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643 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
what is the control center of the brain
thalamus
part of the diencephalon
what are the 3 main parts of the brain
cerebellum
cerebrum
brainstem
cerebellum
cerebrum
brainstem
cerebellum
- what do
- where
motor control
motor control
what are the 2 parts of the diencephalon?
which is part of which of the 3 main components of the brain
diencephalon = thalamus + hypothalamus

which is part of the cerebrum
diencephalon = thalamus + hypothalamus

which is part of the cerebrum
___________ are large groups of cells that have the same function
ganglia = are large groups of cells that have the same function
Basal ganglia - deals with?
Basal ganglia - motor
the dips in the convolutions of the cerebral hemispheres are called? peaks?
dips = sulcus
peaks = gyrus
dips = sulcus
peaks = gyrus
__________ is a ridge in cerebral cortex surface btw adjacent sulcus
gyrus
ventricles are filled with?
CSF
what cell does these things:
- anchor neurons
- regulate external chemical environment (ions)
- recycle neurotransmitters
- building blocks of BBB
astrocytes
what cell type makes and have cilia that circulate CSF as well as make up the blood-CSF barrier
ependymal cells
name the cell type:

specialized macrophages capable of phagocytosis that protect neurons of the central nervous system.[11] They are derived from hematopoietic precursors rather than ectodermal tissue; they are commonly categorized as such because of their supportive role to neurons.

These cells are found in all regions of the brain and spinal cord. Microglial cells are small relative to macroglial cells, with changing shapes and oblong nuclei. They are mobile within the brain and multiply when the brain is damaged. In the healthy central nervous system, microglia processes constantly sample all aspects of their environment (neurons, macroglia and blood vessels).
microglial
what are the cells called that make the myelin sheath?
oligodendrocytes
upper motor neuron axons project
- from (2x)
- to (2x)
from
- cerebral cortex
- brainstem

to
- spinal cord
- cranial nerve morot nucleus (in brainstem)
lower motor neuron axons project from? to?
from spinal cord or brainstem to TARGET MUSCLES
name the 12 cranial nerves
I - olfactory
II - optic
III - oculmotor
IV - trochlear
V - trigeminal
VI - abducens
VII - facial
VIII - vestibulocochlear
IX - glosopharyngeal
X - vagus
XI - accessory
XII - hypoglossal
I - olfactory
II - optic
III - oculmotor
IV - trochlear
V - trigeminal
VI - abducens
VII - facial
VIII - vestibulocochlear
IX - glosopharyngeal
X - vagus
XI - accessory
XII - hypoglossal
a group of mylinated axons the size of a pencil is called
fasiculous
a group of mylinated axons the size of a thumb (connect cerebral cortex and cerebellum) is called
peduncle
which side of the brain does this:
i. Spatial abilities
ii. Face recognition
iii. Music
right
which side of the brain does this:
i. Logic
ii. Math
iii. Language
left
which lobe is the
motor cortex
frontal lobe
which lobe is the
somatosensory cortex
parietal
which lobe is the center for
visual
occipital
which lobe is the center for
auditory
temporal
which lobe is the center for
emotion / memory /drive
limbic
which lobe is the center for
pain/gustatory/auditory
insular
speech area of the brain
inferior frontal gyrus
the primary sensory cortex?
(purple)

postcentral sulcus and gyrus
(purple)

postcentral sulcus and gyrus
language processing
area of the brain
supramarginal gyrus
supramarginal gyrus
visual processing
area of the brain
angular gyrus
angular gyrus
Where language is first processed
Wernicke's area


of the superior temporal gyrus
of the temporal lobe
function of Transverse temporal gyri (of Heschl)?
in what lobe?
primary auditory

of temporal lobe
primary auditory

of temporal lobe
what does the Lingual gyrus do?
what lobe?
visual processing

occipital lobe
visual processing

occipital lobe
what lobe is the calcarine sulcus in?
occipital
Parahippocampal gyrus
- lobe?
- function?
limbic lobe
memory
limbic lobe
memory
Subcallosal area
- lobe?
- function?
limbic lobe
smelling
limbic lobe
smelling
what does the
insular cortex
do
taste (gustatory
taste (gustatory
primary clinical significance (function) of Broadmann's area:
4
primary clinical significance (function) of Broadmann's area:
4
primary motor cortex
primary motor cortex
primary clinical significance (function) of Broadmann's area:
17
primary clinical significance (function) of Broadmann's area:
17
primary visual area
primary visual area
primary clinical significance (function) of Broadmann's area:
44, 45
primary clinical significance (function) of Broadmann's area:
44, 45
production of speech - motor C
Broacca's area
production of speech - motor C
Broacca's area
primary clinical significance (function) of Broadmann's area:
3,1,2
primary clinical significance (function) of Broadmann's area:
3,1,2
primary sensory
primary sensory
what are the 2 main cell types of the cerebral cortex and their cooresponding function
pyramidal cells - agranular cortex - motor (primary output / excitatory [glutamate] neurons

nonpyramidal cells (stellate)
- principal interneurons (GAG - inhibits / glutamate excites)
pyramidal cells - agranular cortex - motor (primary output / excitatory [glutamate] neurons

nonpyramidal cells (stellate)
- principal interneurons (GAG - inhibits / glutamate excites)
what connects the left/right cerebral cortex?
commissural fibers
what are the 3 parts of the corpus callosum and what do they do?
i) Genu - connects prefrontal cortex
						ii) Body - connects motor/sensory/parietal corticies
						iii) Splenium - connects temporal/occipital lobes
i) Genu - connects prefrontal cortex
ii) Body - connects motor/sensory/parietal corticies
iii) Splenium - connects temporal/occipital lobes
what does the Anterior commissure do?
Connects olfactory and temporal structures
what does the posterior commissure do?
visual processing
what do long and short association fibers (U fibers)
short association fibers - pass from gyrus to gyrus within a lobe

long association fibers - links lobes
what are
Fasciculi
bundles of fibers
what does this fasiculi (bundle of fibers) connect?
superior longitidinal fasiculus
ant/post cortex
what does this fasiculi (bundle of fibers) connect?
acruate fasiculus

function?
Wernicke's area - Broca's area

language
Wernicke's area - Broca's area

language
what does this fasiculi (bundle of fibers) connect?
unicinate fasiculus
orbital cortex - temporal lobes
what does this fasiculi (bundle of fibers) connect?
cinfulum
limbic cortical areas
what does this fasiculi (bundle of fibers) connect?
inferior longitudinal fasiculus
occipital - temporal lobes
occipital - temporal lobes
Broadmann's area 22 is also called?
and is what function?
Wenicke;s area

language comprehension
Broadmann's areas 44,45 are also called?
and is what function?
Broca's area

production of language
this is the definition of what?

Disturbance in the dominant hemisphere that produces a defect in the expression or comprehension of any of the forms of language
aphasia
what is aphasia
Disturbance in the dominant hemisphere that produces a defect in the expression or comprehension of any of the forms of language
what is this called

i. NON-FLUENT
ii. Comprehension of language is normal
iii. Cant convert thought into meaningful language
iv. Inability to organize words into sentences
v. Articulation is impaired

Brodmanns area 44, 45
Broca's aphasia
what is
Broca's aphasia
i. NON-FLUENT
ii. Comprehension of language is normal
iii. Cant convert thought into meaningful language
iv. Inability to organize words into sentences
v. Articulation is impaired

Brodmanns area 44, 45
what is Wenicke's aphasia
i. FLUENT
ii. Cant COMPREHEND language
iii. Fluent speech that is UNINTELLIGIBLE
iv. Brodmanns area 22
1) Can see on film
what is this called:

i. FLUENT
ii. Cant COMPREHEND language
iii. Fluent speech that is UNINTELLIGIBLE
iv. Brodmanns area 22
1) Can see on film
Wernicke's aphasia
what is contralateral neglect syndrome?
b. RIGHT PARIETAL cortex damage
		c. Neglect left of world
		d. Sx/Dx
			i. Visuospatial task
			ii. Personal neglect
b. RIGHT PARIETAL cortex damage
c. Neglect left of world
d. Sx/Dx
i. Visuospatial task
ii. Personal neglect
what are the structures called that are Between endothelial cells of capillaries
tight junctions
what are the 3 layers between the skull and the brain in order
skull
dura mater
arachnoid
pia mater
brain
skull
dura mater
arachnoid
pia mater
brain
what cell does this:
Regulate endothelial cell proliferation / survival / migration / differentiation / branchin
pericyte
what do pericytes do?
a) Regulate endothelial cell proliferation / survival / migration / differentiation / branching
b) Allow blood vessels to function
c) Phagocytize bad molecules incoming
what do astrocytes do?
i) Determine BBB function / morphology / protein expression
ii) Guide vessel growth - interacts w/capillaries and neurons
what cell does this:
i) Determine BBB function / morphology / protein expression
ii) Guide vessel growth - interacts w/capillaries and neurons
astrocytes
what 3 types of molecules does the BBB restrict
- large
- low lipid soluble (water soluble)
- electrically charged
what do Adherens junction do?
holds the cells together - 20nm - communicate through junctional cleft
what do occludens junctions do?
2 proteins?
TIGHT JUNCTION
- completly occluded
made of
- occludin - binds cytoskeletons
- claudins - FORMS THE PRIMARY SEAL OF THE TIGHT JUNCTION
TIGHT JUNCTION
- completly occluded
made of
- occludin - binds cytoskeletons
- claudins - FORMS THE PRIMARY SEAL OF THE TIGHT JUNCTION
what do
Zonula occludens
do
figure out where to put the tight junctions
what to
junctional adhesion molecules (JAM)
do
a gene of the immunoglobulin superfamily
- promotes lymphocyte transendothelial migratio
what is kernicterus
when bilirubin enters the brain in newborns
4 key differences btw peripheral and brain endothelial cells
1 - ↑ mitochondria
2 - enzymatic barrier
3 - ↓ capillary wall thickness
4 - polarity - has charge to keep things out
what are the 2 main molecular transport mechanisms and for 1 of them what are the 2 subtypes
1 - lipid mediation - passive diffusion for small lipid soluble drugs

