. the availability of supplementary lighting.
c. factors such as harsh glare and shadows.
d. the quality of the available lighting.
the purpose for which the location is used
Noise exposure limits are established by the
a. bioenvironmental engineering office.
b. director of base medical services.
c. USAF surgeon general.
d. installation commander.
USAF surgeon general
Who establishes the monitoring program in the hearing conservation area to ensure compliance with federal laws?
a. Installation commander.
b. USAF surgeon general.
c. Director of base medical services.
d. Bioenvironmental engineer.
USAF surgeon general
In the hearing conservation program, the safety professional
a. designates noise-hazard areas.
b. decides who has to be tested for hearing loss.
c. implements noise protection in building design.
d. conducts follow-up inspections to ensure program compliance.
Conducts follow up inspections to ensure program compliance
If you were working in a machine shop, your workplace would be designated as a hazardous noise environment when the noise in the shop equals or exceeds
a. 80 decibels at any time.
b. 85 decibels at any time.
c. 80 decibels averaged over an eight-hour period.
d. 85 decibels averaged over an eight-hour period.
d. 85 decibels averaged over an eight-hour period.
When a procedure or piece of equipment exceeds the limits of safe noise exposure, what is the best course of action?
a. Isolate the procedure or equipment from personnel.
b. Require personnel to wear earmuffs or earplugs.
c. Warn personnel about the noise hazard.
d. Conduct a sound-level survey.
Isolate the procedure or equipment from personnel
Installing a guard or barrier between the worker and the hazardous operation illustrates the hazard control method of
a. isolation.
b. revision.
c. substitution.
d. personal protective equipment (PPE).
a. isolation.
What solution is a last resort for controlling exposure to hazards?
a. Personal protective equipment.
b. Substitution.
c. Revision.
d. Isolation.
PPE personal protective equipment
The push-pull system is an example of which local exhaust ventilation system?
a. Spray booth.
b. Exterior hood.
c. Enclosure hood.
d. Mechanical fan.
exterior hood
What are the two main purposes of a spray booth?
a. Control temperature and humidity and protect the equipment surrounding the work area.
b. Protect the health of the worker and reduce the fire and explosion hazard.
c. Protect the health of the worker and the equipment surrounding the work area.
d. Aid the natural flow of air and reduce the fire and explosion hazard.
Protect the health of the worker and reduce the fire and explosion hazard
Which principle accurately describes the difference between local exhaust and general ventilation?
a. General ventilation is usually better because it uses a smaller fan than local exhaust ventilation.
b. Local exhaust ventilation dilutes the air contaminants while general ventilation removes them
before they can enter the atmosphere.
c. Local exhaust ventilation is usually preferred because it handles a smaller volume of air than
general ventilation.
d. General ventilation cleans the air better than local exhaust ventilation.
Local exhaust ventilation is usually preferred because it handles a smaller volume of air then general ventilation
Any type of fan device that aids the flow of air in an area is known as
a. local exhaust.
b. lateral exhaust.
c. local ventilation.
d. mechanical ventilation.
Mechanical ventilation
What agency reviews the initial design for any ventilation system to be used in Air Force environments?
a. Wing safety.
b. Public health.
c. Base medical services.
d. Bioenvironmental engineering.
BIO engineering
Which of the following conditions creates a hazardous atmosphere?
a. The presence of flammable gas in any amount.
b. Any space that is not designed for continuous occupancy.
c. The presence of an atmospheric oxygen concentration of 20 percent.
d. The presence of a flammable gas in excess of 10 percent of its lower explosive limit.
The presence of a flammable gas in excess of 10 percent of its lower explosive limit
Oxygen deficiency is first reached when oxygen content is below
a. 17.5 percent.
b. 18.5 percent.
c. 19.5 percent.
d. 20.5 percent.
19.5 percent
An atmosphere is considered oxygen-enriched when oxygen content rises above
a. 21.5 percent.
b. 22 percent.
c. 23 percent.
d. 23.5 percent.
23.5 percent
Who must sign the entry permit prior to workers entering a confined space?
a. Entrants only.
b. Attendant only.
c. Supervisor only.
d. Supervisor and entrants.