2 - catylyzed transport
2a - carrier mediated - facilitated active - miliseconds
2b - receptor mediated - specific receptor - minutes - for proteins
what is the choroid plexus?
blood / CSF barrier
where is CSF made?
choroid plexus
where is choroid plexus and what does it do
makes CSF
makes CSF
what are the walls of the 3rd ventricle
hypothalamus
L-dopa
which crosses the BBB is used to Tx what?
Parkinsons disease
what is btw the cerebral hemispheres
falx cerebri
falx cerebri
what is Btw cerebral hemispheres and cerebellum
Tentorium cerebelli
Tentorium cerebelli
partially separates 2 cerebellar hemispheres
Falx cerebelli
Falx cerebelli
space in tentorium through which brainstem passes
Tentorial notch
Tentorial notch
POTENTIAL space btw skull and dura
Epidural
POTENTIAL space btw dura and arachnoid
Subdural
1) CSF filled
2) Btw arachnoid and pia
3) Structural separation by arachnoid trabecula
Subarachnoid
tearing of meningeal artery or venous sinus results in?
epidural hematoma
epidural hematoma
tearing of cerebral vein as it penetrates arachnoid and enters sinus results in?
subdural hematoma
subdural hematoma
volume of CSF
130mL
what serves as a pathway for pineal secretions to reach the pituitary gland
CSF
what:
midline cavity in the diecephalon a) Connects lateral ventricles - through interventricular foramina
b) Connects 4th ventricle through cerebral aqueduct
3rd ventricle
where is the 4th ventricle
btw cerebellum, pons, and medulla
btw cerebellum, pons, and medulla
where is the thalmus
in the middle of the 3rd ventricle (star)
in the middle of the 3rd ventricle (star)
6 steps of CSF flow
1 - lateral ventricles
2 - interventricular foramen
3 - 3rd ventricle
4 - cerebral aqueduct
5 - 4th ventricle (median and lateral aperture)
6 - cisterns (pontine cistern & cistern magna)
1 - lateral ventricles
2 - interventricular foramen
3 - 3rd ventricle
4 - cerebral aqueduct
5 - 4th ventricle (median and lateral aperture)
6 - cisterns (pontine cistern & cistern magna)
6 steps of CSF flow
1 - lateral ventricles
2 - interventricular foramen
3 - 3rd ventricle
4 - cerebral aqueduct
5 - 4th ventricle (median and lateral aperture)
6 - cisterns (pontine cistern & cistern magna)
1 - lateral ventricles
2 - interventricular foramen
3 - 3rd ventricle
4 - cerebral aqueduct
5 - 4th ventricle (median and lateral aperture)
6 - cisterns (pontine cistern & cistern magna)
a spinal tap is at what level and into what
L4

pia mater
L4

pia mater
Major place / structure where CSF goes into VENOUS system

where is this located
arachnoid villi

superior sagital sinus
arachnoid villi

superior sagital sinus
Brain
__% body mass
15% CO
__% of O2 consumption
Brain
2% body mass
15% CO
20% of O2 consumption
MABP (mean arterial BP) cerebral blood flow
MABP 60-150mm Hg
normal intracranial pressure (H2O or Hg)
65-150 mm H20
5-15mm Hg
what is Hydrocephalus

3 causes?
e. Hydrocephalus
i. ↑ CSF pressure
ii. Causes
1) ↑ CSF production (papillomas - tumors)
2) CSF circulation blocked
3) Reabsorption def
↑ ICP → herniation
what are the 3 types of hermiations in the brain
- cingulate gyrus herniation (subdural hematoma)
- uncus herniation ) herniation through tentorial notch - presses midbrain)
- tonsil herniation (tonsil of cerebellum herniated through foramen magna - compresses medulla - shuts down cardiovascul...
- cingulate gyrus herniation (subdural hematoma)
- uncus herniation ) herniation through tentorial notch - presses midbrain)
- tonsil herniation (tonsil of cerebellum herniated through foramen magna - compresses medulla - shuts down cardiovascular respiration = die)
what type of brain herniation can kill you and why
tonsil herniation (tonsil of cerebellum herniated through foramen magna - compresses medulla - shuts down cardiovascular respiration = die)
tonsil herniation (tonsil of cerebellum herniated through foramen magna - compresses medulla - shuts down cardiovascular respiration = die)
CPP (cerebral perfusion pressure)

CPP = ?
CPP (cerebral perfusion pressure)

CPP = MABP - ICP
what is Cushing reflex (triad) and what is it a sign of?
6) Cushing reflex (triad) - signs of ↑ ICP
a) ↑ systolic BP
b) ↑ pulse pressure (S - D)

↓ HR as ICP ↑ to fatal levels
3 types of cerebral edema
Vasogenic edema
1) ↑ BBB permiability
2) ↑ extracellular fluid
3) Responds to steroids / diuretics

Cytotoxic edema
1) Hypoxia
2) Na/K pump failure
3) ↑ intracellular fluid / cell swelling

Interstitial edema
1) ↑ fluid in white matter around ventricles
2) Usually associated w/hydrocephalus (↑ CSF)
Hyperventilate via respirator (24hrs)
will inc/dec ICP
Hyperventilate via respirator (24hrs) (→ vasoconstrict and ↓ flow)
Ischemic stroke - Caused by?
Embolism - foreign matter carried by bloodstream
Embolism - foreign matter carried by bloodstream
Hemorrhagic stroke - Caused by?
rupture of small perforating arteries
rupture of small perforating arteries
what is a
Penumbra
interface btw a region of permanent tissue damage and an area that will most likely not be damaged

Area of concern - where your intervention can make a difference
name for:

interface btw a region of permanent tissue damage and an area that will most likely not be damaged

Area of concern - where your intervention can make a difference
Penumbra
balloon like swelling of arterial walls

Usually at site of bifurcation (branch point)
Aneurysms
1
1
2
2
3
3
4
4
5
5
6
6
7
7
8
8
9
9
10
10
11
11
12
12
13
13
14
14
15
15
blood to brain is via what 2 main sets of arteries and what do they supply
internal carotid (anterior cerebrum / diencephalon)

vertebral-basilar arteries (posterior cerebrum / brainstem / cerebellum / spinal cord)
ID

basilar a
anterior inferior cerebellar a
posterior inferior cerebellar a
vertebral a
ID

basilar a
anterior inferior cerebellar a
posterior inferior cerebellar a
vertebral a
5 components of the Circle of Willis
i. Interconnects internal carotid and vertebral-basilar systems
			ii. Components
				1) Anterior cerebral artery
				2) Anterior communicating artery
				3) Internal carotid
				4) Posterior communicating artery
				5) Posterior cerebral ar...
i. Interconnects internal carotid and vertebral-basilar systems
ii. Components
1) Anterior cerebral artery
2) Anterior communicating artery
3) Internal carotid
4) Posterior communicating artery
5) Posterior cerebral artery
Anterior spinal artery - from ?
Anterior spinal artery - from vertebral artery
Anterior spinal artery - from vertebral artery
Posterior spinal artery - from ?
Posterior spinal artery - from posterior inferior cerebellar artery
Posterior spinal artery - from posterior inferior cerebellar artery
blood supply to the brain for the precentral gyrus (motor) and postcentral gyrus (sensory) for the arm, hand, face, tongue comes from what artery?
middle cerebral a
middle cerebral a
what is a
Watershed area
2) Watershed area = area where nutrients must diffuse to

Gets bigger as brain shrinks with age - nutrients must diffuse farther
blood supply - medulla
what is each color
blood supply - medulla
what is each color
blood supply - pons
what is each color
blood supply - pons
what is each color
blood supply - midbrain
what is each color
blood supply - midbrain
what is each color
3x blood supply to thalamus
a) Posterior cerebral (p)
b) Posterior communicating (p)
c) Anterior choroidal
3x supply to hypothalamus
a) Posterior communicating (p)
b) Anterior communicating (p)
c) Internal carotid (p)
2 structures of diencephalon
thalamus
hypothalamus
lenticulostriate is the perforating (of basal structures) branch of what artery?
middle cerebral a
what cerebral artery occludes the most causing stroke?
and it is a branch of what?
lenticulostriate

from middle cerebral a
fill in each line
fill in each line
flow through brain veins
what does the
Anterior comissure
do
Communicates information from one side to the other
Pyriform area

what special function
smell
lateral geniculate nucleus

to and from what
function
from thalamus
to visual cortex

vision
from thalamus
to visual cortex

vision
what are the 3 cranial nerves that move eye muscles and which muscles do they move
III - occulomotor nerve
Medial rectus
superior rectus
inferior rectus
inferior oblique

IV - traochlear nerve - Superior oblique

VI - abducens nerve - Lateral rectus
EYE MOVEMENT IS ESSENTIALLY CONTROLLED WITH CRANIAL NERVE NUCLEI LOCATED IN THE ____________ and one in the _____
EYE MOVEMENT IS ESSENTIALLY CONTROLLED WITH CRANIAL NERVE NUCLEI LOCATED IN THE MIDBRAIN and one in the pons
Edinger-Westphal nucleus
- where is it located
- main motor function
midbrain

pupil and lens function
which cranial nerve innervates superior rectus
3
3
which cranial nerve innervates medial rectus
3
3
which cranial nerve innervates lateral rectus
4
4
which cranial nerve innervates inferior rectus
3
3
which cranial nerve innervates superior oblique
4
4
which cranial nerve innervates inferior oblique
3
3
what is Ptosis
what nerve malfunctions to cause it
eyelid drooping
occulomotor (3)
if the left eye points down and out what nerve is busted and on what side
right trochlear nerve (4)
right trochlear nerve (4)
what innervates the lateral rectus muscle
6 - abducens
6 - abducens
IF HAVE PROBLEM WITH FACIAL EXPRESSION - PROBLEM IS IN THE _______ AREA OF THE BRAINSTEM
IF HAVE PROBLEM WITH FACIAL EXPRESSION - PROBLEM IS IN THE PONS AREA OF THE BRAINSTEM
what is the Accommodation reflex
Adaption of the visual apparatus of the eye for near vision
what is the
Consensual pupillary light reflex?
explain
response from the opposite eye being illuminated
response from the opposite eye being illuminated
afferent and efferent nerves
afferent - II - optic nerve
efferent - III - occulomotor
what is damaged here
what is damaged here
right optic nerve
right optic nerve
what is damaged here
what is damaged here
right occulomotor nerve
right occulomotor nerve
what does the
Paramedian pontine reticular formation
or PPRF
coordinate?
lateral gaze
what is
Internuclear opthalmoplegia?
where is the lesion
paresis of adduction in one eye and horizontal nystagmus in contralateral abducting eye

MLF - medial longitudinal fasiculus
what nerve gathers Sensory information from face and head?
trigeminal (5)
what are the 3 branches of CN5
trigeminal
- opthalmic
- maxillary
- mandibular
what does the motor aspect of the trigeminal nerve do (function) and where is its nucleus?

which branch has the motor
chewing - small nucleus in the pons

mandibular
dilineate on your own face where the 3 branches of the trigeminal innervate for sensory (and the names of the 3 branches
ophthalmic
maxillary
mandibular
ophthalmic
maxillary
mandibular
where do the 3 branches of the trigeminal go through the skull
V1 (ophthalmic) - superior orbital fissure
V2 (maxillary) - foramen rotundum
V3 (mandibular) - foramen ovale
where do the 3 branches of the trigeminal go through the skull
V1 (ophthalmic) - superior orbital fissure
V2 (maxillary) - foramen rotundum
V3 (mandibular) - foramen ovale
muscles of mastication are innervated by?
which goes through?
mandibular branch of trigeminal

which goes through foramen ovale
mandibular branch of trigeminal

which goes through foramen ovale
FOREHEAD IS _____________, LOWER FACE IS _____________

(SAME SIDE / CONTRALATERAL - for each)
FOREHEAD IS SAME SIDE, LOWER FACE IS CONTRALATERAL
main 3 funcs of function of CN7
- muscles of facial expression
- lacrimation / salvation
- taste (ant 2/3 of tongue)
- muscles of facial expression
- lacrimation / salvation
- taste (ant 2/3 of tongue)
main 2 funcs of CN8
vestibulocochlear
- balance (vestibular)
- hearing

all from pons (special sensory)
vestibulocochlear
- balance (vestibular)
- hearing

all from pons (special sensory)
test for CN9
glossopharyngeal

gag reflex
test for CN10
vagus

gag reflex or say hi
test for CN11
spinal accessory

life shoulders
test for CN12
hypoglossal

tongue movement
CRANIAL NERVRES 9-12 NUCLEI LOCATED IN __________ OF BRAINSTEM
CRANIAL NERVRES 9-12 NUCLEI LOCATED IN MEDULLA OF BRAINSTEM
CRANIAL NERVRES 9-12 NUCLEI LOCATED IN MEDULLA OF BRAINSTEM
carotid body
carotid sinus

each is what type of receptor
where is each exactly
carotid body - chemoreceptor (O2, CO2) - at plit

carotid sinus - baroreceptor (BP) - internal carotid
carotid body - chemoreceptor (O2, CO2) - at plit

carotid sinus - baroreceptor (BP) - internal carotid
what innervates the carotid sinus and body
to what nucleus
9 - glossopharyngeal

tractus soltarius
main very general thing vagus does
parasympathetic - brains stem to colon
CN10 stim does what to these
cardiac
lungs
GI
Cardiac
↓ HR

Lungs
↑ bronchiolar secretions and bronchoconstriction

GI tract
↑ secretions and motility
how test vagus in isolation
uvula deviation - to unaffected side
uvula deviation - to unaffected side
CN 9 and 10 both use nucleus ___________ as motor output
CN 9 and 10 both use nucleus ambiguus as motor output
CN11 leaves skull through

along with which others
jugular foramen

with
9, 10
jugular foramen

with
9, 10
2 major functions of CN11
spinal accessory

- contralateral trapezious
- ipsilateral sternomastoid
what nerve innervates the muscles that allow for protrusion of the tongue
CN 12 - hypoglossal
UMNL (upper motor lesion) - tongue deviates _______ from lesion side
UMNL (upper motor lesion) - tongue deviates AWAY from lesion side
LMNL (lower motor lesion) - tongue deviates ___________ lesion side
LMNL (lower motor lesion) - tongue deviates TOWARD lesion side

Ipsilateral side of tongue appears atrophied and fasciculations
*** where is each of the 12 cranial nerve nuclei located
I - olfactory []
II - optic []
III - occulmotor [midbrain]
IV - trochlear [midbrain]
V - trigeminal [midbrain, pons, medulla]
VI - abducens [pons]
VII - facial [pons]
VIII - vestibulocochlear [pons]
IX - glosopharyngeal [medulla]
X - vagus [medulla]
XI - accessory [medulla]
XII - hypoglossal [medulla]
brain accounts for ___% of total O2 consumption
20%
what is "Respirator brain"
1) Brain was dead and basically starting to decompose but was on respirator
2) Marked necrosis/edema/widespread destruction of the brain
3) From recurrent cycles of edema/vasocompression
4) → result - autolysis/softening of brain - prevents fixation in formalin
this is Morphology of cerebral ____________
i. Swollen brain
ii. Widened gyri
iii. Narrowed sulci
iv. Possible herniation
v. Ischemia and hemmorrhage associated with herniation
this is Morphology of cerebral ischemia
i. Swollen brain
ii. Widened gyri
iii. Narrowed sulci
iv. Possible herniation
v. Ischemia and hemmorrhage associated with herniation
red neurons are a sign of the early stage of what
ischemic injury to the brain
what 2 cell types/areas of the brain are particularly susecptible to early stage ischemic injury in the brain
a) Pyramidal cells - of the hippocampus
b) Purkinje cells - of the cerebellum
Pseudolaminar necrosis
is seen in subacute brain ischemia (24hrs - 2 wks)
what is it
Pseudolaminar necrosis - uncontrolled death of cells in cerebral cortex in BAND-LIKE pattern
what micro changes happen during the subacute stage (24hrs-2wks) of ischemic brain injury
- macrophages
- neutrophils
- macrophages
- neutrophils
what is the difference btw thrombotic and embolic strokes
embolic (red stroke) can be lysed and bloodflow re-established

thrombotic - thrombus reforms
what is a white stroke?
other name
thrombotic stroke

1) ↓ oxyhemoglobin in affected area of brain (turns pale)
a) From lack of perfusion

2) Thrombus may be lysed but quickly reforms (b/c of atherosclerotic changes in the vessel)
what is a lacunar stroke
hyaline narrowing of small branches of blood vessels (seen w/HTN)

- small infarcts → undergo liquefactive necrosis → leaves small cavities (lacunae) in basal ganglia
what is
Arteritis
Small / large vessel inflammation


b) Was seen in syphilis and TB
c) Now seen in immunosuppressed
Notch3 mutation
iii. CADASIL (cerebral autosomal dominant arteriopathy w/subcortical infarcts and leukoencephalopathy)
1) Rare hereditary form of stroke
3) Sx
a) Recurrent strokes
b) Dementia
4) Gross
a) Abnormalities of white matter
b) Concentric narrowing of the adventitia / media of leptomeningeal arteries
where do emboli usually infarct?
middle cerebral arter - direct extension of internal carotid artery
3 types of emboli
- fat
- air (puncture or the bends - nitrogen)
- tumor
5 kinds / causes of suffocation
1 - entrapment (displaces O2 out of environment)
2 - smothering - occlude external airway (nose/mouth)
3 - choking - occlude inner airway
4 - mechanical asphyxia - compress chest
5 - gases - displace oxygen or inhibit O2 binding
3 kinds of strangulation - which is a type of smothering
hanging (own ligaments occlude)
ligature (extension cord)
manual strangulation (arm/hands)
ruptured blood vessels in the eye may be a sign of what cause of death
choke hold

33lbs of force
blood goes in but cant leave
what kills via this MOA

By competing w/ferric iron of intracellular cytochrome oxidase (last stop of ETC - thing that makes ATP)
Hydrogen cyanide
Hydrogen cyanide
mech of killing
By competing w/ferric iron of intracellular cytochrome oxidase (last stop of ETC - thing that makes ATP)
Hydrogen cyanide
smells like what
almonds
if you smell these 2 smells you should GET OUT OF THERE because it might be what 2 gases
almonds - hydrogen cyanide

rotten eggs - hydrogen sulfide
put these neuro insults in order of quickness of onset

neoplastic, vascular, degenerative, infectious
vascular (min)
infection (hrs/wks)
neoplastic (days/wks)
degenerative (months/yrs)
neuro DDx - accronym

MITCH VINDI DO

stands for?
metabolic
infectious
traumatic
congenital
hereditary
vascular
immune
neoplastic
drugs
idiopathic
degenerative/demyelinating
other
what are the 6 parts of the neuro exam
1 - mental status
2 - cranial nerves
3 - motor
4 - reflexes
5 - sensory
6 - gait / coordination
6 parts of mental status exam (explain each)
LOC
orientation
memory
sustained mental activity
language
general knowledge
LOC
orientation (who, where, when)
memory (3/33 min recall (give 3 objects to memorize)
sustained mental activity (spell backwards)
language (repeat/comprehend)
general knowledge (ask about something current)
how test each of the 12 cranial nerves
1 - alcohol wipe
2 - reactive to light / visual fields
3, 4, 6 - H test (EOMI w/o nystagmus (extra ocular movements intact)
5 - facial sensation / muscles of mastication (clench/open)
7 - facial expression + corneal reflex
8 - can you hear that
9, 10, 11 - gag reflex / say ahhhh (if soft palate deviates on side - then def)
12 - stick tongue out (is it midline)
how test each of the 12 cranial nerves
1 - alcohol wipe
2 - reactive to light / visual fields
3, 4, 6 - H test (EOMI w/o nystagmus (extra ocular movements intact)
5 - facial sensation / muscles of mastication (clench/open)
7 - facial expression + corneal reflex
8 - can you hear that
9, 10, 11 - gag reflex / say ahhhh (if soft palate deviates on side - then def)
12 - stick tongue out (is it midline)
2x tests to test higher cortical function on PE
stereognosia (ID object based on touch)
graphesthesia (write number in your hand)
what is graphesthesia
what does it test
write in hand - know what it is

tests higher cortical function
what are the levels of tendon reflexes
0 - abscent
1 - hypoactive
2 - normal
3 - hyperactive
4 - hyperactive w/clonus (twitching)
what is the most important thing when testing tendon reflexes
symmetry
in a positive Babinski what happens

and this indicates what
toe goes up

upper motor problem
toe goes up

upper motor problem
2 main differences btw upper and lower motor neuron pathology in physical exam findings
upper - no atrophy, +Babinski

lower - atrophy, -Babinski
this picture is more typical of an upper or lower motor neuron weakness?
this picture is more typical of an upper or lower motor neuron weakness?
upper
this picture is more typical of an upper or lower motor neuron weakness?
this picture is more typical of an upper or lower motor neuron weakness?
lower
what is
Dysdiadakokinesia
in ability to perform rapid movements
what is
Romberg sign
iv. Station/balance
1) Romberg sign (Romberg 15s)
a) Close eyes
b) If break stance after 3s
c) Note wavering
in 2-3min you should be able to find a neuro problem even in pts w/o neuro Sx - what are the 6 steps and what do you do in each step
a. Mental status
i. Level of alertness
ii. Appropriatness of responses
iii. Orientation to date and place
b. Cranial nerves
i. Visual acuity
ii. Pupillary light reflex
iii. Eye movements
iv. Hearing
v. Facial strength (smile, eye closure)
c. Motor function
i. Gait (casual, tandem)
ii. Coordination (fine finger movements, finger-to-nose)
iii. Strength
1) Shoulder abduction
2) Elbow extension
3) Wrist extension
4) Finger abduction
5) Hip flexion
6) Knee flexion
7) Ankle dorsiflexion
d. Reflexes
i. Deep tendon reflexes
1) Biceps
2) Patellar
3) Achilles
ii. Plantar responses
e. Sensation
i. One modality at toes - can be light touch, pain/temperature, or proprioception
what regulates the emotional state
limbic system
2 hey limbic structure for emotion/memory
hippocampus
amygdala
what has these functions

i. Functions
1) Endocrine
2) Autonomic
a) Pulse
b) BP
3) Regulates
a) Hunger
b) Thirst
c) Response to pain
d) Sleep wake cycle
e) Levels of pleasure
hypothalamus
what does the hypothalamus do
regulates

autonomic - pulse / BP

hunger
thirst
pain response
sleep/wake cycle
level of pleasure
what does the hippocampus do
memory
what does the amygdala do
emotion
Lesions in the prefrontal cortex leads to?
i. Interrupts inhibitory control on amygdala
ii. Disinhibition of emotional responses
iii. Leads to socially inappropriate behavior and impulsivity
what is the blue thing
what is the blue thing
hippocampus
what are the 3 zones of the hippocampus
i. Hippocampus proper
ii. Dentate gyrus
iii. subiculum
what is the
Perforant pathway
what is the
Perforant pathway
major input to the hippocampus

i. In the entorhinal cortex
ii. Connects the hippocampus to parts of the cerebral cortex
a lesion in what would lead to:

i. Inability to learn new information
ii. Loss of declarative memory (facts) - "amnesia"
iii. Associated w/epilepsy - partial complex seizures
hippocampus
[Key fiber tracks of the limbic system]

short term memory
Fornix -- hippocampus
Fornix -- hippocampus
[Key fiber tracks of the limbic system]

Input of emotional responses
Stria terminalis -- amygdala
Stria terminalis -- amygdala
[Key fiber tracks of the limbic system]

whats this do:
Stria terminalis -- amygdala
Input of emotional responses
Input of emotional responses
[Key fiber tracks of the limbic system]

whats this do:
Fornix -- hippocampus
short term memory
short term memory
whats the mammillary body do?
where / what is it?
long term memory

nuclei of hypothalamus
long term memory

nuclei of hypothalamus
whats the fornix
whats it do
b/l fiber track
takes short term memory from hippocampus
and puts it in mammillary body (long term memory)
b/l fiber track
takes short term memory from hippocampus
and puts it in mammillary body (long term memory)
whats the
Stria terminalis
do
brings info from amygdala (emotion) to 
septal area
hypothalamus
brings info from amygdala (emotion) to
septal area
hypothalamus
what is the Source of cholinergic input to the hippocampus and amygdala?
septal nuclei
septal nuclei
what is Papez's circuit?
Basic layout of how limbic system works
Basic layout of how limbic system works
Papez's ciruit describes the circle that limbic emotion goes. what are the 6 parts and their order?
cingulate gyrus (big thing)
hippocampus
fornix
mamillary bodies
mammillothalmic tract
anterior nucleus of dorsal thalamus
cingulate gyrus (big thing)
hippocampus
fornix
mamillary bodies
mammillothalmic tract
anterior nucleus of dorsal thalamus
where (2x) are Declarative (explicit) facts stored such as episodic (events) and semantic (facts)
medial temporal lobe
medial diencephalon
medial temporal lobe
medial diencephalon
where are skills and habits stored
basal ganglia
cerebellum
neocortex
basal ganglia
cerebellum
neocortex
where are long term emotional associations stored
amygdala
amygdala
what is Korsakoff syndrome
loss of memory and confabulation (fabricate imaginary experiences as compensation for loss of memory)
Dx?