Supervisor and entrants
Name the three primary means of rescue from confined spaces.
a. Self-rescue, centrally located rescue team, and organizational rescue team.
b. Organizational rescue team, self-rescue, and emergency medical rescue team.
c. Emergency medical rescue team, centrally located rescue team, and self-rescue.
d. Centrally located rescue team, emergency medical rescue team, and organizational rescue
team.
self rescue, centrally located rescue team and organizational rescue team
All members of confined-space rescue teams must have hands-on training in removing victims at least every
a. six months.
b. 12 months.
c. 18 months.
d. 24 months.
12 months
A toxic gas and vapor concentration of three percent is considered
a. low.
b. normal.
c. moderately high.
d. very high.
very high
Which type of respirator offers protection against light concentrations only of gases and vapors?
a. Gas mask.
b. Mechanical filter.
c. Chemical cartridge.
d. Combination mechanical filter/chemical cartridge.
c. Chemical cartridge.
When wearing a hose mask respirator without a blower unit (Type B), what is the maximum distance beyond uncontaminated air that a worker may go?
a. 25 feet.
b. 75 feet.
c. 100 feet.
d. 150 feet.
75 feet
Self-contained breathing apparatus respirators
a. use a blower to pass air across an air-cleaning element.
b. protect against particulate matter but not oxygen deficiency.
c. should be used only for intermittent exposure to light concentrations of gas.
d. provide complete protection against airborne toxicity and oxygen deficiency.
provide complete protection against airborne toxicity and oxygen deficiency
Which type of self-contained breathing apparatus is simple to use and requires less regular maintenance than the other SCBAs?
a. Demand type.
b. Self-generating.
c. Pressure demand.
d. Oxygen cylinder re-breathing.
self generating
Safety helmets can be broken down into how many types and classes?
a. Two types, three classes.
b. Two types, four classes.
c. Three types, four classes.
d. Three types, five classes.
two types, three classes
Which type and class of safety helmet will offer protection against lateral blows to the head
and reduce the danger of exposure to low voltage electrical conductors?
a. Type I, class G.
b. Type I class E.
c. Type II, class G.
d. Type II, class C.
type II, class G
Which type of goggles is designed to protect the eyes from relatively large particles flying from any direction?
a. Wire screen.
b. Spectacle.
c. Chippers.
d. Welding.
Chippers goggles
Which type of goggles should be used when ordinary goggles dust or steam over, affecting the wearer’s vision?
a. Wire screen.
b. Chemical.
c. Gas-tight.
d. Chippers.
Wire screen goggles
Which type glove must be used as outer protection when rubber insulating gloves are being used?
a. Cotton.
b. Wool.
c. Leather.
d. Synthetic.
Leather
Rubber insulating gloves in storage must be dielectric tested every
a. three months.
b. six months.
c. 12 months.
d. 24 months.
12 months
Who is responsible for testing rubber insulating gloves and ensuring relevant records are maintained?
a. Safety professional.
b. Civil engineering electric shop.
c. Individual user.
d. Supervisor.
supervisor
Installing a guard or barrier between the worker and the hazardous operation illustrates the hazard control method of
a. isolation.
b. revision.
c. substitution.
d. personal protective equipment (PPE).
class 75
Which equipment protects the upper part of the foot from hot metal splashes?
a. Spats.
b. Toe guards.
c. Safety toe shoes.
d. Conductive shoes.
spats
A safety belt and harness assembly must be capable of withstanding a tensile load of at least
a. 2,000 pounds.
b. 3,000 pounds.
c. 4,000 pounds.
d. 5,000 pounds.
4,000 pounds
What is the minimum distance a strip of insulating matting must extend past each end of a work area?
a. Two feet.
b. Three feet.
c. Four feet.
d. Five feet.
2 feet
Which reason does not constitute a requirement to replace insulating matting?
a. It has been perforated.
b. It is worn to one-half of its original thickness.
c. It is worn to two-thirds of its original thickness.
d. It has metallic chips embedded that cannot be removed.
it is worn to two-thirds of its original thickness
Whether in use or not, belts, lanyards, and lifelines must be inspected at least every
a. three months.
b. six months.
c. nine months.
d. 12 months.
b. six months.
The maximum time and distance between hazardous operations or materials and an emergency shower and eyewash unit are
a. 10 seconds and 50 feet.
b. 10 seconds and 100 feet.
c. 15 seconds and 50 feet.
d. 15 seconds and 100 feet.