athology 1) ↓ neurons in hippocampus & parahippocampal cortex
2) Formation of amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles
ii. Sx

Progressive loss of memory / cognition / orientation / behavior
Alzheimer;s disease
this syndrome is caused by
a) Chronic alcoholics
b) Thiamine (Vit B1) deficiency
Korsakoff's syndrome

cant form new memories
intelligence fine - so fills in gaps
what is Kluver-Bucy syndrome
destruction of amygdala

no emotional response
Compulsion to be overly attentive to all sensory stimuli
hypersexuality
what is
Hyperthymestic syndrome
super memory
Dx?

ii. Sx
1) Tremor
2) Muscle rigidity
3) Impairment of postural reflexes
4) Btadykinesia (slow movements)

Hypokinesia (few movements)
Parkinson's disease
what does the Basal ganglia do
controls movement
Modulates cortical output from the primary motor cortex
what are the 4 main components of the basal ganglia (coordinates movement)
striatum
globus pallidus (pallidum)
subthalamic nucleus
substantia nigra
striatum
globus pallidus (pallidum)
subthalamic nucleus
substantia nigra
excitatory = (molecule)?
excitatory = glutamate
which of the 4 main parts of the basal ganglia takes most of the basal ganglia's input (which is from the cerebral cortex)
striatum
striatum
inhibatory = (molecule)?
inhibatory = GABA
output from the basal ganglia comes from which 2 of the 4 parts? what does the ouput pass through on the way out to the cerebral cortex?
- globus pallidus
- substantia nigra

passes through the thalamus
- globus pallidus
- substantia nigra

passes through the thalamus
output from the basal ganglia is INHIBITORY (GABA) to the thalamus which then excites/inhibits the cerebral cortex? what molecule?
excites (glutamate)
summarize the ins/outs of the basal ganglia
The basal ganglia influence is to modulate the_____________ OF THE THALAMIC NUCLEI
The basal ganglia influence is to modulate the level of EXCITATION OF THE THALAMIC NUCLEI
what is the difference btw direct and indirect basal ganglia pathways
- indirect inhibits the globus pallidus (which is outside the ganglia)

- which then stims the globus pallidus (which is part of the basal ganglia)

which then INHIBITS the thalamus (same)
which then STIMS the cortex (same)
functional difference btw direct/indirect basal ganglia pathways (in terms of the result, not how they work)
direct - facilitates movement

indirect - inhibits/damps down movement
direct - facilitates movement

indirect - inhibits/damps down movement
what doe the
Substantia nigra (compact part of basal ganglia)
do?

what molecule does it use to do this?
* the substantia nigra modulates the striatum - with DOPAMINE (stims direct / inhibits indirect pathways)
If you lose dopamine - lose modulation = (disease)
Parkinsons
too much inhibition from the (indirect) basal ganglia results in what
Parkinsons disease
too much stim from the (direct) basal ganglia results in
Huntingdon's chorea
Hemiballism
Dx?
Dx?
Parkinsons
direct or indirect pathway of basal ganglia
direct or indirect pathway of basal ganglia
indirect = inhibatory
direct or indirect pathway of basal ganglia
direct or indirect pathway of basal ganglia
direct
what does
Deep brain stimulation (DBS) - pacemakers for the brain
Tx?
Parkinsons

restores excitation and inhibition to the thalamus
Relief from tremors/rigidity/slowness of movement/stiffness/balance
Dx?

decreased inhibition - which leads to too much stim of cortex from basal ganglia
Huntingdon's disease of "Chorea"
what is
Huntingdon's disease of "Chorea"
decreased inhibition - which leads to too much stim of cortex from basal ganglia
how does Basal ganglia interact w/cerebellum
through upper motor neuron
through upper motor neuron
Any abnormality of the brain resulting from a pathologic abnormality of the blood vessels or their contents
Cerebrovascular disease
Sudden neurologic deficit resulting from cerebrovascular disease
Cerebrovascular accident (CVA) = stroke
what is CVA
Sudden neurologic deficit resulting from cerebrovascular disease
what are the 2 types of stroke
ischemic (white)
hemorrhagic (red)
ischemic (white)
hemorrhagic (red)
3 kinds(causes) of ischemic stroke
- thrombosis (clot forms there)
- embolism (clot got stuck there - formed somewhere else)
- lacunar infarct (thrombi in small vessel)
- thrombosis (clot forms there)
- embolism (clot got stuck there - formed somewhere else)
- lacunar infarct (thrombi in small vessel)
2 types of hemorrhagic stroke
subarachnoid
intracerebral
subarachnoid
intracerebral
what happens

↑ pCO2 → vessel ___________
↑ pCO2 → vessel dilates
↓ pCO2 → vessel _______________
↓ pCO2 → vessel constricts
↓ SBP → vessel ____________
↓ SBP → vessel dilates
on the humunkulus of the motor cortex, where is face?
lateral
lateral
on the humunkulus of the motor cortex, what is midline before the cortex goes down
hip
hip
what is the vascular supply for each color
what is the vascular supply for each color
language is usually dominant in the _________ hemisphere
Language = Left
strokes in the middle cerebral artery are more likely to cause hemisensory deficit in ________ the most
face > arm > leg
what is the vascular supply for each color
what is the vascular supply for each color
what is the blood supply (artery) for occipital and posterior temporal lobes
posterior cerebral
what is the blood supply (artery) for
pons
midbrain
occipital lobes
basilar artery
what is
Locked-in syndrome
awake and conscious - cant move anything other than vertical eye movement
what is a TIA (stand for and definition)
transient ischemic attack
- old term
- < 24hrs
- recover completely
- lasts 10-15min
- > 6hrs = stroke (neuron death)

now called a stroke with resolving deficits
for a TIA

If even within 72 hrs and ABCD2 > __ (score) → ADMIT
If even within 72 hrs and ABCD2 > 3 → ADMIT
If even within 72 hrs and ABCD2 > 3 → ADMIT
what are the ABCDs of determining (score) of the risk of a stroke after a TIA?
what is TSI
transient Sx associated with infarct
Better than warfarin for cardioembolic stroke
Dabigatran (Pradaxa) / Rivaroxaban (Xarelto)
what is
Endarterectomy
for
surgical Tx for atherosclerotic stroke
place shunt (tube)
surgical Tx for atherosclerotic stroke
place shunt (tube)
what is a
Watershed infarction
ischemia, or blood flow blockage, that is localized to the border zones between the territories of two major arteries

iv. Watershed = most distal area - most sensitive to ↓ in blood flow
1) This why you don’t ↓ BP in hypertensive pt with signs and Sx of cerebral ischemia
Tx - acute ischemic stroke?
Do NOT ↓ BP acutely!
(will kill the watershed areas! - will extend dead zone)

3) Aggressive Tx of hyperglycemia and hyperthermia
a) To prevent spread of zone

Is the pt a candidate for thrombolysis?
how work/Tx suspected embolic stroke (start with a test)
CT to see if there is blood
if not - anticoag (heparin then coumadin long term

NOT anticoagulating this stroke - anticoag against next stroke
Dx?
Dx?
lacunar infarct
tPA for ischemic stroke must be given within _____hrs of Sx onset
4.5hrs
AHA (America heart) says that for ischemic stroke when giving statins you want LDL below what
70mg/dL
what 2 things can cause
Carotid / vertebral artery dissection
which can cause stroke
trauma
sneezing
5 kinds of stroke - fill in
Ischemic
1) ____________
2) ____________
3) ____________

Hemorrhagic
1) ____________
2) ____________
Ischemic
1) Thrombotic
2) Embolic
3) Lacune

Hemorrhagic
1) ICH (intracerebral hemorrhage)
2) SAH (subarachnoid hemorrhage)
name for
multiple or single small cavitary infarcts
lacunar infarct
what is a
slit hemorrhage
i. Rupture of small penetrating vessels → small hemorrhages
ii. Make slit like cavity (lacunar is round lake)
1) Surrounded by brownish discoloration
iii. Micro
1) Focal tissue destruction
2) Pigment laden macrophages
3) Gliosis (remember - like fibrosis)
Onion skinning of vessel (means malignant ___)
Onion skinning of vessel (means malignant HTN)
what is
Binswanger disease
Pattern of injury - large areas of the subcortical white matter with myelin and axon loss

from
Hypertensive encephalopathy
Caudate nucleus constitutes a system that is responsible largely for _____________________
voluntary movement
*what are the 3 basic structure that make up the basal ganglia
- putamen
- globus pallidus
- caudate nucleus
what is
* Duret's hemorrhage
hemorrhage of the pons (midline)

				2) ALWAYS secondary hemorrhages
				3) When brainstem pushed down arteries at 90 rupture causing this
				4) → death
hemorrhage of the pons (midline)

2) ALWAYS secondary hemorrhages
3) When brainstem pushed down arteries at 90 rupture causing this
4) → death
3 branches of the trigeminal
ophthalmic
maxillary
mandibular
ophthalmic
maxillary
mandibular
facial skin infections, sinusitis, and dental abscess can cause dural sinus thrombosis where
cavernous sinus
birth control, malnutrition, dehydration, and cancer can cause dural sinus thrombosis where
superior sagittal sinus
what is the largest and most dangerous cerebral vascular malformation?
AVM (arteriovenous malformation)
AVM (arteriovenous malformation)
Dx?




			i. Cerebral subcortical white matter - most commonly
			ii. Up to few cm in diameter
			iii. Frontal lobe - most common site
			iv. May be multiple
			v. Well circumscribed
			vi. Dar red to brown
			vii. Micro
				1) Vascul...
Dx?




i. Cerebral subcortical white matter - most commonly
ii. Up to few cm in diameter
iii. Frontal lobe - most common site
iv. May be multiple
v. Well circumscribed
vi. Dar red to brown
vii. Micro
1) Vascular channels
a) Many
b) Closely packed
c) Thin fibrous walls - w/o muscularis
Cavernous hemangiomas (malformation/tumor)

which is a
Cerebral vascular malformation
where are berry aneurysms most commonly found
branch points
branch points
having what 3 things increase the incidence of berry aneurysms
- adult polycystic kidney disease
- Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
- Marfan syndrome (collegen production)

also
- smoking
- HTN
- cocaine
what is
CAA (cerebral amyloid angiopathy)
superficial hemorrhage in ppl over 60 where
Amyloidogenic peptides deposit in the wall of medium/small meningeal/cortical vessels
word for:
outside coverings of the brain
epidural
2 mechanisms of stroke
- block an artery (ischemia)
- rupture an artery (hemorrhage)
what are the components of the Circle of Willis
Anterior communicating artery
    Anterior cerebral artery (left and right)
    Internal carotid artery (left and right)
    Posterior communicating artery (left and right)
    Posterior cerebral artery (left and right)
Anterior communicating artery
Anterior cerebral artery (left and right)
Internal carotid artery (left and right)
Posterior communicating artery (left and right)
Posterior cerebral artery (left and right)
what does the
pineal gland
do
makes melatonin
what is the most common source of the embolis in an embolic stroke
heart

from afib
valve disease
90% of pts who get an Intracerebral hemorrhage (ICH)
also have
HTN
*** most common place for ICH (intracerebral hemorrhage) is?
PUTAMEN
*** most common place for ICH (intracerebral hemorrhage) is?
PUTAMEN
study of choice for suspected ICH
CT
Thrombosis of small deep penetrating arteries
is called what
lacunar stroke
what is the
Monro-Kellie doctrine
- volume of head is fixed

If volume ↑ must = loss or → ↑ pressure
main Tx for ↑ ICP
ELIMINATE THE CAUSE = SURGERY
for increased cranial pressure - when do you remove
1) Small hemorrhages (< ___cc) DO NOT need to be removed
2) Not enough ICP to cause herniation syndromes
dont remove if < 30cc
what is
Decompressive hemicraniectomy
open the box
large 10x10cm flap
to relieve pressure
open the box
large 10x10cm flap
to relieve pressure
who came up with

Bio-psycho-social
Engel (MD)
integration of behavior and relationships =
personality
1st textbook about mental illness - published 1586 by Timothy Bright
The Treatise of Melancholie
what is
The Treatise of Melancholie
1st textbook about mental illness - published 1586 by Timothy Bright
what did
Benjamin Rush
do
i. Philadelphia physician - signed declaration of independence
ii. Hospital for Tx of psych pts
who?

i. Philadelphia physician - signed declaration of independence
ii. Hospital for Tx of psych pts
Benjamin Rush
who?
i. Superego?
ii. Psychoanlalysis
Freud
who?
i. Thought Freud overemphasized sexuality
ii. Coined "inferiority complex"
iii. Birth order
1) Oldest vs youngest sibling
Alder
who?
i. Unconscious - not just individual
1) Collective unconscious
a) Social / cultural group
ii. Derived idea of persona
1) How you project yourself
Carl Young
what did Carl Young do?
- collective unconsious
- derived idea of persona (how you project yourself)
* name for this theory:

Ppls behavior not determined by internal events - rather by external events
social learning theory
* what is the
social learning theory
- Ppls behavior not determined by internal events - rather by external events

Ex - behavior that is rewarded or punished
- To make change (NOT by gaining insight or understanding -- But by changing their behavior)
- Not governed by the unconscious - but by something that is learned
who?

a. How ppl react to particular stimuli
b. Salivating dogs
c. Conditioned stimulus
i. Disappears without unconditioned stimulus (ring bell enough w/o food)
Pavlov
what is
operant conditioning
Behaviors are part of personality
i. Reinforced / strengthened w/ reward
ii. Go away if associated w/ something negative
b. Can use to desensitize to fears


Variable reinforcement
- Sometimes get + reinforcement - sometimes no
- Don’t know when its going to get it

Continuous reinforcement
- Always get

Observational learning
- Watching how someone else does it
Who?

Systematic desensitization - to overcome anxiety / fears
Wolpe
name of this therapy:

a. Ppl react to stimuli and how they react to stimuli
b. And how they incorporate that into whats going on in their lives
c. Eric Beck
d. Ppl are depressed b/c negative view of themselves
cognitive therapy
what is
Catatonia
complete cessation of motor activity
what is the definition/difference btw
illusion
hallucination
illusion = mistake in perception
hallucination = false perception
what is a
Persecutory delusion
Object of plot of someone trying to harm you
Body of the corpus callosum
name the structure

a. The little brain
b.
c. 10% of brains total weight
d. Largest structure in the posterior fossa
e. Behind brainstem at level of the pons
f. Attached by peduncles:
i. Superior, middle, inferior peduncles
cerebellum
cerebellum
what coordinates voluntary movements
cerebellum
what does these things:

a. Coordination of voluntary movements
b. Equilibrium
c. Muscle tone
d. Postural control
e. Cognitive functions
cerebellum
what part of the cerebellum is most important
midline
midline
cerebellar peduncles
vermis
tonsil



1) On either side of the pyramids of the medulla
2) Herniation compresses medulla → dead
A
A
posterolateral fissure
B
B
horizontal fissure
C
C
primary fissure

- divides ant/post lobes
A
name
what does it do
A
name
what does it do
Vestibulocerebellum or flocculonodular lobe
				1) Balance and gait
Vestibulocerebellum or flocculonodular lobe
1) Balance and gait
B
name
what does it do
B
name
what does it do
Spinocerebellum
				1) Coordinating adjustment of limb musculature
				2) Comparator btw intended and actual movements
Spinocerebellum
1) Coordinating adjustment of limb musculature
2) Comparator btw intended and actual movements
C
name
what does it do
C
name
what does it do
Cerebrocerebellum
				1) Coordination of voluntary motor activities
				2) Motor planning
Cerebrocerebellum
1) Coordination of voluntary motor activities
2) Motor planning
what part of the cerebellum compares btw intended and actual movements
spinocerebellum
what part of the cerebellum creates balance
vestibulocerebellum or flocculonodular
* A
- what zone (longitudinal)
- what deep cerebellar nucleus does it contain (colored structures)
- what is its function
* A
- what zone (longitudinal)
- what deep cerebellar nucleus does it contain (colored structures)
- what is its function
vermis
fastigial nucleus
- balance (eye movements)
vermis
fastigial nucleus
- balance (eye movements)
* B
- what zone (longitudinal)
- what deep cerebellar nucleus does it contain (colored structures)
- what is its function
* B
- what zone (longitudinal)
- what deep cerebellar nucleus does it contain (colored structures)
- what is its function
medial hemisphere (intermediate or parvermal zone)
interposed nucleus (emboliform + globose nucelus)
- adjusting limb movements
medial hemisphere (intermediate or parvermal zone)
interposed nucleus (emboliform + globose nucelus)
- adjusting limb movements
* C
- what zone (longitudinal)
- what deep cerebellar nucleus does it contain (colored structures)
- what is its function
* C
- what zone (longitudinal)
- what deep cerebellar nucleus does it contain (colored structures)
- what is its function
lateral hemisphere
dentate nucleus
- planning initiation & control of voluntary movements
lateral hemisphere
dentate nucleus
- planning initiation & control of voluntary movements
vermis = ? *
vermis = balance *

Fastigal nucleus
what deep cerebellar nucleus and what is it in that does:
planning initiation & control of voluntary movements
dentate nucleus
in the lateral hemisphere
dentate nucleus
in the lateral hemisphere
what is the major cell type of the cerebellum
Purkinje cells
what are the 3 layers of the cerebellum
- molecular layer (axons + dentrites from the purkinje cells)
- purkinje layer (purkinje cells)
- granular layer (unmyelinated axons + interneurons)
- molecular layer (axons + dentrites from the purkinje cells)
- purkinje layer (purkinje cells)
- granular layer (unmyelinated axons + interneurons)
climbing fiber
- what structure
- where synapse
- originate from
cerebellum
- synapse on purkinje cell dendrites (molecular layer - outer layer)
- originalte in the contralateral inferior olivary nucleus (medulla oblongata is the lower half of the brainstem)
cerebellum
- synapse on purkinje cell dendrites (molecular layer - outer layer)
- originalte in the contralateral inferior olivary nucleus (medulla oblongata is the lower half of the brainstem)
Mossy fibers
- what structure
- where synapse
- originate from
Mossy fibers
- what structure
- where synapse
- originate from
cerebellum
- synapse on dendrites of the granule cells
- originate from brainstem nuclei & spinal cord nuclei
describe the 4 steps of information flow into/out of the cerebellum
- structures
- inhibitory (GABA) or excitatory (glutamate)
Input stim causes inhibition of deep cerebellar nuclei which causes mostly output stim
Input stim causes inhibition of deep cerebellar nuclei which causes mostly output stim
describe the 4 steps of information flow into/out of the cerebellum
- structures
- inhibitory (GABA) or excitatory (glutamate)
Input stim causes inhibition of deep cerebellar nuclei which causes mostly output stim

input (stims) - cerebellar cortex (inhibits - w/GABA) - deep cerebellar nuclei (which mostly stim) - output targets
Input stim causes inhibition of deep cerebellar nuclei which causes mostly output stim

input (stims) - cerebellar cortex (inhibits - w/GABA) - deep cerebellar nuclei (which mostly stim) - output targets
what molecule is inhibatory stimulation
GABA
what molecule is excitatory stimulation
glutamate
*********** purkinje job is to
purkinje job is to modulate output to the deep cerebellar nuclei
purkinje job is to modulate output to the deep cerebellar nuclei
most dysfunction in the superior cerebellar peduncle (main output) is ipsilateral or contralateral?
ipsilateral
crosses TWICE
- caudal midbrain
- pyramid
3 brainstem and 1 spinal cord nuclei that send inputs into the cerebellar cortex
brainstem
- pontine nuclei
- vestibular nuclei
- inferior olivary nucleus (origin of climbing fibers)

spinal cord
- Clarks nucleus (C8-> L2-3) - proprioceptive information
brainstem
- pontine nuclei
- vestibular nuclei
- inferior olivary nucleus (origin of climbing fibers)

spinal cord
- Clarks nucleus (C8-> L2-3) - proprioceptive information [to spinocerebellar]
3 brainstem and 1 spinal cord nuclei that send inputs into the cerebellar cortex
brainstem
- pontine nuclei
- vestibular nuclei
- inferior olivary nucleus (origin of climbing fibers)

spinal cord
- Clarks nucleus (C8-> L2-3) - proprioceptive information
brainstem
- pontine nuclei
- vestibular nuclei
- inferior olivary nucleus (origin of climbing fibers)

spinal cord
- Clarks nucleus (C8-> L2-3) - proprioceptive information
output pathway from cerebellar cortex to?
cerebellar cortex ->
deep cerebellar nuclei -> (decussation (passes to))
brainstem - travels to thalaumus ->
motor/pre-motor cortex
cerebellar cortex ->
deep cerebellar nuclei -> (decussation (passes to))
brainstem - travels to thalaumus ->
motor/pre-motor cortex
[cerebellar cortex inputs]
pontocerebellar pathway
- terminates (2x)
- peduncle
- function (2x)
[cerebellar cortex inputs]
pontocerebellar pathway
- terminates (2x)
- peduncle
- function (2x)
pontocerebellar pathway
- terminates (2x)
[Contralateral anterior AND posterior cerebellar lobes]

- peduncle [middle cerebellar]

- function (2x)
[- Cortical info relevant  to motor commands
- Planned motor activities (walking)]
pontocerebellar pathway
- terminates (2x)
[Contralateral anterior AND posterior cerebellar lobes]

- peduncle [middle cerebellar]

- function (2x)
[- Cortical info relevant to motor commands
- Planned motor activities (walking)]
[cerebellar cortex inputs]
Olivocerebellar pathway
- terminates (2x)
- peduncle
- function (2x)
[cerebellar cortex inputs]
Olivocerebellar pathway
- terminates (2x)
- peduncle
- function (2x)
Olivocerebellar pathway
- terminates (2x)
[Inferior olivary nuclei
accessory olivary nuclei]

- peduncle [inferior cerebellar]

- function (2x)
[Motor coordination
Motor learning]
Olivocerebellar pathway
- terminates (2x)
[Inferior olivary nuclei
accessory olivary nuclei]

- peduncle [inferior cerebellar]

- function (2x)
[Motor coordination
Motor learning]
[cerebellar cortex inputs]
Posterior spinocerebellar pathway
- terminates (2x)
- peduncle
- function
[cerebellar cortex inputs]
Posterior spinocerebellar pathway
- terminates (2x)
- peduncle
- function
Posterior spinocerebellar pathway
- terminates (2x)
[Ipsilateral vermis
Intermediate zone]

- peduncle [inferior cerebellar]