10 second and 100 feet
Energized circuits located within how many feet of emergency showers must be protected by a ground fault circuit interrupter?
a. Two.
b. Three.
c. Five.
d. Six.
5
What elements must be present in order for a fire to start?
a. Fuel, heat, carbon dioxide, and chemical reaction.
b. Fuel, oxygen, combustible, and chemical reaction.
c. Fuel, heat, carbon dioxide, and oxygen.
d. Fuel, heat, oxygen, and chemical reaction.
fuel, heat, oxygen and chemical reaction
If during an annual inspection of the child development center you identify and document several fire deficiencies, what should be your next course of action?
a. Report them to the fire prevention personnel at the fire department for action.
b. Report them to the child development center management for action.
c. Take immediate action to correct the fire deficiencies.
d. Assign risk assessment codes as required.
report them to the fire prevention personnel at the fire department for action
Who must approve the use of portable space heaters?
a. Base safety.
b. Fire department.
c. Base civil engineer.
d. Base bioenvironmental engineer.
base Civil engineer
What minimum distance must be maintained between a heat producing appliance and combustibles?
a. 12 inches.
b. 18 inches.
c. 24 inches.
d. 36 inches.
18 inches
During an inspection, if you believe that the facility does not have an adequate number of fire extinguishers, you should
a. have additional extinguishers installed.
b. submit AF Form 979 to the installation manager.
c. refer the facility manager to fire prevention personnel.
d. have all flammable and explosive substances removed from the building.
refer the facility manager to fire prevention personnel
In color coding, black lettering should not be used on which background(s)?
a. Magenta.
b. Orange.
c. Yellow and white.
d. Red and green.
red and green
Which color code is used for piping system containers that contain radioactive substances?
a. Lime yellow.
b. Magenta.
c. Orange.
d. Yellow.
Magenta
Which color code is used for designating electrical conduit and unguarded, dangerous parts of machines or energized equipment?
a. Magenta.
b. Orange.
c. Blue.
d. Red.
orange
Which type of hammer should be used for heading rivets?
a. Claw.
b. Mallet.
c. Sledge.
d. Ball peen.
d. Ball peen.
Which hammer is made for heavy hitting?
a. Claw.
b. Mallet.
c. Sledge.
d. Ball peen.
c. Sledge.
Which wrench has the disadvantage of tending to round off the corners of hex nuts?
a. Adjustable.
b. Open-end.
c. Socket.
d. Box.
adjustable
Which type of chisel should be used to cut sheet metal?
a. Flat.
b. Cape.
c. Common.
d. Diamond-point.
flat
Which type of pliers is used for general electric work where space is limited?
a. Adjustable combination.
b. Diagonal-cutting.
c. Side-cutting.
d. Long-nose.
long nose
Which screwdriver is especially useful in getting to screws under or behind pieces of equipment?
a. Off-set.
b. Ratchet.
c. Off-set ratchet.
d. Straight ratchet.
c. Off-set ratchet.
What common behavior creates safety hazards when using screwdrivers?
a. Holding the screwdriver incorrectly.
b. Using the wrong kind of screwdriver for the task.
c. Not using required personal protective equipment.
d. Using screwdrivers that have not been approved by the Air Force.
using the wrong kind of screwdriver for the task
Which precaution must you take to avoid possible injury, as well as damage to the saw, when you are cutting stock?
a. Use personal protective equipment and guards.
b. Cut the stock parallel to the grain.
c. Cut the stock across the grain.
d. Adequately secure the stock.
adequately secure the stock
What factor controls the “binding” of hacksaw blades?
a. Angle of approach to the stock.
b. Type of frame used.
c. Oiling of the blade.
d. Set of the teeth.
set of teeth
When using files, what action frequently leads to puncture wounds?
a. Failure to use gloves.
b. Improper maintenance.
c. Failure to use a handle.
d. Cleaning the teeth too often.
failure to use handle
What is the easiest way to protect the operator of an electrically powered hand tool?
a. Bonding.
b. Grounding.
c. Double insulating.
d. Insulating matting.
grounding
For small-capacity electrical tools, double insulation can be provided by
a. adding more insulation to the power cord.
b. encasing the entire tool in a nonconductive material.
c. making the switch and handle of nonconductive materials.
d. having the operator wear rubber insulating gloves while standing on insulating matting.
encasing the entire tool in a non-conductive material
On an electric drill, the chuck
a. must be securely anchored against the shank of the drill bit.
b. must be released before the drill is turned on.
c. should be loosely attached to the drill bit.
d. must be depressed to release the lock.
must be securely anchored against the shank of the drill bit
A twist drill bit with four flutes should only be used to
a. start holes in sheet metal.
b. start holes in plaster.
c. enlarge cored holes.
d. drill into plaster.
enlarge cored holes
When using a portable sander, what should be done to protect the motor from overheating?
a. Tilt the sanding disk so the entire disk does not contact the surface at the same time.
b. Limit the work area to no more than 18 inches at a time.
c. Switch the sander on before placing it on the work.
d. Apply only light pressure.
use light pressure
Maintenance on soldering irons and guns is primarily centered on the
a. tips.
b. handle.
c. shank.
d. power cord.
tips
On a power-actuated hand tool, the steel muzzle guard must be at least how many inches in diameter to protect personnel from flying particles?
a. 2.
b. 2 ½.
c. 3.
d. 3 ½.
d. 3 ½.
To prevent mishaps involving machinery, the best action, which should be pursued first, is to
a. educate the worker.
b. engineer hazards out.
c. use machine guards for existing hazards.
d. provide personal protective equipment.
engineer hazards out
Which is not a purpose of machine guards?
a. To help remove people’s fear of the machine.
b. To protect people from material that may be thrown.
c. To keep material from being thrown into the machine.
d. To keep people from touching the machine’s moving parts.
to keep material from being thrown into the machine
In-running nip points are a specific danger of which type of motion?
a. Cutting.
b. Rotating.
c. Transverse.
d. Reciprocating.
rotating
What hazard is commonly associated with a transverse motion?
a. Projections on the rotating parts may injure the worker.
b. Flying chips or scraps are likely to strike the operator.
c. The worker may be struck or caught in a pinch by the moving part.
d. The worker may be caught between a moving and stationary part.
the worker may get struck or caught in a pinch by the moving parts
If a machine guard opens when stock is moved into the danger area and returns to a rest
position when the stock is removed, that guard is
a. fixed.
b. adjustable.
c. interlocking.
d. self-adjusting.
d. self-adjusting.
Which type of machine guard is preferable to all others?
a. Fixed.
b. Interlock.
c. Adjustable.
d. Self-adjusting.
fixed
Which safety device uses operator wristbands to ensure a worker’s hands are automatically
withdrawn from the point of operation?
a. Gate.
b. Holdout.
c. Pull-out.
d. Presence sensing.
pull out
Which safety device resembles an interlocked machine guard?
a. Gate.
b. Holdout.
c. Pull-out.
d. Presence sensing.
Gate
To ensure proper layout, equipment and machinery must be arranged
a. so that weight is distributed equally.
b. to permit an even flow of materials.
c. clockwise most hazardous to least hazardous.
d. so that similar hazards are located close together.
to permit an even flow of materials
In a machine shop, how many inches wide should aisles be to permit free movement of workers and equipment?
a. 12.
b. 18.
c. 24.
d. 36.
36 inches
The floor loading capacity of a machine shop is determined by the
a. installation bioenvironmental engineer.
b. installation civil engineer.
c. shop supervisor.
d. safety personnel.
installation Civil engineer
Which traffic safety course improves driving by identifying and changing behavioral patterns that cause unsafe acts?
a. I.
b. II.
c. IVB.
d. V.
Course I
Which traffic safety course must be reviewed annually by the installation ground safety manager?
a. I.
b. II.
c. IVB.
d. V.
Course II
Which traffic safety course may be commander directed for personnel who are convicted of
serious traffic violations?
a. I.
b. II.
c. IVB.
d. V.
Course V
All Air Force personnel must wear seatbelts at all times with the exception of
a. off-duty military personnel driving off base.
b. civilians performing official duties off base.
c. military personnel in base housing areas.
d. Air Force Office of Special Investigations agents performing protective services.
AF office of special investigations agents performing protective services
Who determines (or designates someone to determine) when and where off road vehicles
may operate on base?
a. Chief of safety.
b. Traffic safety engineer.
c. Ground safety manager.
d. Installation commander.
d. Installation commander.