- function [proprioceptive information]
Posterior spinocerebellar pathway
- terminates (2x)
[Ipsilateral vermis
Intermediate zone]

- peduncle [inferior cerebellar]

- function [proprioceptive information]
what are the 3 cerebellar input pathways and what they carry?
- pontocerebellar (planned - walking)
- olivocerebellar (coordination)
- posterior spinocerebellar (proprioceptive)
- pontocerebellar (planned - walking)
- olivocerebellar (coordination)
- posterior spinocerebellar (proprioceptive)
what are the 3 output cerebellar pathways and what information do they carry?
- dentate nucleus (planning initiation - control voluntary)
- interposed nucleus = emboliform + globus nucleus (comparator - adjust limb position)
- fastigial nucleus (balance / gait)
[cerebellar cortex outputs]
Dentate nucleus
- terminates (2x)
- peduncle
- function
[cerebellar cortex outputs]
Dentate nucleus
- terminates (2x)
- peduncle
- function
Dentate nucleus
- terminates (2x) [contralateral red nucleus and thalamus]
- peduncle [superior cerebellar]
- function [PLANNING inititation - control voluntary movements]
Dentate nucleus
- terminates (2x) [contralateral red nucleus and thalamus]
- peduncle [superior cerebellar]
- function [PLANNING inititation - control voluntary movements]
[cerebellar cortex outputs]
Interposed nucleus = emboliform + globus nucleus
- terminates
- peduncle
- function
[cerebellar cortex outputs]
Interposed nucleus = emboliform + globus nucleus
- terminates
- peduncle
- function
Interposed nucleus = emboliform + globus nucleus
- terminates [interposesed nucleus]
- peduncle [superior cerebellar - descending limb]
- function [comparator - adjusts limb position]
Interposed nucleus = emboliform + globus nucleus
- terminates [interposesed nucleus]
- peduncle [superior cerebellar - descending limb]
- function [comparator - adjusts limb position]
[cerebellar cortex outputs]
Fastigial nucleus
- terminates
- peduncle
- function
[cerebellar cortex outputs]
Fastigial nucleus
- terminates
- peduncle
- function
Fastigial nucleus
- terminates [bilateral to vertibular nuclei - reticular formation]
- peduncle [inferior cerebellar peduncle]
- function [balance and gait]
Fastigial nucleus
- terminates [bilateral to vertibular nuclei - reticular formation]
- peduncle [inferior cerebellar peduncle]
- function [balance and gait]
Most common form of ataxia (Aberrant regulation of limb movements w/poor coordination btw limbs)

- from dysfunction in cerebellum - or afferent / efferent pathways
Cerebellar ataxia
what is ataxia
Aberrant regulation of limb movements w/poor coordination btw limbs
what is
Posterior lobe syndrome
Loss of coordination of voluntary movements
↓ muscle tone
Back-forth movements perpendicular to intended direction of movement
Loss of coordination of voluntary movements
↓ muscle tone
Back-forth movements perpendicular to intended direction of movement
what is anterior lobe syndrome
gait messed up - all over - like your drunk

from malnutrition in chronic alcoholism
gait messed up - all over - like your drunk

from malnutrition in chronic alcoholism
what is
Flocculonodular lobe syndrome
Truncal ataxia

Lesion in flocculonodular lobe AND posterior VERMIS


Seen in children w/medulloblastomas in roof of 4th ventricle
Truncal ataxia

Lesion in flocculonodular lobe AND posterior VERMIS


Seen in children w/medulloblastomas in roof of 4th ventricle
in coordinating movement - what role do the basal ganglia and cerebellum play generally
basal ganglia - inhibitory (via thalamus)

cerebellum - excitatory (via thalamus)
basal ganglia - inhibitory (via thalamus)

cerebellum - excitatory (via thalamus)
where does the neuron that leaves the motor cortex synapse?
anterior horn cell
what 1950s neurosurgeon that tried to fix epilepsy make maps of the brain?
Wilder Penfield
Visual cortex is in what lobe
occipital
auditory is in what lobe
temporal
olfactory is in what lobes
inferior frontal
medial temporal
which hemisphere does language
the dominant one
how many layers does the cerebral cortex have?
6
what are the 3 formal and 2 additional parts of a mini mental status exam (Folstein exam)
orientation (person-you / place-floor,country,state / time)

registration (remember 3 words apple/ball/tree - check in 3 min)

attention (getting what you say to them)

_____________________________________________
calculation (how many quarters in $3.75)

visuo-spatial - draw clock
what lobe is Wenikies area in?
do?
posterior 1/3 of superior temporal gyrus
like dictionary for word meanings
what lobe is Broca's area in?
do?
frontal lobe

coordinates motor parts of language (speaking)
Wernies aphasia
- where is problem?
- what happens (Sx)
temporal lobe
- sub in wrong word or letter
- or make up new word
what is
apraxia
cant do learned movement correctly
what is
transitive apraxia
use toothbrush instead of spoon
what is
ideomotor apraxia
dont know the mechanics of how to eat the corn
what is agnosia
no knowledge / cant recognize
what is
Anosognosia
doesnt know they are sick
what is
Aprosopagnosia
Cant ID face - ID person based on facial features
what happens in pts w/ neglect agnosia?
what is usually caused by
neglect one side of the body
usually from visual field defect
what is
Asomatagnosia
Asomatagnosia
what is this:
i. Lesion of the NON dominant parietal lobe
ii. 4 parts to it
1) Acalculia - cant calculate anything
2) Finger agnosia - cant distinguish anything
3) Right-left confusion - cant distinguish btw right and left
4) Agraphia - cant write
Von-gerstmann
what is
Agraphia
cant write
where would the lesion be
- talk forever
- hypersexuality
temporal lobe
where would the lesion be
- cant get calm
- dont care how they look
frontal lobe
left of right brain?
musical, artistic, big picture
right
left of right brain?
logic
left
left brain is?
logic
right brain is?
music / art / big picture
the hippocampal gyrus does what
short term memory
what transfers information L/R btw hemispheres (structure)
corpus callosum
corpus callosum
4 main parts to bedside neuro exam
orientation
aphasia
corital sensory (put object in hand)
match the problem (motor/cognitive)
with
cerebral palsy
mental retardation
motor = CP
cognitive = MR
what causes
Cerebral palsy
generally
Brain injury btw fertilization & infancy
sensory or motor?
anterior horn cell
motor
how long is the spinal cord?
22 inches
how many levels in each of the 5 sections of the spinal column
cervical - 8
thoracic - 12
lumbar - 5
sacral - 5
coccygeal - 1
ascending spinal cord tracts are long and
- do?
- project to (3x)
- sensory
project to
- thalamus
- cerebellum
- brainstem nuclei
descending spinal cord tracts are long and
- do?
- project from(2x)
- to?
motor
from
- cerebral cortex
- brainstem nuclei
- spinal gray matter
posterior columns - of spinal cord
- ascending or descending
- carry (3x)
- ipsi or contra lateral?
- how many neurons
posterior columns - of spinal cord
- ascending or descending
- carry (3x)
- ipsi or contra lateral?
- how many neurons
ascending
carries
- position
- vibratory senses
- touch sensations

ipsilateral
3 neurons
ascending
carries
- position
- vibratory senses
- touch sensations

ipsilateral
3 neurons
what track?
fasiculus cuneatus (nucleus cuneatus in medulla)

what does it carrier
posterior columns

fibers from sacral/lumbar/thoracic

legs
thorax
trunk
what track?
fasiculus gracilis (nucleus gracilis in medulla)

what does it carrier
posterior columns

fibers from cervical levels

hand
arms
neck
what does the Corticospinal tract
- do?
- how many neurons?
- ipsilateral or contralateral
corticospinal tract
- voluntary motor (descending pathway)
- 2 neurons (precentral gyrus to anterior horn to muscle)
- ipsilateral (crosses before cord - in the medulla
corticospinal tract
- voluntary motor (descending pathway)
- 2 neurons (precentral gyrus to anterior horn to muscle)
- ipsilateral (crosses before cord - in the medulla
where does the corticospinal tract cross?
is it ipsilateral or contralateral
crosses in the the pyramidal decussation of the medulla

considered ipsilateral (same side) because it crosses before the cord
where are the face fibers in the internal capsule?
at the bend (genu)
at the bend (genu)
what is the
corticobulbar
connects cerebral cortex and brainstem
what are upper and lower neurons
NOT level in spine

upper - precentral gyrus to anterior horn (in brain)
lower - anterior horn to muscle (in spinal cord)
big MOTOR nerve to face
CN VII - facial
Babinski's sign - bottom of foot
if + is a sign of upper/lower motor neuron problem
upper
fasiculations (muscle twitch) is a sign of upper/lower motor neuron problem?
lower
name the tract
name the tract
spinothalamic tract
what is
Brown Séquard syndrome
half the spinal cord is crushed
half the spinal cord is crushed
3 parts of the
Equilibrial triad
1 - proprioceptive system
2 - visual system (CN II)
3 - vestibular system (CN VIII)
what are the 3 parts of the bony labyrinth
- vestibule
- semicircular canals
- cochlea

embeded in the petrous portion of the temportal bone
what part of what bone does the bony labyrinth reside in
petrous portion of the temportal bone
A
A
malleus
malleus
B
B
incus
incus
C
C
stapes
stapes
D
D
eustachean tube
eustachean tube
E
E
cochlear
cochlear
F
F
semicircular canals
semicircular canals
G
G
vestibular nerve
vestibular nerve
H
H
facial nerve
facial nerve
I
I
auditory nerve
auditory nerve
what is the ampulla in the semicircular ducts and where are they found
there are 3 - one at the end of each semicircular duct
- horizontal
- anterior
- posterior

they are where the crista or actual sensors are
A
A
cochlear duct
cochlear duct
B
B
saccule
saccule
C
C
utricle
utricle
D
D
anterior semicircular duct
anterior semicircular duct
E
E
posterior  semicircular duct
posterior semicircular duct
F
F
horizontal semicircular duct
horizontal semicircular duct
G
G
ampulla
of posterior semicircular duct
ampulla
of posterior semicircular duct
H
H
oval window
oval window
I
I
round window
round window
what is the bony labyrinth filled with (its like CSF)?
what electrolytes are high/low - Na / K
perilymph
- like normal extracellular fluid
- high [Na]
- low [K]


continuous w/subarachnoid space
what / where is the membranous labyrinth?
closed tube inside bony labyrinth
(purple in pic)
what is the membranous labyrinth filled with?
what are [Na and K]
endolymph

like intracellular fluid
- high [K]
- low [Na]



bony labyrinth :
perilymph
- like normal extracellular fluid
- high [Na]
- low [K]
what do the Semicircular ducts do?
detect motion (by rotation in the 3 planes)
detect motion (by rotation in the 3 planes)
what are the / what do they do?
- crista
- cupula

what are they in specifically? which is at the end of what? which do what?
crista - bump that holds the receptor cells

cupula - is the thing that moves in the fluid (endolymph - high K, low Na)

this is in the ampulla which is at the end of the semicircular tubes which sense movement
crista - bump that holds the receptor cells

cupula - is the thing that moves in the fluid (endolymph - high K, low Na)

this is in the ampulla which is at the end of the semicircular tubes which sense movement
what is a tip link?
what is it on?
what does it do - specifically and as part of what generally
connects stereocilia in the cupula which connect to the crista and sense motion in the semicircular ducts which is part of the inner ear
connects stereocilia in the cupula which connect to the crista and sense motion in the semicircular ducts which is part of the inner ear
what are the specific steps to the mechano-electrical transduction of movement in the ampulla of the semicircular ducts
1 - deflection
2 - tip link pulls open K channels
3 - K enters from endolymph
4 - HAIR CELL depolarizes
5 - voltage-gated Ca channels open
6 - release neurotransmitter glutamate (CN VIII - vertibular nerve) - afferent
1 - deflection
2 - tip link pulls open K channels
3 - K enters from endolymph
4 - HAIR CELL depolarizes
5 - voltage-gated Ca channels open
6 - release neurotransmitter glutamate (CN VIII - vertibular nerve) - afferent
the utricle and saccule detect what?
linear motion
what are the otoconia?