An all-terrain vehicle is a three- or four-wheeled vehicle that has low pressure tires and a wheel base of
a. 50 inches or less.
b. 75 inches or less.
c. 100 inches or less.
d. 125 inches or less.
50 inches or less
What is the speed limit for forklifts inside of warehouses?
a. 20 miles per hour (mph).
b. 15 mph.
c. 10 mph.
d. 5 mph.
5 mph
What is a good way to gauge the impact of your restraint awareness program?
a. Perform a restraint usage survey before and after the program.
b. Have squadron safety representatives survey their personnel.
c. Interview several base personnel about the impact of the program.
d. Ask security forces how many tickets are written for failure to wear seat belts.
perform a restraint usage before and after the program
Who regulates the movement of traffic and personnel on an Air Force installation?
a. Installation commander.
b. Chief of security forces.
c. Installation safety officer.
d. Installation traffic engineer.
installation commander
If your base has no traffic engineer, the installation commander may request assistance from
a. the Department of Transportation.
b. the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration.
c. the commander of the Military Traffic Management Command.
d. the administration of the National Traffic of Motorized Vehicles.
b. the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration.
What document describes the safest and most efficient way to use primary and secondary roads on an installation?
a. Base traffic circulation plan.
b. Traffic engineering study.
c. USAF Traffic Safety Program guidebook.
d. Manual on Uniform Traffic Control Devices.
base traffic circulation plan
A traffic engineering study would be useful when
a. a hazard report identifies an intersection with a high number of accidents.
b. a special event will increase the volume of traffic on base.
c. the commander wants to know what percentage of Airmen are wearing seat belts.
d. a large number of students fail traffic safety courses.
a hazard report identifies an intersection with high number of accidents
Who is responsible for the initial classification of new lasers?
a. A panel of industry and defense personnel.
b. National Laser Safety Institute.
c. The manufacturer.
d. The user.
manufacturer
Which laser class is of medium power and requires control measures to prevent viewing of the direct beam?
a. 1.
b. 2.
c. 3.
d. 4.
3
Which agency establishes inspection standards for radio frequency radiation safety programs?
a. Wing safety.
b. Public health.
c. Bioenvironmental engineering.
d. Air Force Safety Center.
AF safety center
Which agency assists unit commanders and shop supervisors with the development of radio
frequency radiation training awareness programs?
a. Wing safety.
b. Public health.
c. Bioenvironmental engineering.
d. Air Force Safety Center.
Bio-environmental engineering
A radio frequency radiation (RFR) safety program should
a. try to eliminate all RFR emissions.
b. locate devices that emit RFR away from public spaces.
c. ensure that personnel are exposed to zero levels of RFR.
d. evaluate the exposure potential of a system that emits RFR against the permissible exposure
limit.
evaluate the exposure potential of a system that emits RFR against the permissible exposure limit
Which is an example of ionizing radiation?
a. Visible light.
b. Gamma rays.
c. Microwaves.
d. Sound waves.
gamma rays
Which agency is responsible for providing initial and annual refresher radio frequency radiation training?
a. The unit.
b. Wing safety.
c. Public health.
d. Bioenvironmental engineering.
the unit
Refresher training for the radio frequency radiation awareness program will include all of the following except
a. control measures.
b. incident reporting procedures.
c. locations where the permissible exposure limit can be exceeded.
d. modifications that affect the locations of hazardous areas.
locations where the permissible exposure limit can be exceeded
Lateral epicondylitis, or tennis elbow, is caused by
a. activities that require rotation of the forearm and bending of the wrist at the same time.
b. the repeated tensing of a muscle while overusing the wrist.
c. activities that require twisting motions of the hands.
d. activities that have jerky throwing motions.
activities that have jerky throwing motions
Which factor contributes to work-related musculoskeletal disorders by creating pressure
over a small area and interfering with blood flow and nerve function?
a. Force.
b. Posture.
c. Repetition.
d. Mechanical compression.
mechanical compression
For a shop where workers are exposed to bloodborne pathogens, when must the exposure
control plan be reviewed and updated?
a. Six months prior to a safety inspection.
b. Monthly or whenever an exposure occurs.
c. Annually or whenever modified tasks affect exposure.
d. Twice annually or whenever modified tasks affect exposure.
annually or whenever modified tasks affect exposure