what are they part of / do?
crystals (calcium carbonate) that sit on gel layer - gives mass to the gel and hair cells

otolithic organ - detects linear motion
crystals (calcium carbonate) that sit on gel layer - gives mass to the gel and hair cells

otolithic organ - detects linear motion
what is the actual cell type that detects the motion of the gel in the otolithic organs (linear) and semicircular ducts (rotation)?
hair cells
the macula of the
saccule
detects acceleration in the __________ plane
sagittal

saccule = sagittal
saccule = ?
saccule = sagittal
the macula of the
utricle
detects acceleration in the __________ plane
horizontal
detects motion in what plane
saccule =
utricle =
saccule = sagital
utricle = horizontal
what ganglion does information from the utricle / saccule (linear), and semicircular ducts (rotation) go through?
vestibular ganglion (Scarpa's ganglion)
vestibular ganglion (Scarpa's ganglion)
what 2 things does the MVST (medial vestibulospinal tract) do
- stabilizes head position
- coordinates eye movement
- stabilizes head position
- coordinates eye movement
what does the LVST (tract) - lateral vestibulospinal tract - do?
postural compensation
what function does the
Vestibuloocular reflex
allow for?
Gaze can stay fixed on an object while the head is moving; Doll's Eye Movement
Gaze can stay fixed on an object while the head is moving; Doll's Eye Movement
what is nystagmus
eyes keep tracking an object /  movement that is no longer moving
eyes keep tracking an object / movement that is no longer moving
if you squirt COLD water into right ear (of comotose pt), which way will eyes go if brainstem intact

* if lying supine
cold in right
think head is going left
eyes rotate right

for direction head thinks its going
COWS = cold opposite / warm same
cold in right
think head is going left
eyes rotate right

for direction head thinks its going
COWS = cold opposite / warm same
if you squirt WARM water into right ear (of comotose pt), which way will eyes go if brainstem intact

* if lying supine
cold in right
think head is going right
eyes rotate left

for direction head thinks its going
COWS = cold opposite / warm same
cold in right
think head is going right
eyes rotate left

for direction head thinks its going
COWS = cold opposite / warm same
what is
Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)?

what causes it?
Tx?
feels like moving when not

caused by
- otoconia (crystals) being dislodged - moves to semicircular ducts (usually posterior) - bumps the cupula

Tx
- canalith repositioning procedure (CRP)
- drugs for Sx
why / how (MOA) does alcohol cause vertigo?
changes blood density
- alcohol enters endolymph (causes cupula to float)
- then alcohol leaves - cupula sinks - feels like rotation
what is
Proprioception
sense of position
what is kinesthesia
sense of movement
what structure
monitors the strength of muscle contraction
golgi tendon organs
golgi tendon organs
what mechanoreceptor senses vibration and pressure
Pacinian corpuscles
what do Pacinian corpuscles do?
mechanoreceptors that sense vibration and pressure
what do Muscle spindles sense?
STRETCH
STRETCH
what is this:

a) In SERIES with muscle fibers
b) When the muscle contracts they bunch up and do nothing
c) They are STRETCH receptors
muscle spindle fibers
name the mechanoreceptor
- stretch
- strength of contraction
- stretch (stretch)
- strength of contraction (golgi tendon)
where does CONTROL of muscle movement come from
spinal cord


regulation is farther up
1 alpha motor unit = _____________ + ______________
1 alpha motor unit = neuron + all muscle fibers it innervates
1 alpha motor unit = neuron + all muscle fibers it innervates
describe the general steps of a spinal motor reflex
i. Produces 1 motor response - same 1 over and over
				1) Begins w/stim to a sensory receptor (ex: muscle spindle)
				2) An afferent pathway to the CNS
				3) 1+ synapses in the CNS
				4) An efferent pathway to the periphery
				5) An effe...
i. Produces 1 motor response - same 1 over and over
1) Begins w/stim to a sensory receptor (ex: muscle spindle)
2) An afferent pathway to the CNS
3) 1+ synapses in the CNS
4) An efferent pathway to the periphery
5) An effector (the muscle)
what mechanoreceptors sense
velocity
length
of stretch
muscle spindles
what mechanoreceptors sense
load
force
being applied to muscle
golgi tendon organs
how do distal limb and proximal limb motor nuclei spatial relate in the spinal cord?
medial = proximal
lateral = distal
medial = proximal
lateral = distal
what are
intrafusal muscle fibers
all muscle fibers (cells) that are INSIDE the muscle spindle (group Ia, group II)
all muscle fibers (cells) that are INSIDE the muscle spindle (group Ia, group II)
what are
extrafusal muscle fibers
all (most) muscle fibers that are outside the spindle
all (most) muscle fibers that are outside the spindle
what are
Group Ia fibers

where are they found?
FAST adapting
signal RATE of stretch
what are
Group II fibers

where are they found?
slow / long firing

only innervates nuclear chain fibers
for motor efferent (input)

compare alpha and gamma motorneuron input

both
- are lower motor neurons
- have cell bodies in the anterior horn
alpha
- east to stim
- innervates EXTRAFUSAL fibers
- when fires => tension / shortens fibers

gamma
- only gets stim from HIGHER brain centers
- innervates INTRAFUSAL muscle fibers
- keep the sensing fibers taught
what does the static stretch reflex do?
increases muscle tonw
also - if bone grows - causes muscle to grow and activates group II sensory fibers
what is this
what is this
stretch reflex
what do each measure
Group Ia

Group II
Group Ia - Rate of stretch
Group II - Length of fiber
Group Ia - Rate of stretch
Group II - Length of fiber
what do gamma efferents do
since the intrafusal fibers slacken when the muscle contracts - the gamma efferents tell them to tighten so they can sense changes again
since the intrafusal fibers slacken when the muscle contracts - the gamma efferents tell them to tighten so they can sense changes again
where do gamma fibers that keep the intrafusual sensory fibers taught get their stim from?
cerebellar (CNS)
what specific neuron types are involved in a stretch reflex like the patellar reflex
group 1a - sends signal through posterior horn
synapses with alpha motor neuron in the anterior horn
group 1a - sends signal through posterior horn
synapses with alpha motor neuron in the anterior horn
what is feed forward inhibition
relaxes antagonist muscle
what do golgi tendon organs do?
- prevents muscle from being torn
- sensory information of heaviness/resistance to CNS
what fiber group does golgi tendon organs use to send info to cord
group Ib
group Ib
how does a golgi tendon reflex work
through an inhibitory interneuron

which inhibits the alpha motor neuron telling it to relax so it doesnt tear
through an inhibitory interneuron

which inhibits the alpha motor neuron telling it to relax so it doesnt tear
where is the center of mass in the human body
S2
S2
what are the 5 antigravity muscles
- gastroc-soleus
- quadriceps
- hip extensors
- paraspinals
- neck extensors
- gastroc-soleus
- quadriceps
- hip extensors
- paraspinals
- neck extensors
what is the crossed extensor reflex
ex - step on tack

inhibits one sides hip extensor, and stims the other side
ex - step on tack

inhibits one sides hip extensor, and stims the other side
relating to vertigo
Of those who fall (sustain hip fracture __% will die)
relating to vertigo
Of those who fall (sustain hip fracture 49% will die)
#1 complaint pts 70+
vertigo
true vertigo
vestibular disorder
- sensation of spinning - from asymmetrical impulses from vestibular system
- nystagmus (rapid jerking of eyes)
Most common peripheral vertigo
Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)
what is the mechanism that causes
Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)
Abnormality in association of otoconia to the cupula - in the membranous labyrinth

→ resulting in abnormal responses to endolyph movement with head motion
Dix-Hallpike test
tests for?
Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)
THE Tx for BPPV?
Gans repositioning maneuver

brings debris back to neutral
hold each of the 3 positions for 30s
Gans repositioning maneuver

brings debris back to neutral
hold each of the 3 positions for 30s
Dx?

i. Sudden episode of vertigo
1) w/o hearing loss or tinnitus
2) Single or mult
3) Herpes simplex II virus
4) Spring/early summer
a) From/with upper respiratory tract infection
5) n-v
6) Followed by BPPV
Vestibular neuronitis/neuritis
Dx?

i. Sudden profound loss in
1) Auditory
2) Vestibular function
ii. Old ppl
1) Young = w/ atherosclerotic or hypercoagulation disorders
iii. Episodic vertigo - may be precede complete occlusion
iv. After complete occlusion
1) Vertigo subsides
2) Leaves unsteadiness/dysequilibrium - several months while compensates
Labyrinthian infarction
a Sx triad of:
- vertigo
- tinnitus
- hearing loss

suggests what disease that has too much endolymph (too much production or too little resorption)

20's and 30's
Meniere's disease
* how Dx Meniere's disease
cold air into ear = opposite
a migraine with aura - what is aura
hallucinations
- abnormal sensory perceptions (visual most common)
what is
Mal de Debarquement
motion (swaying/rocking) after disembarkment
* what is the gold standard Dx for acoustic neuroma (schwannoma of the 8th CN)
MRI of IACs w/gadolinium
what is #1 complaint of pts over 70 y/o
dizziness (vertigo)
* when you have less than 3 of the fall factors what is the changes you are going to fall?
12%
* spinning inside the head is/is not a vestibular problem
is NOT
is a psych problem
* best way to test for position vertigo (what test)?
Hallpike test
* best Tx for BPPV
Gans (Canalith) repositioning maneuver
word?
Any restriction resulting from an impairment of an ability to perform a normal activity
disability
what is the difference btw impairment, disability, and handicap?
impairment - loss / abnormality of pysch / physical / anatomical function

disability - restriction from impairment

handicap - disadvantage from impairment / disability
4 musculoskeletal uses of heat Tx
tendonitis
tenosynovitis
bursitis
capsulitis
what is
Contracture
a permanent shortening of a muscle or joint.



It is usually in response to prolonged hypertonic spasticity in a concentrated muscle area, such as is seen in the tightest muscles of people with conditions like spastic cerebral palsy.
what does each neuromuscular fiber group carry

group 1a
group 2
group 1b
group 1a - muscle length, as well to change in velocity, rapidly adapting
group 2 - position sense
group 1b - Golgi tendon organ (tenses spindle fibers)
compare the effects of hot and cold Tx
main uses of heat Tx (x)
- chronic inflammation
- tendonitis
- tenosynovitis
- bursitis
- capsulitis
* who (roles/titles) of the 4 team members in occupational therapy. name who does each of the listed

- hygienic factors, meds management, safety
- counseling, testing
- total living situation, coordinate return to home
- assess level of social capability / educate in leisure activities
rehabilitation nurse - hygienic factors, meds management, safety

psychologist - counseling, testing

social worker - total living situation, coordinate return to home

recreational therapis - assess level of social capability / educate in leisure activities
what is the difference btw an abrasion and a laceration?
abrasion - scrape on skin
laceration - NOT cut wound - blunt object breaks / tears skin
what is a contusion
bruise
name for bruise / black and blue
contusion
name for:
a. Blunt object tears soft tissue
b. NOT a cut wound
laceration
what is this
what is this
laceration

- irregular margins
- skin torn from being hit by a blunt object
what is a
spectacle hematoma

what is it commonly seen with
bleeding around eyes
commonly seen w/gunshot wound to head - pressure wave from bullet blows out orbital plates
bleeding around eyes
commonly seen w/gunshot wound to head - pressure wave from bullet blows out orbital plates
what are
terminal fall injuries
caused by
from the impact of a fall after LOSS OF CONSCIOUSNESS
from the impact of a fall after LOSS OF CONSCIOUSNESS
what are the 5 types of facial fractures
- dentoalveolar
- LeFORT I
- LeFORT II
- LeFORT III
- sagital
what is a dentoalveolar facial fracture?
fragments mandible / teeth
- direct force anterior / lateral
what is a LeFORT I facial fracture?
TRANSVERSE fracture of the MAXILLA

above teeth
through nasal septum / maxillary sinuses / palatine bone of the sphenoid bone

[red line]
TRANSVERSE fracture of the MAXILLA

above teeth
through nasal septum / maxillary sinuses / palatine bone of the sphenoid bone

[red line]
what is a LeFORT II facial fracture?
[blue line]

near zygomatic/maxillary suture
- inferior orbit/orbital floor
- nasal bones / septum
[blue line]

near zygomatic/maxillary suture
- inferior orbit/orbital floor
- nasal bones / septum
LeFORT III fracture - where?
[green line]

high transverse fracture
- maxilla
- through nasofrontal suture / medial orbital wall / frontozygomatic suture
- sphenoid bone
[green line]

high transverse fracture
- maxilla
- through nasofrontal suture / medial orbital wall / frontozygomatic suture
- sphenoid bone
where is sagital fracture
in sagital plane
- through maxilla
- high death rate
compare / location of
LeFORT I, II, III fractures
I - red
II - blue
III - green
I - red
II - blue
III - green
what is this showing?
what is this showing?
LeFORT facial fractures
I - red
II - blue
III - green
LeFORT facial fractures
I - red
II - blue
III - green
what is a
Subgaleal hematoma
bleeding under the galea aponeurotica (fiberous layer on top of skull)
bleeding under the galea aponeurotica (fiberous layer on top of skull)
name for
bleeding under the galea aponeurotica (fiberous layer on top of skull)
Subgaleal hematoma
Subgaleal hematoma
battle sign
- what is it
- what does it indicate
contusion behind the ear
- basilar skull Fx
what is
ecchymosis
a hematoma
- subcutaneous purpura (extravasion of blood) larger than 1 cm
periorbital ecchymosis
- what is it
- what could it indicate
bruising around the eye
- Fx of the orbital roof
what is a ring Fx
jump out of house - spinal column goes up into foramen magnum
what is usually the source of an epidural hematoma (EDH)
arteriole

skull fractures - meningeal artery ruptures and blood pours in
arteriole

skull fractures - meningeal artery ruptures and blood pours in
besides above/below the dura, what is the difference(s) btw epidural and subdural hematoma
EDH 
- from skull Fx that causes arteriole bleed
- surface is FLAT

SDH
- from tears in bridging veins- slowly accumulate blood
- has UNDULATING surface
EDH
- from skull Fx that causes arteriole bleed
- surface is FLAT

SDH
- from tears in bridging veins- slowly accumulate blood
- has UNDULATING surface
what is
Subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH)
hemorrhage btw arachnoid and cerebral cortex

from berry aneurysm or trauma or AVM (arteriovenous malformation)
what is a hemorrhage btw arachnoid and cerebral cortex called
Subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH)
is a coup contusion
stationary head is hit
what is
contra coup contusion
head hits stationary something (ground)
head hits stationary something (ground)
what type of movement causes
Intermediary coup contusions
rotation
what type of contusion might this be
what type of contusion might this be
contra coup (head hit stationary ground)
what is the orange spot?
what might this mean
what is the orange spot?
what might this mean
Hemosiderin = old contra coup contusion

a) Often from falling off barstool backwards
b) May impair ability to smell
Hemosiderin = old ____________ ______________

a) Often from falling off barstool backwards
b) May impair ability to smell
Hemosiderin = old contra coup contusion

a) Often from falling off barstool backwards
b) May impair ability to smell
does a concussion cause functional or structural damage to the axon
functional
when the brain is accelerated side to side this causes what type of injury to the axons
diffuse axonal injury (DAI)

or

gliding contusions (glides under dura)
Dx (name of injury type)

- axon swelling
- axonal bulbs (Cytoarchitecture and neurofilaments disturbed)
- 2-3hrs post injury - beta amyloid precusror protein
Dx (name of injury type)

- axon swelling
- axonal bulbs (Cytoarchitecture and neurofilaments disturbed)
- 2-3hrs post injury - beta amyloid precusror protein
Diffuse axonal injury (DAI)

usually in white matter tracts due to high density of axons
Diffuse axonal injury (DAI)

usually in white matter tracts due to high density of axons
Dx?
- SDH (subdural hematoma) / brain swelling
- retinal / optic nerve injury (RED FLAG if there - not always there)
- may have gripping injury from SQUEEZED
- ↑ ICP (from BBB disruption)
shaken baby syndrome (SSS)
Dx?
Dx?
shaken baby syndrome (SSS)



- SDH (subdural hematoma) / brain swelling
- retinal / optic nerve injury (RED FLAG if there - not always there)
- may have gripping injury from SQUEEZED
- ↑ ICP
shaken baby syndrome (SSS)



- SDH (subdural hematoma) / brain swelling
- retinal / optic nerve injury (RED FLAG if there - not always there)
- may have gripping injury from SQUEEZED
- ↑ ICP
where / what herniates in a transtentorial herniation

why do you observe pupillary dilation on side of lesion

from ↑ ICP
temporal compressed agains tentorum

CN III (occulomotor) compressed)
temporal compressed agains tentorum

CN III (occulomotor) compressed)
what is respirator brain?
hypoxia-ischemia

24-48hrs post insult - swollen necrosis
word for:
a. Set of characteristics/traits that distinguish 1 person from the next
b. Traits seen consistently 1 day to the next
i. Traits established by late adolescence/early adult
personality
what is
Personality disorder
when ones characteristic traits become MALADAPTIVE
what is
ego syntonic

ego dystonic
ego syntonic
- when ones maladaptive characteristic traits are NOT DISTRESSING to the individual

ego dystonic - when they ARE distressing
what are the 3 three letter words that describe the 3 clusters of personality disorders
MAD
BAD
SAD
what are the 2 cluster A
MAD
personality disorders
paranoid personality disorder

schizoid personality disorder
what are the 4 cluster B
BAD
personality disorders
antisocial
borderline
histionic
narcissistic

personality disorders
what are the 3 cluster C
SAD
personality disorders
avoidant
dependent
obsessive-compulsive

personality disorders
If family Hx alcohol/substance abuse
more likely to have what personality disorder?
antisocial personality disorder
what is a typical phyiscal exam finding for pts w/personality disorders
smooth eye pursuit - eyes shift back and forth
name the personality disorder and name the cluster:
- inappropriate distrust of everyone
- ALWAYS guarded - hard to find friends/ significant others
paranoid personality disorder

MAD
name the personality disorder and name the cluster:
- loners
- cold and detached
- IT ppl
- very active fantasy life
- may have affection for pet
- if stressed - can decompensate and become psychotic
schizoid personality disorder

MAD - cluster A
name the personality disorder and name the cluster:
- illegal acts
- social irresponsible
- shows Sx <15yo - school late / always in trouble / rules not made for me
- criminal in adult life
- make up own rules - sopranos / godfather
- substance abuse common
M > F (3:1)
antisocial personality disorder

BAD - cluster B for bad
name the personality disorder and name the cluster:
- unstable mood - shifts minute to minute
- impulsive
- feel alone even if not (manipulative so not alone - aloness distressing / depressing / suicidal to get attention)
F > M (2:1)

- very common / well studied
borderline personality disorder

BAD - cluster B
- all bad one minute
- all good the next
name the personality disorder and name the cluster:
- focused only on self (appearance / how much attention they are getting)
- entire being based on physical attractiveness
F > M
- seductive in look and speech
histionic personality disorder

BAD - cluster B
name the personality disorder and name the cluster:
- self absorbed
- entranced w/own success (always need to be more successful / everyone needs to see how awesome they are)
- no apathy for anyone else (cant challenge them)
narcissistic personality disorder

BAD - cluster B
name the personality disorder and name the cluster:
- excessive discomfort in ANY relationship
-feel they will be humiliated / rejected if enter relationship
- seem shy / awkward
- WANTS to have relationship - just too afraid of rejection / humiliation
- like women but all fantasy - not in reality
avoidant personality disorder

SAD - cluster C
name the personality disorder and name the cluster:
- turns everything in life over to SOMEONE ELSE
- afraid of being alone - will stay in abusive relationship
- depressed (esp if separated)
- common in medical relationships (no doctor, you tell me what to do)
dependent personality disorder

SAD - cluster C
name the personality disorder and name the cluster:
- perfectionists
- standards - little room for compromise
- preoccupied w/rules and trivial details
- compulsive / organized / structure - inflexible
- cant delegate responsibilities - must do self
- too focused on 1 thing - interferes w/relationships
obsessive-compulsive personality disorder

SAD - cluster C
what are the 3 SAD - cluster C personality disorders
and generally what are they about
avoidant - want relationships but fear rejection / humiliation

dependent - turn everything over to someone else / abused will stay

obsessive-compulsive - perfectionists / must do self / rules and details
what are the 2 MAD - cluster A personality disorders
and generally what are they about
paranoid - distrust everyone

schizoid - cold detached loner w/active fantasy life
what are the 4 BAD - cluster B personality disorders
and generally what are they about
antisocial - criminal / substance abuse / own rules / me 1st [M 3:1]

borderline - impulsive mood shift minute to minute [F 2:1]

histionic - focused ONLY on looks / self appearance

narcissistic - entranced w/own success
name the personality disorder
- resists authority other people have
- EX - have deadline just not going to do it
- EX - needs to be done a certain way but does it own way anyway
passive aggressive
name the personality disorder
- basic personality is just down
depressive personality
A hydrodynamic disorder of the cerebrospinal fluid that leads to an increase in the volume occupied by this fluid in the central nervous system
Hydrocephalus
what is
Hydrocephalus
CSF takes up more volume in CNS
what are the 5 steps of CSF flow?
lateral ventricles
→ foramen of Monro
→ 3rd ventricle
→ cerebral aqueduct
→ 4th ventricle
how is hydrocephalus Dx? (radio/Sx)
clinically (Sx)

ventriculomegaly can be normal (radio finding)
what is communicating hydrocephalus
large ventricular system
- no closed ducts
- lots of CSF
how do pts w/obstructive hydrocephalus present
lethargic / comatose - must be relieved (by catheter)
*** how does normal pressure hydrocephalus present
clinical triad
- gait disturbance
- slow thoughts / actions / dementia
- urinary incontinence


from resistance to CSF flow
these Sx might suggest what type of hydrocephalus:

headache
nausea
ataxia
vision disturbance
neck pain
high pressure hydrocephalus
what is
Hydrocephalus Ex vacuo
brain shrinks w/age - fills w/fluid
NOT hydrocephalus
brain shrinks w/age - fills w/fluid
NOT hydrocephalus
how Tx hydrocephalus
- lumbar puncture
- 3rd ventriculostomy (endoscopic)
- remove obstruction
- shunting (catheter w/valve)
Dx?

a. Clinical Presentation (there will likely be a question about this on the test)
i. Headache
ii. Nausea
iii. Ataxia
iv. Disturbance of vision
v. Neck pain
vi. These are the typical things, and they’re generally not focal neurologic problems that they have – patients just feel lousy
hydrocephalus
what is the usual cause of hydrocephalus (overproduction or underabsorption or blockage)
underabsorption or blockage